Exam Review PDF

Review Questions Note: ​ Answers must be hand-written (yes, you can handwrite it on an IPad and print out) ​ Two options: 1.​ Print review questions; circle correct multiple choice questions and answer short-answer questions on a lined sheet of paper 2.​ Don’...

Review Questions Note: ​ Answers must be hand-written (yes, you can handwrite it on an IPad and print out) ​ Two options: 1.​ Print review questions; circle correct multiple choice questions and answer short-answer questions on a lined sheet of paper 2.​ Don’t print and write all answers on a lined sheet of paper (write the multiple choice question number with the correct answer beside it - ex. #3 - b.) ​ Each unit of questions should be on its own page(s) with the unit name as the title ​ Writing must be neat and readable - I will not find you for clarification ​ Answers must be written in order and corresponding question number is clearly indicated ​ If you chose option 1, staple the short-answer answers (lined paper) after the corresponding question page ​ Keep paper clean (wrinkle and stain free) ​ You need to complete this package entirely and thoroughly in order to receive full marks (including proper formatting) ​ This package is marked out of 20 I will be marking this quick, I need you to keep this package clear and organized  Unit One: Diversity of Living Things Multiple Choice (24) 1. What is the type of diversity that takes into account the quantity of each different type of organism, as well as the variety of different organisms present in an area? ​ a. species diversity​ ​ ​ b. genetic diversity ​ c. ecosystem diversity​ ​ d. structural diversity 2. Which of the following is the highest taxonomic level of the traditional Linnaean system of classification? ​ a. phylum​ ​ ​ ​ b. species ​ c. class​ ​ ​ ​ d. kingdom 3. Which of the following is true about the traditional classification systems? ​ a. They group species according to evolutionary relatedness ​ b. They are the only type of classification system used by scientists ​ c. They group species according to observed morphological characteristics ​ d. All of the above are true 4. Which of the following is true of organisms that reproduce asexually?​ ​ a. they often undergo hybridization ​ b. they make up the majority of all organisms ​ c. they do not fall under any of the six kingdoms ​ d. the species definition does not apply to them 5. The binomial nomenclature system uses a two-name format. What does the first of the two names refer to? ​ a. specific name​ ​ ​ b. genus name ​ c. species name​ ​ ​ d. common name 6. Which of the following is the name given to single-celled organisms that do not contain membrane-bound organelles? ​ a. prokaryote​​ ​ ​ b. eukaryote ​ c. hybrid​ ​ ​ ​ d. taxon 7. What does a phylogenetic tree show? ​ a. a set number of taxonomic ranks ​ b. the order of cells that have joined to form long strands or clustered arrangements ​ c. the classification of all organisms ​ d. the evolutionary relationship between and among species 8. Modern classification system is based on which of the following? ​ a. six kingdoms and three domains ​ b. three kingdoms and six domains ​ c. six kingdoms and six domains ​ d. three kingdoms and three domains 9. What is the key difference between autotrophic bacteria and heterotrophic bacteria? ​ a. they obtain nutrients and energy in different ways ​ b. autotrophic bacteria cause disease and heterotrophic bacteria do not ​ c. they use different methods of reproduction ​ d. their physical appearance is different 10. Which term best describes a clump of rod-shaped bacteria? ​ a. diplococcus​ ​ ​ b. streptobacillus ​ c. staphylococcus​ ​ ​ d. diplospirillum ​ e. staphylobacillus​ ​ ​ f. streptococcus 11. Conjugation, transformation, and transduction are three processes that increase what? ​ a. the metabolism of bacteria ​ b. the reproductive rate of bacteria ​ c. the genetic diversity of bacteria ​ d. the rate of nutrient uptake of bacteria 12. Which of the following can be used to describe all viruses? ​ a. contain RNA​ ​ ​ b. cause