APPSC Group 2 Mains Previous Year Question Papers PDF

APPSC Group 2 Mains Previous Year Question Papers With Answer Key Q1. Identity the lake which is mentioned in the Pithapuram inscription of Prithvisvara of Velanadu (a) Chilka Lake (b) Pulicat Lake (c) Kolleru Lake (d) Pakala Lake Q2. The Raichur Doab is formed by the Confluence of Rivers (a) Krish...

APPSC Group 2 Mains Previous Year Question Papers With Answer Key Q1. Identity the lake which is mentioned in the Pithapuram inscription of Prithvisvara of Velanadu (a) Chilka Lake (b) Pulicat Lake (c) Kolleru Lake (d) Pakala Lake Q2. The Raichur Doab is formed by the Confluence of Rivers (a) Krishna and Tungabhadra (b) Tunga and Bhadra (c) Krishna and Godavari (d) Kagna and Krishna Q3. Which of the following is a old stone age site (a) Keesarapalli (b) Billa sorgam (c) Utnoor (d) Revarala Q4. Which of the following places is an evidence of Chalcolithic age in Andhra (a) Sanganakallu (b) Tekkala Kota (c) Palavoy (d) Patapadu Q5.Which literature refers to Andhras as 'Andhakaratta' (a) Vedic Literature (b) Budhist literature (c) Jain literature (d) Taitareya Brahmana Q6. Who among the following located Satavahanas in Ballari (Belllary) district on the basis of Myakadoni Inscription (a) V.V.Mirashi (b) R.G.Bhandarker (c) V.S.Sukthankar (d) S.A.Joglekar Q7.Name the Capital of a place known as 'Anupa' under Goutami Putra Satakarni? (a) Mahishmati (b) Vidisha (c) Ujjain (d) Podana 1 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q8. Who among the following issued Junnar Inscription (a) Bhoomaka (b) Chastana (c) Ushavadatta (d) Aayama Q9. Identity the Inscription of Chanda Satakarni (a) Kanheri Inscription (b) Kodavali Inscription (c) Amaravathi Inscription (d) Karle Inscription Q10. Which Ikshvaku ruler was described as 'Sri Parvatadhipati' (a) Shantamula I (b) Shantamula II (c) Virapurusha datta (d) Rudra Purusha Datta Q11. Rudrapurushadatta issued which of the following Inscriptions (a) Gurazala Inscription (b) Jaggayyapeta Inscription (c) Vijayapuri Inscription (d) Sriparvata Inscription Q12. The inscription at which place records multiple gifts to different sections and institutions by the ruler (a) Karle (b) Veerapuram (c) Ramagiri (d) Alluru Q13. Which inscription mentions Ushavadatta investing 2,000 Karshapanas in a weaver's guild at Govardhana (a) Sopara inscription (b) Nasik inscription (c) Kanheri inscription (d) Pratistan inscription Q14. Which of the following texts contained writing by the women (a) Brihatkatha (b) Kamasutra (c) Gatha Saptasati (d) Lilavati Q15. The text 'Yogasara' was written by (a) Nagarjuna (b) Dhanapala (c) Konda Kundacharya (d) Vastupala 2 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q16. Which Eastern Chalukyan ruler issued Vipparla inscription (a) Kubja Vishnu Vardhana (b) Dhananjaya (c) Jayasimha Vallabha (d) Shakti Varma Q17. Who among the following rulers used the title 'Tripura Martya Maheshwara' (a) Vishnu Vardhana I (b) Vijayaditya I (c) Vishnu Vardhana III (d) Gunaga Vijayaditya Q18. During Eastern Chalukyan time, Potla cheruvu was a popular centre for (a) Budhism (b) Jainism (c) Saivism (d) Vaishnavism Q19. Identity the person who received Nandampudi Village as a grant from Rajaraja Narendra (a) Nannayya Bhatt (b) Narayana Bhatt (c) Jina Vallabha (d) Pavuluri Mallana Q20. Which inscription mentioned about Kakatiyas for the first time (a) Magallu inscription (b) Bayyaram inscription (c) Polavaram inscription (d) Pillalamarri inscription Q21. Kakatiyas were subordinates of which dynasty in Andhra (a) Cholas (b) Eastern Chalukyans (c) Badami Chalukyans (d) Rashtra Kutas Q22. Which of the following defeated Ganapatideva in 1263 (a) Velanati Chodas (b) Yadavas (c) Pandyans (d) Hoyasalas Q23. Who among the following used the title 'Rayagaja Kesari' (a) Rudradeva (b) Ganapathideva (c) Rudramadevi (d) Prataparudra 3 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q24. The word 'Tambaya Danam' is noticed in the Buddhist site of which District (a) Kurnool (b) Krishna (c) Visakhapatnam (d) West Godavari Q25. The early History of the Satavahana family is not stated in the following work? (a) Pratishtana Pura Kalpa (b) Dwatrimsatupttalika (c) Kadhasaritsagaram (d) Gadhasapthasati Q26. Who of the following wrote the text 'Jinendra Kalyanabhyudayam' (a) Pampa (b) Appayacharya (c) Gundaya Bhattu (d) Agastya Q27. 