Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam #2 Practice Test PDF

lOMoARcPSD|33729509 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam #2 Practice Test Essentials of Pathophysiology (Rasmussen University) Scan to open on Studocu Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any c...

lOMoARcPSD|33729509 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam #2 Practice Test Essentials of Pathophysiology (Rasmussen University) Scan to open on Studocu Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Downloaded by Kayla Peters ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|33729509 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam #2 Practice Test 1. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s Disease are examples of which bowel disorder? a. Intussusception b. Volvulus c. Inflammatory d. Mechanical bowel obstruction 2. Which viral hepatitis is caused by fecal-oral transmission? a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis B 3. What congenital birth defects affects an infant’s ability to nurse or take a bottle? a. Spina bifada b. Premature birth c. Cleft palate d. Injury at birth 4. What can gallstones cause? a. Alcoholism b. Hirschsprung disease c. Acute pancreatitis d. Chronic pancreatitis 5. The client appears to be jaundice. What can cause jaundice in a client? a. Gastritis b. Chron’s c. Gallstones obstructing the bile duct d. Liver disease 6. What can an ascending urinary tract infection cause? a. Cystitis b. Cervical cancer c. Pyelonephritis d. Bladder infection 7. What electrolyte is watched closely in client with chronic kidney disease? a. Magnesium b. Phosphorus c. Calcium d. Potassium Downloaded by Kayla Peters ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|33729509 8. Obstruction in the ureter and enlarged prostate is associated with which phase of kidney injury? a. Prerenal kidney injury b. Postrenal kidney injury c. Intrinsic d. Polyuria 9. What is the order of the flow of filtrate through the kidneys? a. From the loop of Henle to the collecting duct, to the loop of Henle. b. From the collecting duct to the distal convoluted tubule, to the loop of Henle. c. From the Bowman’s capsule in the proximal convoluted tubule, to the loop of Henle. d. From the Distal convoluted tubule to the collecting duct to the loop of Henle. 10. Hypertension and diabetes are two main conditions for what chronic disease? a. Asthma b. Diabetes c. Kidney disease d. Pancreatitis 11. Which of the following is a classic manifestation of glomerulonephritis? a. Increased urine output b. Proteinuria c. Hypotension d. Hypertension 12. What following is a sign that a client is in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure? a. Decreased urine output b. Fluid volume deficit c. Decreased serum potassium and phosphorus d. Hypertension 13. Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes which of the following? a. Potassium supplementation b. high-protein diet c. Erythropoietin administration d. high-phosphate diet 14. Which of the following are symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? a. Weak steam, nocturia, and difficulty initiating stream b. Fever, bloating, and infrequent urination c. Urinary retention, edema, and restlessness d. Headache, fatigue, and dribbling urine 15. The client presents with dull, achy flank pain, and a palpable mass in the costovertebral angle. Based on these symptoms, the nurse suspects which of the following conditions? a. Urinary tract infection (UTI) b. Gout Downloaded by Kayla Peters ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|33729509 c. Renal cell carcinoma d. Renal calculi 16. What type of incontinence is caused by an increase in intraabdominal pressure due to activities such as coughing or sneezing? a. Neurogenic bladder b. Stress incontinence c. Urge incontinence d. Overflow incontinence 17. Which of the following types of incontinence is typically caused by neurological damage? a. Stress incontinence b. Overflow incontinence c. Functional incontinence d. Reflex incontinence 18. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of cystitis? a. Dysuria b. Flank pain c. Costovertebral tenderness d. Diarrhea 19.The client you are about to assess has a diagnosis of hypospadias. Which finding will the nurse observe upon assessment? a. An abnormally small penis at birth b. Fistula formation between the rectum and the urinary system c. Foreskin that is too tight to adequately expose the penile glans d. Urinary meatus on the ventral undersurface of the penis 20. Your client is diagnosed with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, what will their urine look like? a. Dark urine b. Light yellow urine c. Polyuria d. painful urination 21. What do you call endometrial tissue growing outside of the uterus? a. Chlamydia b. Amenorrhea c. Endometriosis d. Gonorrhea 22. Menstruation stops due to which of the following? a. Increased progesterone secretion b. Decreased progesterone secretion c. Increased estrogen secretion d. Decreased estrogen secretion 23. Which diagnosis is associated with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and infertility? Downloaded by Kayla Peters ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|33729509 a. Premenstrual syndrome b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Primary amenorrhea 24. Which term describes a male with inflammation of the glans penis. Which term correctly describes this condition? a. Phimosis b. Paraphimosis c. Priapism d. Balanitis 25. In adrenocortical insufficiencies, such as Addison disease, which manifestation would you see? a. An insufficient amount of Triiodothyronine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4) b. Deficiencies in the renin-angiotensin system c. An insufficient amount of circulating cortisol d. Decreased levels of all the adrenocortical hormones 26. In what condition would Hypercalcemia most likely occur? a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Gigantism d. Dwarfism 27. How would you describe the etiology of myxedema in thyroid deficiency? a. Over secretion of thyroid- stimulating hormone (TSH) leads to fluid retention b. Lack of thyroid hormone contributes to non-pitting edema c. The heart does not allow a proper flow of fluid throughout the body d. The pituitary hormone releases an antidiuretic hormone in response to hypothyroid signaling. 28. What are the characteristics of Cushing syndrome? a. Excessive cortisol production, fluid retention, and moon-face appearance b. Insufficient cortisol, bronzing of the skin, and hypotension c. Excessive urination and dehydration d. Exophthalmos and weight loss 29. The two mechanisms that cause hyponatremia in clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone secretion (SIADH)? a. Increased sodium secretion and fluid retention b. Decreased sodium secretion and fluid retention c. Decreased parathyroid hormone and increased blood glucose d. Increased parathyroid hormone and increased blood glucose 30. Which arterial blood gas values is consistent with ketoacidosis in the client with diabetes? a. pH 7.38, HCO3– 22 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg b. pH 7.28, HCO3– 18 mEq/L, PCO2 28 mm Hg c. pH 7.48, HCO3– 28 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg d. pH 7.28, HCO3– 22 mEq/L, PCO2 58 mm Hg Downloaded by Kayla Peters ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|33729509 Answers 1. C 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B Downloaded by Kayla Peters ([email protected])  lOMoARcPSD|33729509 Downloaded by Kayla Peters ([email protected])