cancer ​ c. contain DNA​ ​ ​ d. are infectious agents 13. Which statement correctly describes a way in which viruses are different from living things? ​ a. they are classified into genera and species ​ b. they do not reproduce or use energy ​ c. they reproduce and pass on genetic information ​ d. they contain proteins 14. What is the name of the cycle in which a virus enters a host cell, replicates, and destroys the host cell? ​ a. binary fission​ ​ ​ b. lysogenic cycle ​ c. lytic cycle​ ​ ​ ​ d. epidemic cycle 15. Which group of protists is characterized by silica shells? ​ a. euglenoids​​ ​ b. ciliates ​ c. diatoms​ ​ ​ ​ d. slime moulds 16. Which of the following is not a method of movement used by protists? ​ a. cilia​​ ​ ​ ​ b. pseudopods ​ c. flagella​ ​ ​ ​ d. all are methods of movement 17. Which of the following is an example of a plant-like protist? ​ a. volvox​ ​ ​ ​ b. stentor ​ c. amoeba​ ​ ​ ​ d. paramecium 18. What are the cell walls of fungi made up of? a. mycelium ​​ ​ ​ b. chitin c.​ hyphae ​ ​ ​ ​ d. cellulose 19.The symbiotic relationship called mycorrhiza arises is a relationship between fungi and what? a. animals ​ ​ ​ ​ b. bacteria c.​ plants ​ ​ ​ ​ d. protists 20. Which of the following groups of plants evolved most recently? a. nonvascular plants ​ ​ b. gymnosperms c.​ seedless vascular plants ​ d. angiosperms 21. Which of the following characteristics best describes bryophyte? a.​ low to the ground b.​ has a woody stem c.​ lives in ecosystems with almost no moisture d.​ produces large flowers 22.​Which pair of characteristics could be used to describe all animals? a.​ multicellular, heterotrophic b.​ invertebrate, marine c.​ eukaryotic, radial symmetry d.​ segmented bodies, photosynthetic 23.​Which of the following body systems developed from the ectoderm layer of an embryo? a.circulatory system​​ ​ b. nervous system c. excretory system ​ ​ d. muscular system 24. Animals in which of the following groups are classified as chordates? a. amphibians ​ ​ ​ b. mollusks c. nematodes ​ ​ ​ d. arthropods Short Answer: Answer neatly on a lined sheet of paper then attach after this page 1.​ What is taxonomy? Why is it useful? 2.​ What is binomial nomenclature and who developed it? 3.​ What are the rules for writing species names using binomial nomenclature. 4.​ List the 7 main classification taxa in order. How do organisms in subsequent levels of taxa compare? 5.​ Define species. What organisms are not considered species. 6.​ List the six kingdoms and summarize the key characteristics of each (uni/multi cellular, hetero/autotrophic, asexual/sexual, pro/eukaryote, etc.) 7.​ What is the difference between anaerobic and aerobic respiration? 8.​ List the four main groups of Archaea and describe each. 9.​ Summarize the different ways bacteria can be classified (place emphasis on their shape and arrangement). 10.​Explain the different types of bacterial reproduction: binary fission, transduction, transformation, and conjugation 11.​What are viruses? In what ways can viruses be classified? 12.​How are antibiotics and vaccines different? Why can antibiotics not be used to treat viral infections? 13.​Summarize the key characteristics of the three main groups of protists. Provide examples of each. 14.​Explain the key features by which fungi are identified. 15.​Describe the structure of a typical cap fungus and the role of each part. 16.​Describe the different groups of fungi and provide an example for each group. 17.​Compare non-vascular plants and vascular plants. 18.​Compare gymnosperms and angiosperms. 19.​Explain alternation of generations. Include terms such as haploid, diploid, gametophyte, sporophyte 20.​Describe the 5 characteristics by which animals are described. 21.​List the ten major phyla of the animal Kingdom. Provide an example of each. Describe some key characteristics of each phyla (habitat, # germ layers, organ systems, reproduction, presence/absence of coelom, protostome/deuterostome, etc.) ​ Note: Diagrams to study from this unit include: bacteria, bacteriophages, fungus structure.  