'Andhra Sabda Chintamani' is stated to have written by (a) Nannaya (b) Tikkana (c) Errana (d) Peddana Q28.Rekapalli was the Capital of which dynasty (a) Recharla (b) Manchukonda (c) Sangama (d) Musunuri Q29. Which Reddy ruler assumed the title 'Rachur Durgavibhala' (a) Prolaya vema Reddy (b) Anapota (c) Anavema (d) Komaragiri Reddy Q30. Who wrote the text 'Narasimha Puranam' (a) Potana (b) Srinatha (c) Errana (d) Bana Q31. The Book 'A Forgotten Empire' was written by one of the following (a) Ferista (b) Robert Sewell (c) B. A. Selatore (d) Burton Stein 4 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q32. During Vijayanagar rule Vipravinodins were a sect of (a) Weavers (b) Kshatriyas (c) Vaisyas (d) Brahmins Q33. Who among the following observed the prevalence of Sati Practice in Vijayanagar (a) Nicolo Conti (b) Abdur Razac (c) Barbosa (d) Nuniz Q34. Who wrote the text 'Varadambika Parinayam' (a) Tirumalamba (b) Varadamba (c) Gangadevi (d) Chinnadevi Q35. A famoushuge stone Bull of the Vijayanagar period is located at (a) Tadipatri (b) Kadiri (c) Lepakshi (d) Penugonda Q36. In which place the Dutch east India Company established its first factory in Andhra Desa (a) Pulicat (b) Machilipatnam (c) Narsapur (d) Bhimunipatnam Q37. Name the Sub-Collector of Rajahmundry who opened Anglo-vernacular schools at several places in Andhra (a) Anderson (b) Reverend Noble (c) John Philip (d) G.N. Taylor Q38. In which year American Baptist Mission was established in Andhra (a) 1866 (b) 1867 (c) 1868 (d) 1869 Q39. Who among the following founded the Madras Native Association (a) Veereshalingam (b) Kasula Subbarao (c) Gajula Lakshminarasu chetty (d) Veeraswamy 5 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q40. Which of the following Journals was started by Veeresalingam (a) Hitabodhini (b) Satyasamvardhini (c) Sanjivani (d) Zanana Q41. In which year the first Widow remarriage was performed by Veereshalingam (a) 1878 (b) 1879 (c) 1880 (d) 1881 Q42. In which place people revolted against English against their forest policies in 1879. (a) Rekapalli (b) Nadigudem (c) Chinturu (d) Sileru Q43. Which organization took active part in organizing Bipin Chandra Pal's tour of Rajahmundry (a) Balabharati Samithi (b) Surabharathi Samithi (c) Youngmen's association (d) Rajahmundry Students association Q44. Who among the following was the principal of the Rajahmundry Training college in 1907 (a) Captain Pichard (b) Mark Hunter (c) Taylor (d) Col Reid Q45. Identify the person who was the president of the National College founded at Machilipatnam in 1910 (a) Nyapati Subbarao (b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah (c) Challapalli Raja (d) Konda Venkatappaiah Q46. Which Newspaper strongly supported the Home Rule Movement in Andhra (a) Andhra Matha (b) Bharata Matha (c) Teja (d) Desha Matha Q47. Who among the following visited the Palnadu area in July 1921 to study the situation arising out of agitation against forest laws (a) Vedam Venkatachari (b) Ramadas Pantulu (c) Unnava Lakshminarayana (d) Swamy Sitaram 6 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q48. In the elections held to the Madras Legislative Assembly in 1920, how many seats were won by the justice party (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 Q49. Identify the person who was appointed as Dictator for Andhra region to conduct Salt Satyagraha (a) Dandu Narayana Raju (b) Konda Venkatappaiah (c) K.Nageswara Rao (d) T. Prakasham Q50. Who among the following wrote the Novel 'Asamarthuni Jeevitha Yatra' (a) N.G. Ranga (b) Sri Sri (c) K. Linga Raju (d) T. Gopichand Q51. In which year the socialist party established its Andhra Branch (a) 1930 (b) 1931 (c) 1932 (d) 1934 Q52. Who among the following from Guntur wrote series of articles in Hindu paper "On the present position of the Telugu people (a) Gurunadham (b) Sitarama Sastry (c) Seshagiri (d) Rajagopal Q53. Which Telugu News Paper commented "Unless there is a separate Government there is no protection for Telugu people's Culture" (a) Desha Bhasha (b) Lokamanjari (c) Desabhimani (d) Shasirekha. Q54. The President of the First Andhra Mahasabha held at Bapatla in 1913 opposed the idea of separate Andhra State. What is his name (a) Nyapati Subba Rsao (b) B. N. Sharma (c) Krishna Rao (d) Ramachandra Rao Q55. In which year B.N. Sharma introduced a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly on Linguistic reorganization of States 7 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App (a) 1917 (b) 1918 (c) 1919 (d) 1920 Q56. Who among the following opposed separate state for Andhras once he became Chief Minister of Madras State in 1932 (a) P.Ramarayanin garu (b) P.Subbarayan (c) Bobbili Raja (d) K.V.Reddy Naidu Q57. In which place in 1935, the second Rayalaseema Mahasabha passed a resolution opposing separate Andhra State. (a) Kadapa (b) Kurnool (c) Tirupathi (d) Anantapur Q58. The agreement between Andhra and Rayalaseema leaders was made in 1937 at the residence of Kasinathuni Nageshwar Rao known as Sribagh pact. Where is Sribagh (a) Vijayawada (b) Guntur (c) Madras (d) Bangalore Q59. In 1948 which