Unit Two: Plants Multiple Choice (14) 1. Which of the following is true of plants? a. Since they cannot move away from herbivores, plants have developed other ways to protect themselves. b. Carbon dioxide is the main source of chemical energy plants needs for development ​ c. Plants are only able to absorb nutrients from water in the soil. ​ d. A plant can die from too little water, never from too much 2. What is the main role of plant roots? ​ a. protect the plant from herbivores ​ b. raise and support the leaves ​ c. take in carbohydrates ​ d. absorb water and nutrients 3. Which of the following root systems is composed of a one large, thick root? ​ a. fibrous root system​ ​ b. taproot system ​ c. lateral root system​ ​ d. none of the above 4. Which best describes the role that stems play in plant reproduction? ​ a. stems are the site of the pollen and ovule production ​ b. stems protect the plant seeds ​ c. stems position cones and flowers in the correct spots ideal for pollination ​ d. stems contain substances that attract pollinators 5. What are the two main functions of leaves? ​ a. sugar transport and starch storage ​ b. photosynthesis and gas exchange ​ c. reproduction and support ​ d. water and nutrient absorption ​ 6. What function do guard cells perform? ​ a. they carry out photosynthesis and gas exchange ​ b. they control the opening and closing of the stomata ​ c. they prevent cells from freezing ​ d. they provide structural support to the leaf 7. Which is a male reproductive structure of an angiosperm plant? ​ a. anther​ ​ ​ ​ b. stigma ​ c. style​ ​ ​ ​ d. carpel 8. Which of the following help water and dissolved nutrients move upward against gravity? ​ a. root pressure​ ​ ​ b. capillary action ​ c. transpiration​ ​ ​ d. all of the above 9. What is the layer of meristematic cells in the vascular tissue that divides to form new xylem and phloem cells? ​ a. vascular bundle​ ​ ​ b. cork cambium ​ c. vascular cambium​ ​ d. Caspian strip 10. Woody stems are made up primarily of ​ a. phloem​ ​ ​ ​ b. xylem ​ c. ground tissue​ ​ ​ d. cortex 11. What is the primary site or sites of sugar transport in plants? ​ a. phloem​ ​ ​ ​ b. xylem ​ c. pith​​ ​ ​ ​ d. both phloem and xylem 12. Which of the following is responsible for leaf drop? ​ a. gibberellins​ ​ ​ b. cytokinins ​ c. ethylene​ ​ ​ ​ d. abscisic acid 13. Which chemical stimulates cell division?​ ​ a. cytokinin​ ​ ​ ​ b. auxin ​ c. ethylene​ ​ ​ ​ d. gibberellin 14. What is the term for the movement of a plant in response to light? ​ a. thigmotropism​ ​ ​ b. thermotropism ​ c. phototropism​ ​ ​ d. gravitropism Short Answer: Answer neatly on a lined sheet of paper 1.​ Compare monocots and dicots. Provide common examples of each. 2.​ List the plant tissues. What role does each tissue play? 3.​ Compare phloem and xylem. 4.​ Compare the 3 types of ground tissue cells. 5.​ Explain how water and sugars are moved throughout the plant. Use terms like cohesion, adhesion, transpiration, translocation, pressure-flow mechanism, root pressure 6.​ Explain how phylum sap moves from source to sink. 7.​ Sketch a typical flower. Label it and list the roles of each. 8.​ Compare primary growth and secondary growth. 9.​ What is the role of root hairs? 10.​What is the role of the endodermis? 11.​Define the 3 types of plant tropisms 12.​What are the 5 plant hormones and what is the function of each? Note: Diagrams to study include cross sections of root, stem, leaf of monocots and dicots.  Unit Three: Genetics Multiple Choice (14) 1.​ Which best describes the structure of human DNA? a.​ Two parallel, identical strands of nucleotides b.​ Two strands of nucleotides that intertwined in opposite directions to form a corkscrew pattern c. Identical copies of a chain of nucleotides linked to form a single, long chain d. Circular, interconnected chains of nucleotides 2.​ Which process is an example of asexual reproduction? a.​ A plant producing seeds b.​ A bird attracting a mate c.​ A protist undergoing mitosis and cytokinesis d.​ A dog giving birth to a litter of puppies 3.​ If analysis of the double-stranded DNA in an organism reveals that 30% of the nitrogenous base is adenine, which statement is true? a.​ 15% must be thymine b.​ The combine percentages of adenine and thymine must be 60% c.​ 30% must be guanine d.​ The combine percentage of guanine and cytosine must be 60% 4.​ During Interphase, what form does the genetic material in the cell take? a. sister chromatids​​ b. spindle fibers c. chromatin​ ​ d. homologous chromosomes 5.​ Match each term on the left with the most appropriate description on the right a.​ Anaphase I (i) each sister chromatid undergoes synapsis with a sister chromatid from its matching homologous chromosome b.​ Metaphase II (ii) completion of the second nuclear division c.​ Prophase I (iii) chromosomes, each with two sister chromatids, line up across the middle of the cell d.​ Telophase II (iv) two homologs of each chromosome pair separate and move toward opposite poles 6. The process of oogenesis results in which products? a.​ 4 egg cells b.​ 4 sperm cells c.​ 1 egg cell and 3 polar bodies d.​ 1 sperm cell and 3 polar bodies 7.​An adult human with a nondisjunction disorder can have a. 22 chromosomes​ ​ b. 46 chromosomes c. 47 chromosomes​ ​ d. None of the above 8.​ If a true breeding pea plant with yellow seeds (dominant) is crossed with a true breeding pea plant with green seeds, what is the probability that the F1 generation will have green seeds? a. 0 %​​ ​ ​ b. 25% c. 75% ​ ​ ​ ​ d. 100% 9.​ What is the genotype of the F1 generation plants produced from the dihybrid cross of the plants in Question 8? a. RRYY​ ​ ​ ​ b. RRYy c. RrYY​ ​ ​ ​ d. RrYy 10. What phenotype ratio is expected in a dihybrid cross of 2 F1 generation plants from Question #9? a. 1: 3 :1​ ​ ​ ​ b. 1:2:1 c. 9:3:3:1​ ​ ​ ​ d. 3:1:9 11.​ What term describes an individual who carries only one type of allele for a gene? a. heterozygous ​ ​ ​ b. monohybrid c. homozygous ​ ​ ​ d. dihybrid 12.​In humans, which blood type is the result of codominance? a. type A​ ​ ​ ​ b. type B c. type AB ​ ​ ​ ​ d. Type O 13. How is the probability of two independent events both occurring calculated? a.​ multiply the probabilities of the events b.​ add the probabilities of the events c.​ subtract the probability of the events d.​ divide the probability of the event 14. Which describes the possible effects of a genetic mutation? a. harmful ​ ​ ​ ​ b. beneficial c. neutral ​ ​ ​ ​ d. any of the above Short Answer: Answer neatly on a lined sheet of paper 17.​Describe the composition of DNA and how it replicates. Why is replication necessary? 18.​If a strand of DNA has the following sequence, what is the complementary (matching) sequence? AGC TTG CGA 19.​Describe the process of mitosis. What types of cells undergo mitosis? Provide a diagram for each stage of mitosis. 20.​Describe the process of meiosis. Why is meiosis necessary? 21.​Name and Describe the key events for each stage of meiosis. 22.​Describe how variation occurs through the processes of random assortment and crossing over. 23.​Contrast mitosis and meiosis. 24.​Compare spermatogenesis to oogenesis 25.​Describe nondisjunction in meiosis I and in meiosis II. 26.​Describe 2 nondisjunction disorders. 27.​Describe the different types of chromosomal abnormalities that can occur and provide an example of a disorder caused by the abnormality. 28. How were Mendel’s experiments ideas significant for the time (and still are today)? 29. Explain Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment and Law of Segregation. 30. What is epigenetics? 31. In dogs, wire hair (H) is dominant to smooth (h). (a)​Predict the genotypes and phenotypes of the F1 generation that results from the cross of a homozygous wire-haired dog with a smooth-haired dog.  (b)​Predict the genotypes and phenotypes of the F1 generation that results from the cross of a heterozygous dog with a smooth-haired dog. 32. In pepper plants, green (G) fruit color is dominant to red (g) and round (R) fruit shape is dominant to square (r) fruit shape. (a)​Predict the genotype(s) and phenotype(s) of the F1 generation if a plant that produces red, square fruit is crossed with a plant that is pure breeding for the green and round traits. (b)​Predict the genotype(s) and phenotype(s) of the F2 generation if an F1 plant is self-pollinated. 