Commission, in its report opined that creation of linguistic states is a threat to unity and integrity of the country (a) J.V.P. Report (b) Dhar Commission (c) Krishnamachary Commission (d) Wanchoo Commission Q60. Who among the following worked with Gandhi for sometime in Sabarmati Ashram (a) Swamy sitaram (b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah (c) Kaleshwar Rao (d) Potti Sriramulu Q61. In the second Vishalandhra Mahasabha held at Hyderabad in 1954 who out of the following strongly supported vishalandhra (a) Swamy Ramananda Tirtha (b) J.V.Narsimga Rao (c) Mahadev Singh (d) B.Ramakrishna Rao Q62. On which date in 1953 the States Reorganization Commission was set up by Government of India 8 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App (a) 20th December (b) 21st December (c) 22nd December (d) 23rd December Q63. In which year B.Ramakrishna Rao the Chief Minister of Hyderabad State, a strong advocate of Telangana State changed his stand and suggested immediate merger of Telangana with Andhra (a) 1953 (b) 1954 (c) 1955 (d) 1956 Q64. Who founded Vartamana Vyavaaharikandhra Bhasha Parivartaka Samajam? (a) Veeresalingam (b) Gidugu Ramamurthy (c) Chilukuri Narayana Rao (d) C. Narayana Reddy Q65. 'Andhra Pradesh Sahitya Academy' was established in the year (a) 1956 (b) 1957 (c) 1958 (d) 1959 Q66. In 1961, who inaugurated the Cultural Centre, Ravindra Bharathi which was built at Hyderabad, as a mark of birth centenary year of Tagore (a) S. Radhakrishnan (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Indira Gandhi (d) Shrimali Q67. In which year Telugu was made official language of the State by Andhra Pradesh Government (a) 1963 (b) 1964 (c) 1965 (d) 1966 Q68. The Srikakulam Armed struggle took place during (a) 1958-60 (b) 1961-63 (c) 1964-66 (d) 1968-70 9 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q69. The Andhra Pradesh Ministry led by one of the following passed a Bill on Land Reforms (a) D.Sanjivayya (b) Kasu Brahmananda Reddy (c) 3.P.V.Narasimha Rao (d) J.Vengal Rao Q70. In which year the World Telugu Conference was first held to encourage Telugu language, literature and culture. (a) 1974 (b) 1975 (c) 1976 (d) 1977 Q71. To eradicate corruption from the Government a new institution called Dhrma Mahamatra was started by Chief Minister N.T. Rama Rao. Who was the first to hold the post (a) P. Venkatram Reddy (b) N.Vittal (c) P.V.R.K.Prasad (d) E.V.Ram Reddy Q72. In which place the Anti-arrack agitation was launched by Women in 1991 (a) Dubagunta (b) Renigunta (c) Domalamadugu (d) Rajupalem Q73. Who among the following wrote 'Nallapoddu' a collection of Dalit writings (a) Subhadra (b) Swarupa (c) Shyamala (d) Shasirekha Q74. Sathiraju Lakshminarayana is the birth name of one of the following artists (a) Ramana (b) Bapu (c) Paidi Raju (d) Sanjeeva Dev Q75. In his famous work, which animal/bird was used by Jashuva to send a message by a hunger and poverty stricken dalit man to God? (a) Squirrel (b) Crow (c) Koel (d) Bat Q76. The following expenditure shall be charged on the consolidated fund of India, except (a) Debt charges for which the government of India is liable (b) Salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Supreme Court judges (c) The pensions payable to or in respect of judges of any high court (d) The pensions payable to or in respect of governors of any state 10 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q77. Regarding the money bill all of the following are correct, except (a) Whether a bill is money bill or not the decision of the speaker of the Lok Sabha shall be final (b) After the speaker's certificate on money bill, it shall not be open to question either in a court of Law or in either house or even by the president (c) Money bills shall be introduced in Lok Sabha only (d) President may return money bill for reconsideration Q78. All following statements regarding the privileges of Parliament members are correct except (a) Freedom from arrest (b) Freedom of attendance as witness (c) Freedom of speech (d) Members individual freedom only allowed, house as a whole do not have freedom Q79. Article 17 & 18 provide (a) Social equality (b) Economic Equality (c) Political Equality (d) Religious Equality Q80. Which one of the following is a fundamental right under the constitution of India and a human right as well (a) Right to Information (b) Right to Education (c) Right to die (d) Right to Housing Q81. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court direct the compulsory registration of all marriages in India (a) Daniel Lafifi vs Union of India (b) Ashok Kumar vs Union of India (c) Seema Vs Ashwin Kumar (d) Sharada Vs Dharam Paul Q82. Which of the following States has more than one Member of Parliament in the Lok Sabha (a) Meghalaya (b) Nagaland (c) Sikkim (d) Mizoram Q83. How many States in India are Bicameral in their governance structure (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 4 Q84. Preamble to the constitution ofIndia promised citizens to provide justice. Choose the correct combination of words used in the preamble for which justice is sought to be secured (a) Social, Religious and Political (b) Economic, Religious and Political (c) Social, Economic and Political (d) Social, Economic and Natural 11 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q85. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India? (a) The union cabinet (b) The Parliament (c) The Supreme Court (d) Law commission Q86. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India as a fundamental right? (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose a property anywhere in the country (d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession Q87. Among the following whose term of office is the longest? (a) President (b) Member of Lok Sabha (c) Comptroller and Auditor General (d) Vice-President Q88. The maximum GAP between two sessions of parliament can be 6 months, which is calculated between (a) Last sitting of one session to the last sitting of the next session (b) Six calendar months excluding the months in which the sessions are held (c) Last sitting of one session to the first sitting of the next session (d) First sitting of two consecutive sessions Q89. Next to Uttar Pradesh, which of the following state has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu Q90. With regard to power of pardon available to President and Governer under the Constitution? (a) The power of the President and Governor are one and same (b) For Offences under concurrent lists, without the role of State, President alone has the pardoning power (c) The only authority for pardoning a sentence of death is the President (d) As regard suspension and remission, the Governor does not have concurrent jurisdiction with the President Q91. How many days does the British parliament took to pass the Indian Independence Bill and for bringing it into force (a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 35 Q92. The most outstanding characteristic of the Indian Independence Act was that (a) Act without Constitution was passed (b) Act with Constitution was passed. (c) Act was passed with an intention to retain British authority (d) It formed a new policy for India 12 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q93. Indian Constitution allows to acquire foreign territories. In this regard, out of the following statements identify the correct one? (a) The acquisition does not fall within Article 1 of the Constitution (b) Acquisition is governed by the International Laws (c) Acquired foreign territory shall become a part of existing States only (d) The pre acquisition laws and the rights of acquired therein shall continue Q94. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for a decent standard of life and full enjoyment of leisure and social and cultural opportunities? (a) Article 39 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 42 (d) Article 43 Q95. The 73rd Amendment Act which was brought into force in 1993 added following number of articles to the Indian Constitution. (a) 5 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 16 Q96. The person who got the highest majority in Presidential elections till now is (a) Jakir Hussain (b) Fakruddin Ali Ahmed (c) K.R.Narayanan (d) Shanker Dayal Sharma Q97. The doctrine of "Paramountcy" is a legal principle: (a) to reconcile conflicting laws where both central government and Provincial governments have the power to create laws in relation to the same matter (b) To explain the law making authority of the Government (c) To provide law making authority to the Central government (d) To explain law making authority of the country Q98. With regard to officers of All India Services, choose the correct answer from the following (a) A member of an all India Service can be dismissed or removed only by the Union government (b) A member of an all India service can be dismissed or removed by the State government also if he/she is serving under that State (c) In India, State government employees administer State laws only (d) Union government administer Union Laws through its Departments only Q99. Relating to the Jammu and Kashmir, identify the wrong answer from the following (a) All the provisions of the Constitution of India relating to the States in the First Schedule are not applicable to J&K (b) J&K forms a part of the territory of India as defined in Art 1 of the Constitution (c) Through accession, the domain of India