33. Suppose you have two rose plants, both with pink flowers. You cross the two plants and are surprised to find that, while most of the offspring are pink, some are red and some are white. (a)​You decide that you prefer red flowers over pink flowers or white flowers. What plants should you cross so that all of the offspring will have red flowers? (b)​Which cross(es) will produce no red flowers? (c)​Your grandmother is fond of the pink roses and so you decide you now want to produce roses with pink flowers. What plants should you cross to get only pink flowers? 34. A man with blood type A (whose mother had blood type O) had a child with a woman who had blood type AB. Predict the probability of the child having each type of blood (A, B, AB, O). 35. Colour blindness is a common recessive X-linked genetic disorder. (a)​If a man who is colour blind has a child with a women who is a carrier, what is the chance they will have a baby girl who is colour blind? What is the chance they will have a boy who is colour blind? (b)​If a man who is not colour blind has a child with a women who is a carrier, what is the chance that they will have a baby girl who is colour blind? What is the chance they will have a boy who is colour blind?  Unit Four: Evolution Multiple Choice (15) 1.​ A scientific theory is a.​ An educated guess b.​ An explanatory model that is backed by a very large body of data c.​ One of many possible explanations about a phenomenon d.​ Complete and completely accurate 2.​ Which of the following statements is incorrect? a.​ Lamarck proposed that individuals could pass on traits that they acquired during their lifetime to their offspring b.​ Lyell revolutionized geology suggesting that geological change is slow and gradual c.​ Cuvier’s studies on fossils revealed that complex fossils are found only in the oldest rocks d.​ Darwin’s theory of natural selection explains that the environment favours some individuals over others 3.​ Biography is a.​ The study of fossil organisms in order to learn about earlier life forms b.​ The observed geographic patterns of the distribution of species c.​ The idea that global catastrophes have caused the widespread extinction of species d.​ The idea that Earth and all living things have been created in their present forms and are unchangeable 4.​ Which of the following pairs are homologous features? a.​ Horse hind leg and human arm b.​ Human arm and insect wing c.​ Mouse skull and giraffe skull d.​ Fish fin and whale fin 5.​ Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure? a.​ The gills of a fish​ ​ b. the larynx of a giraffe c. Goose bumps on a wolf​ d. the hip bones of a snake 6. Which of the following four hammerhead sharks would be considered the most fit in terms of natural selection? ​ ​​ a. 15 year old shark that has died from ingestion of trash in the ocean; 5 live offspring ​ ​​ b. 10 year old shark that has broken free from several fishing lines; no offspring ​ ​​ c. 25 year old shark; 15 offspring (all eaten while young) ​ ​​ d. 20 year old shark with internal parasites; ten live offspring 7. ​ Post-zygotic mechanisms of reproductive isolation include ​ ​​ a. ecological isolation​ ​ b. hybrid infertility ​ ​​ c. temporal isolation​ ​ d. behavioural isolation 8. Which of the following is most likely to occur when a small number of individuals move to a different location and establish a new population? ​ ​​ a. bottleneck effect​​ ​ b. founder effect ​ ​​ c. genetic drift​ ​ ​ d. sexual selection 9. Convergent evolution is exhibited most clearly by which of the following pairs of animals? ​ ​​ a. whales and elephants​ ​ ​ ​ ​​ b. sharks and dolphins ​ ​​ c. flying squirrels and porcupines​​ ​ ​​ d. lions and tigers 10. The many species of cichlid fish in Africa present an excellent example of which pattern of evolution? ​ ​​ a. adaptive radiation​ ​ b. divergent evolution ​ ​​ c. convergent