acquired jurisdiction over the J&K with respect to subjects of Defence, External Affairs and Communications (d) Like other States of India in the case of J&K also residuary powers shall vest with Parliament 13 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q100. Regarding the amendment of the Constitution all following statements are correct, except (a) According to Article 368, Parliament ofIndia can amend any part of the Constitution (b) Article 2 of the Constitution empowered the Parliament ofIndia to admit new states into the Union (c) with reference to Article 2 or 3 the amendment of the provisions of FIRST and FOURTH schedule shall not be deemed to be an amendment of theConstitution for the purpose of Article 368 (d) The territories of the units of the federation may be altered or re distributed by the Parliament without intimation to the States Q101. With regards to fundamental rights, all statements below are correct, except (a) Article 15 is for citizens only (b) The rights reserved for citizens are denied to the aliens (c) Aliens are divided into friendly aliens and enemy aliens (d) Indian Constitution shows no difference between friendly aliens and enemy aliens Q102. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution explain about the citizenship? (a) Articles 5 to 8 (b) Articles 6 to 8 (c) Articles 4 to 8 (d) Articles 3 to 8 Q103. Indian Parliament passes legislations subject to the following limitations and prohibitions (a) Constitutionof UNO (b) Conventions of the country (c) Distribution of powers (d) Public opinion Q104. All statements below related to Fundamental Rights are correct except (a) In India the power to impose limitations on Fundamental Rights has been conferred upon the Supreme Court (b) Judiciary determines the reasonableness of the restrictions imposed by the Legislature (c) 44th amendment Act 1978 omitted Art 19 (1) and 31 (d) If anybody's property is taken away by the executive fiat with due authority of law or intervention of a law, the aggrieved individual has no right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 Q105. Which of the following is not the Supreme Court's evolution? (a) Basic structure (b) Public Interest Litigation (c) Removal of Hand Cuffs (d) Exemptions to Fundamental Rights Q106. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body? (a) National Commission for Schedule Castes2. (b) National Commission for Schedule Tribes3. (c) National Commission for Backward Classes4. (d) Special officer for linguistic minorities Q107. All following statements regarding Backward Classes are correct, except? Options : (a) The word 'Backward Classes of Citizens' is defined in the Constitution (b) The Backward Classes contemplated under Art 16(4)are mainly social. It need not be both social and educational (c) By clause (10)of the Article 338 "Backward Classes" are included within expression "Scheduled Caste" (d) Indra Sawhney case is related to "Backward Classes" 14 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q108. The constitution of India provides certain protections to citizens.In this regard, all statements below are correct, except (a) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once (b) Parliament of India shall be competent to make a criminal law with retrospective effect (c) No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself (d) Safeguards provided in Article 22 are not available to a person arrested or detained under preventive Detention law Q109. The Constitution of India grants religious freedom to the citizens. In this regard,all statements below are correct except (a) Right to religion is available to Indian citizens without any limitations (b) The State will not compel any citizen to pay any taxes for the promotion of any particular religion (c) Religious instructions are totally banned in State owned educational institutions (d) In Non-State owned educational institutions religious instruction is not totally prohibited but it must not be imposed upon people of other religions without their consent Q110. An election to fill the vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of the President must be completed before the expiration of term. In case there is delay (a) Vice President who shall act as President (b) Chief Justice of India shall act as President (c) Out going President must continue to hold office until his successor assumess office (d) Senior most Judge of Supreme court acts as President Q111. In India executive have the power to legislate by Ordinances. But Legislature shall approve it otherwise the ordinance can exist at most (a) 5 months 5 weeks (b) 6 months 6 weeks (c) 3 months 6 weeks (d) 4 months 6 weeks Q112. India is following Parliamentary form of