evolution​ ​ d. co-evolution 11. New species may form after an original species separates into two geographically isolated populations. What is this called? ​ ​​ a. pre-zygotic speciation​ ​ b. post-zygotic speciation ​ ​​ c. sympatric speciation​ ​ d. allopatric speciation 12. Which of the following was the first trait to emerge that separated humans from their primate ancestors? ​ ​​ a. very large brain relative to body size ​ ​​ b. upright walking (bipedalism) ​ ​​ c. hands capable of fine manipulation ​ ​​ d. development of language 13. The monogenesis theory states that early hominids evolved in and lived in ​ ​​ a. Eurasia​ ​ ​ ​ b. Africa ​ ​​ c. North America​ ​ ​ d. Northern Europe 14. Human success can be attributed to which of the following abilities? ​ ​​ a. complex reasoning and learning​ ​ ​​ b. complex tool making and use ​ ​​ c. communication using complex symbolic language ​ ​​ d. all of the above 15. Humans are ​ ​​ a. primates​ ​ ​ ​ b. anthropoids ​ ​​ c. hominids​ ​ ​ ​ d. all of the above Short Answer: Answer neatly on a lined sheet of paper 25. What were Darwin’s contributions to the theory of evolution? 26.​What type of evidence did Darwin find to support his evolution, where did he get it, and how was it significant? 27.​Explain the 5 evidences that support Darwin’s Theory. 28.​Explain the various mechanisms of microevolution. 29.​What is speciation? 30.​What is a reproductive barrier? Discuss the 6 types of reproductive barriers. 31.​What is the difference between pre-zygotic and post-zygotic barriers? 32.​Discuss allopatric vs sympatric speciation. 33.​Explain the role of the environment in natural selection and speciation. 34.​Compare and contrast adaptive radiation (divergent) and convergent evolution 35.​What is the main difference between prosimians and anthropoids? Give an example from each group. 36.​What is the difference between the multiregional hypothesis and the monogenesis hypothesis with respect to human evolution?  Unit Five: Comparative Systems Multiple Choice (20) 1.​ Which of the following is the SI unit used to measure the energy stored in food? a. Kilograms​ ​ ​ b. Watt c. Kilojoules ​ ​ ​ d. Lipid 2. Which of the following statements is false? ​ a. enzymes are a chemical helper that allow reactions to occur faster. ​ b. enzyme digestion begins in the mouth with a carbohydrase. ​ c. enzymes for digestion split the molecules by helping with hydrolysis ​ d. the final enzyme digestion occurs in the stomach. 3. Which of the following is one of the three main types of carbohydrates? a. amino acids ​ ​ ​ b. triglycerides c. polysaccharides ​ ​ d. hormones 4. Which of the following organisms has a bag digestive system? ​ a. starfish​ ​ ​ ​ b. jellyfish ​ c. earthworm​ ​ ​ ​ d. grasshopper 5. Which of the following is not an adaptation to improve the digestion of herbivores? ​ a. having a caecum​​ ​ b. having large flat teeth ​ c. having a short digestive tract​ d. have multiple stomachs 6. What is one of the functions of the sphincter muscle in the digestive tract? a.​ to move food into and out of the stomach b.​ to trigger the lungs to cough c.​ to open and close the jaw d.​ to contract and expand the liver 7. Digestion is complete and most of the nutrients have been absorbed once the digested material reaches the a. stomach​ ​ ​ ​ b. pancreas c. small intestine​ ​ ​ d. large intestine 8. Which of the following is the correct order of the main steps in human digestion? ​ a. absorption, ingestion, egestion, digestion ​ b. egestion, ingestion, absorption, digestion ​ c. ingestion, digestion, absorption, egestion ​ d. digestion, ingestion, absorption, egestion 9. Cells cannot carry out basic life functions without having a continuous supply of which gas? a. oxygen ​ ​ ​ ​ b. nitrogen c. carbon dioxide ​ ​ ​ d. water vapour 10. What is the primary purpose of aerobic cellular respiration? a. to provide oxygen for cells ​ b. to provide food for cells c. to break down oxygen ​ ​ d. to provide energy for cells 11. Which of the following is not a requirement for a gas exchange system? a. method of delivering gases​ ​ ​ b. internal membranes for exchange c. membranes that are one cell thick​ d. membranes that are kept moist 12. Which organism has a flow through system for gas exchange? ​ ​ a. eagle​ b. worm ​ c. dogs​ d. goldfish 13. Which two terms are synonymous? a.​ ventilation and breathing b.​ ventilation and gas exchange c.​ gas exchange and breathing d.​ gas exchange and cellular respiration 14. Which feature is not a gas exchange surface? a.​ The skin of an earthworm b.​ The alveoli of a human lung c.​ The air sacs in a bird d.​ The gills of a fish 15. Which of the following carries most of the oxygen to the body cells? a. blood plasma ​ ​ ​ b. hemoglobin c. white blood cells ​ ​ d. platelets 16. An increase of carbon dioxide in the blood will stimulate which of the following to occur? a.​ heart rate to decrease b.​ breathing rate to double c.​ both heart rate and breathing rate to increase d.​ both heart rate and breathing rate to decrease 17. Which of the following organisms has an open circulatory system? a. sponge ​ ​ ​ ​ b. snail c. ​ earthworm ​ ​ ​ d. trout 18. Which of the following is a fluid that results when the blood cells, platelets, and fibrinogen have been removed from whole blood? a. plasma​ ​ ​ ​ b. lymph c. globulin ​ ​ ​ ​ d. hemoglobin 19. Which of the following carry blood away from the heart towards the blood body tissues? a. veins and venules ​ ​ b. arteries and arterioles c. veins and arterioles​ ​ d. arteries and venules 20. Which of the following statements regarding diffusion is not correct? a. it is the movement of particles from an area of high concentration to low concentration b. it is an active movement, energy is required to move the particles c. the larger the concentration difference to faster the particles will move d. diffusion is important to the movement of gases and nutrients in any organism Short Answer: Answer neatly on a lined sheet of paper 21.​ Describe the 3 main nutrients required by the body. 22.​Describe the essential macronutrients that body needs. 23.​Define ingestion, digestion, absorption, egestion, physical digestion, and chemical digestion. 24.​Describe how mechanical (physical) and chemical digestion are different. Provide an example of each. 25.​Describe the main types of digestive enzymes and provide an example of each. Where are many of these enzymes produced? Where do many of them act? 26.​Describe the process of phagocytosis and explain how it is important for digestion in single celled organisms. 27.​Explain the modification of the digestive system of different animals so they can efficiently breakdown nutrients. 28.​Explain the different between a bag digestive system and a tube digestive system. 29.​Label the following diagram of the human digestive tract and explain the role of each part: 30.​ Why do organisms need gas exchange? 31.​ Define diffusion. How is diffusion maximized for efficient gas exchange? 32.​ Compare the respiratory process in different animals and identify the different areas where gas exchange occurs. 33.​ What is the difference between a flow-through system and an in and out system? 34.​ Explain how the rib cage and diaphragm work for inhaling and exhaling air. 35.​ Label the following diagram of the human respiratory system and explain the role of each part: 36.​ What is the purpose of a circulatory system? 37.​ Describe the 3 components of a circulatory system. 38.​ Compare and contrast arteries and veins with respect to their structure, function, and direction of blood flow. 39.​ Describe the structure and function of capillaries. 40.​ Explain the difference between an open and a closed circulatory system. 41.​ Compare and contrast a simple circulatory system, a double circulatory system with a 3 chambered heart and a double circulatory system with a 4 chambered heart. Provide examples for each type. 42.​ Label the parts of the following heart. 43.​ Draw and then describe the flow of blood through the 4 chambered heart with respect to source/destination of blood, the O2/CO2 content, chambers, valves, arteries, and veins.