government. In this regard all statements given below are correct, except (a) The collective responsibility is to the house of the people even though some of the ministers may be the members of the Council of the States (b) The President of India is the real head of the executive (c) Ministers shall be individually responsible to the President and shall be liable to dismissal evenwhen they may have the confidence ofthe Legislature (d) In a parliamentary form of government, the tenure of office of the council of ministers is dependent on the will of the legislature Q113. Regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General, out of the given below, choose the wrong answer. (a) Comptroller and Auditor General controls the entire financial system of the country related to the Union government only (b) The term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor General shall be 6 years (c) 3.Comptroller and Auditor General vacates the office upon attaining the age of 65 years even without completing 6 years term (d) Comptroller and Auditor General's salary shall be equal to that of judge of Supreme Court 15 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q114. The period between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly in a new session is termed (a) Adjournment (b) Termination (c) Prorogue (d) Recess Q115. If a person incurs any of the disqualifications mentioned in Article 102, his seat will there upon be (a) Vacant immediately (b) Vacant after the recommendation of the house concernd (c) Vacant on the recommendation of Election Commissioner (d) Vacant after Supreme Court verdict Q116. When a no-confidence motion for removal of the Lok Sabha Speaker is under consideration, all the following statements are correct, except (a) Speaker shall not preside the Lok Sabha proceedings (b) Speaker has the right to speak (c) Speaker has the right to take part in the proceeding (d) Speaker shall have right of vote and exercise a casting vote in case of equality of votes Q117. Regarding the National Emergency all following statements are correct, except that the President can (a) Reduce the transfer of Finances from Centre to States (b) Cancel the transfer of Finances from the Centre to States (c) National Emergency may be imposed for entire Nation or a part of India (d) Increase the transfer of Finances from Centre to States Q118. An official corresponding post to the Attorney General of India at the State level is (a) Government pleader (b) Advocate General (c) Amicus Curie (d) Standing Counsel Q119. Regarding the composition of the Legislative Council, all following statements are correct, except (a) 1/3 of the total number of Council shall be elected from local bodies (b) 1/12 of the total number of Council shall be elected by Teachers (c) 1/12 of the total number of Council shall be elected by Graduates (d) 1/13 of the total number of Council shall be elected by Legislative Assembly Q120. As per the Constitution, Governor has the power to nominate one member from Anglo Indian community. Such reservation will cease on the expiration of (a) 2020 (b) 2030 (c) 2040 (d) 2035 Q121. If any member of a State Legislature has become subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in Art 192, the question shall be referred to (a) Election Commission (b) Governor of the State (c) President (d) Speaker of the concerned State Assembly 16 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q122. Which one of the following Regional Party emerged as the largest opposition Party in the Lok Sabha elections held in 1984 (a) National Congress Party (b) Shiv Sena (c) Telugu Desam Party (d) All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam Q123. In case the Union Cabinet requests the President for the Joint Sitting of the Parliament to pass a Bill and President in his discretion does not summon a Joint Sitting (a) Council of Ministers may once again request for the Joint Sitting (b) Each house can again pass the bill separately (c) The Bill will come to an end (d) The President has no such power Q124. With regard to the administration of Scheduled and Tribal areas, all following statements are correct, except (a) Provisions for Tribal areas administration are found in Sixth Schedule of the Constitution (b) Governor is not authorized to direct that any particular Act ofParliament or of the Legislature of a State shall not apply to Schedule area (c) The Governor is authorized make to regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land in Tribal area (d) The Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of the Schedule area and Tribes may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation Q125. Regarding the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court all statements are correct, except (a) Appeal lies with the Supreme Courtin the cases involving interpretation of the Constitution-- Civil, Criminal or others (b) Appeal lies with the Supreme Court in Civil cases irrespective of any Constitutional question (c) The Supreme Court's power for granting Special Leave Petition is limited and can be curtailed through a Constitutional Amendment (d) Parliament has no power to make any law conferring on Supreme Court further powers to hear Appeals from Criminal matters Q126. Which of the following is not a federal feature of the Indian Constitution? (a) Rigid Constitution (b) Distribution of powers (c) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) (d) Independent Supreme Court Q127. All statements regarding the Roles/Functions/Responsibilities of the Finance Commission are correct, except (a) The Commission recommends sharing of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and States (b) Recommending the principles for governing the grant-in-Aid to the States by the Centre (c) Recommendation on the matters referred to it by the President for the interest of sound Finance (d) Maintains the income and expenditure details of Centre and State Governments Q128. According to the Article 233, the appointment of a district Judge shall be done by (a) The President in consultation with the High court of the State concerned (b) The Governor of the state concerned in consultation with the High court of the state concerned (c) The Governor of the state concerned, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (d) The Collegium of the High court 17 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q129. In which year "None of the above" (NOTA)button was introduced in Electronic Voting Machines (a) 2009 (b) 2014 (c) 2011 (d) 2013 Q130. Regarding the Election Commission of India, all following statements are correct, except (a) The members of Election Commission do not have equal powers with Chief Election Commissioner (b) Disputes related to the Election are not decided by the Election Commission only (c) The Election Commission of India enjoys Constitutional status (d) Keeping the voters list updated at all times is the responsibility of Elections Commission Q131. Find out the wrong statement regarding the Punchhi Commission Recommendations (a) Punchhi Commission was constituted by the UPA government to study Centre State relations (b) The Commission recommended that Governor nominee should not have participated in active politics at least for a couple of years previous to his appointment (c) The Commission recommended that there is no need to amend Article 355 and 356 (d) The Commission also criticised arbitrary dismissal of Governor Q132. Under Which Article of the Constitution of India can the Fundamental Rights of the members of the Armed forces be specifically restricted (a) Article 33 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 25 Q133. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to regulate the rights of the citizens (a) Article 10 (b) Article 11 (c) Article 12 (d) Article 13 Q134. The correct form of the address for the President of India is (a) His Lord ship (b) His honour (c) His Highness (d) His Excellency Q135. Which of the following is not one of the recommendation of the Rajmannar Committee. (a) Creation of Inter State Council (b) Curb on the misuse of Art 356 (c) Abolition of IAS and IPS (d) Strengthening of Governor System Q136. The Doctrine of "Parens Patriae" means (a) Authority regarded as the legal protection of citizens unable to protect themselves (b) An inconsistency or contradiction between two or more parts of legal instruments (c) Parliament has no power to make loss with respect to any matter which belongs to states (d) It is the duty of the court to interpret the legislation made by parliament 18 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App Q137. During British rule in India, Indian states had freedom in internal administration but had no international life. But the British interfered in internal administration under the following conditions (a) Never interfered (b) For giving effect to its international commitments (c) on the request of the Congress party (d) On the request of the people Q138. Which of the following is the procedure to abolish or create Legislative Council in a State (a) Constitutional Amendment with simple majority (b) Constitutional Amendment by 2/3 majority (c) On the recommendation of State Legislature bypassing a resolution with 2/3 majority, followed by an act of parliament (d) Parliament directly with simple majority Q139. Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential elections if he is a (a) Member of Legislative Council of the State Legislature (b) Member of Legislative Assembly of the State Legislature (c) Member of Lok Sabha (d) Member of Rajya Sabha Q140. When an Election is held for the Legislature which has been dissolved before expiry of its term, it is known as (a) By election (b) Mid term election (c) General election (d) Extraordinary election Q141. Maximum number of votes that can be recorded by an Electronic Voting Machine record is (a) 3840 (b) 4840 (c) 2840 (d) 3000 Q142. What option can be exercised by the Government and Legislature, when they do not like a decision of the Supreme Court. (a) Changing the judges of the Supreme Court (b) Ignoring the decision (c) Pass a Constitutional amendment or pass a law to overcome the decision (d) Supreme Court's decision is final and ultimate and cannot be challenged Q143. National voter's day is now celebrated on (a) 25th January (b) 25th February (c) 25th March (d) 25th April Q144. The SarkariaCommission dealing with Centre - State relations has not recommended the following regarding the appointment of Governor 19 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App (a) Provide a secure 5 years term for Governor (b) A person who is not the native of a State shall be appointed as Governor of the State (c) The Governor must be some eminent person in some field (d) The Governor should have travelled extensively in and around of in the state Q145. During the period of ruling, the ruling party makes use of the following to win the voters in their favour, except (a) Government servants (b) Government vehicles (c) Discretionary Grants (d) Political parties Q146. Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter State relations are Constitutional bodies (a) River water tribunal (b) Inter State Council (c) Zonal Council (d) Zonal Tribunals Q147. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution committee of the Constituent Assembly? (a) Dr BR Ambedkar (b) Jawarlal Nehru (c) J.B.Kripalani (d) Rajendra Prasad Q148. Which of the following is not a tool of Legislative control over the administration in India? (a) Questions (b) Resolution (c) Dissolution of the House (d) No confidence motion Q149. "Persons may change but rules should not change" is the principle of (a) Republic form of government (b) Absolute Monarchy (c) Socialist system (d) Constitutional government Q150. Locate the Constitutional power which enabled the Central government to Legislate on caw slaughter (a) Emergency power (b) Article 148 (c) Entry 17, list 3 in schedule for prevention of cruelty to animals (d) Article 48 in the Directive Principles 20 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App  Solutions S1. Ans.(c) S51. Ans.(d) S101. Ans.(d) S2. Ans.(a) S52. Ans.(a) S102. Ans.(a) S3. Ans.(b) S53. Ans.(c) S103. Ans.(c) S4. Ans.(d) S54. Ans.(b) S104. Ans.(a) S5. Ans.(b) S55. Ans.(b) S105. Ans.(d) S6. Ans.(c) S56. Ans.(d) S106. Ans.(c) S7. Ans.(a) S57. Ans.(a) S107. Ans.(a) S8. Ans.(d) S58. Ans.(c) S108. Ans.(b) S9. Ans.(b) S59. Ans.(b) S109. Ans.(a) S10. Ans.(c) S60. Ans.(d) S110. Ans.(c) S11. Ans.(a) S61. Ans.(a) S111. Ans.(b) S12. Ans.(d) S62. Ans.(c) S112. Ans.(b) S13. Ans.(b) S63. Ans.(c) S113. Ans.(a) S14. Ans.(c) S64. Ans.(a) S114. Ans.(d) S15. Ans.(a) S65. Ans.(b) S115. Ans.(a) S16. Ans.(c) S66. Ans.(a) S116. Ans.(a) S17. Ans.(d) S67. Ans.(d) S117. Ans.(d) S18. Ans.(b) S68. Ans.(d) S118. Ans.(b) S19. Ans.(b) S69. Ans.(c) S119. Ans.(d) S20. Ans.(a) S70. Ans.(b) S120. Ans.(a) S21. Ans.(d) S71. Ans.(d) S121. Ans.(b) S22. Ans.(c) S72. Ans.(a) S122. Ans.(c) S23. Ans.(c) S73. Ans.(c) S123. Ans.(c) S24. Ans.(c) S74. Ans.(b) S124. Ans.(b) S25. Ans.(d) S75. Ans.(d) S125. Ans.(d) S26. Ans.(b) S76. Ans.(d) S126. Ans.(c) S27. Ans.(a) S77. Ans.(d) S127. Ans.(d) S28. Ans.(d) S78. Ans.(d) S128. Ans.(b) S29. Ans.(a) S79. Ans.(a) S129. Ans.(d) S30. Ans.(c) S80. Ans.(b) S130. Ans.(a) S31. Ans.(b) S81. Ans.(c) S131. Ans.(c) S32. Ans.(d) S82. Ans.(a) S132. Ans.(a) S33. Ans.(d) S83. Ans.(b) S133. Ans.(b) S34. Ans.(a) S84. Ans.(c) S134. Ans.(d) S35. Ans.(c) S85. Ans.(b) S135. Ans.(d) S36. Ans.(b) S86. Ans.(c) S136. Ans.(a) S37. Ans.(d) S87. Ans.(c) S137. Ans.(b) S38. Ans.(a) S88. Ans.(c) S138. Ans.(c) S39. Ans.(c) S89. Ans.(b) S139. Ans.(a) S40. Ans.(b) S90. Ans.(c) S140. Ans.(b) S41. Ans.(d) S91. Ans.(b) S141. Ans.(a) S42. Ans.(c) S92. Ans.(a) S142. Ans.(c) S43. Ans.(a) S93. Ans.(b) S143. Ans.(a) S44. Ans.(b) S94. Ans.(d) S144. Ans.(d) S45. Ans.(d) S95. Ans.(d) S145. Ans.(d) S46. Ans.(d) S96. Ans.(c) S146. Ans.(c) S47. Ans.(c) S97. Ans.(a) S147. Ans.(b) S48. Ans.(a) S98. Ans.(a) S148. Ans.(c) S49. Ans.(b) S99. Ans.(d) S149. Ans.(d) S50. Ans.(d) S100. Ans.(d) S150. Ans.(d) 21 Telugu YouTube: | Telugu Telegram: | Telugu FB: | Adda247 App