Comenius University Bratislava Biology Booklet PDF Entrance Exam 2024
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Comenius University Bratislava, Faculty of Medicine
2024
Comenius University Bratislava
Ľuboš Danišovič, Vanda Repiská, Helena Gbelcová, Daniela Klimová, Petra Priščáková, Štefan Harsányi, Martina Čulenová, Marcela Kuniaková, Ľubica Milošovičová
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This Comenius University Bratislava document is an entrance exam biology booklet for 2024. It contains multiple-choice questions covering various biological topics, such as karyotypes, enzyme specificity, and cellular processes. This is a good resource for preparing for a university-level biology entrance exam.
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**COMENIUS UNIVERSITY BRATISLAVA** **FACULTY OF MEDICINE** **BIOLOGY BOOKLET** **FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION** **Bratislava 2024** ![https://uniba.sk/fileadmin/ruk/o\_univerzite/loga/Loga\_2021/00\_UK/SK/UK\_Logo\_BP.png](media/image2.png) **Editor:** © Comenius University Bratislava ISBN 978-8...
**COMENIUS UNIVERSITY BRATISLAVA** **FACULTY OF MEDICINE** **BIOLOGY BOOKLET** **FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION** **Bratislava 2024** ![https://uniba.sk/fileadmin/ruk/o\_univerzite/loga/Loga\_2021/00\_UK/SK/UK\_Logo\_BP.png](media/image2.png) **Editor:** © Comenius University Bratislava ISBN 978-80-223-5924-5 **Guarantee of biology:** Assoc. Prof. RNDr. Ľuboš Danišovič, PhD. **Authors of biology questions:** Assoc. Prof. RNDr. Ľuboš Danišovič, PhD.; Prof. RNDr. Vanda Repiská, PhD., MPH. **Translators of biology questions:** Assoc.Prof. RNDr. Ľuboš Danišovič, PhD.; Prof. RNDr. Vanda Repiská, PhD., MPH.; Assoc.Prof. Ing. Helena Gbelcová, Ph.D.; Mgr. Daniela Klimová, PhD.; RNDr. Petra Priščáková, PhD.; MUDr. Štefan Harsányi; MUDr. Čulenová Martina, PhD.; RNDr. Kuniaková Marcela, PhD.; RNDr. Milošovičová Ľubica, PhD. **Proofreaders of biology questions:** Assoc. Prof. RNDr. Ľuboš Danišovič, PhD.; Prof. RNDr. Vanda Repiská, PhD., MPH. All rights are reserved. This publication and no part of this publication may be copied, changed, transmitted or used in any form or by any means without the prior written permission of the Dean of Faculty of Medicine Comenius University Bratislava, mainly cannot be used by any mode by the third person for commercial purposes. The mode and the purpose of this booklet determines the dean. **1.** **The karyotype of a healthy woman is:** a\) 44, XY b\) 46, XX c\) 23, XY d\) 46, XY e\) 45, XX f\) 23, XX g\) 44, XX h\) 45, XY 2\. Water in the organism is important because: a\) it acts as a solvent for many substances b\) it participates in the transport of substances in the body c\) it influences temperature regulation d\) it allows ionization of molecules of the compounds e\) it is a source of nitrogen for amino acid syntheses f\) it concentrates hypotonic solutions g\) it prevents the entry of pathogens into the cell h\) it directly participates in many reactions 3\. What specificity of enzymes do we recognize: a\) absolute b\) cell c\) paralytic d\) stereochemical e\) analytical f\) catabolic g\) anabolic h\) reproductive **4.** **The karyotype of a woman with Turner syndrome is:** a\) 45, XY b\) 46, XX c\) 23, XX d\) 45, XX e\) 45, X f\) 47, X g\) 44, XX h\) 45, XY 5\. Gonochorism is: a\) when male and female individuals can be distinguished b\) development of sexual organs c\) when two distinct genders can be distinguished d\) the similarity of male and female individuals e\) a phenomenon when an organism produces one type of gamete f\) a phenomenon when the organism produces both types of gametes g\) a phenomenon when the organism produces macrogametes or microgametes h\) a phenomenon when the organism produces macrogametes and microgametes **6. The ability of the organism to adapt to the external environment is called:** a\) anabiosis b\) autotrophy c\) adaptability d\) homeostasis e\) autolysis f\) heterotrophy g\) replication h\) mutation **7.** **The karyotype of a man with Down syndrome is:** a\) 45, XY+3 b\) 45, XY+21 c\) 47, XY+21 d\) 47, XY+3 e\) 46, XY+21 f\) 46, XY+3 g\) 47, XX+21 h\) 46, XY+21 **8.** **What is true about** **symbols in a pedigree:** a\) a square represents unknown sex b\) a filled circle represents an affected woman c\) a filled square represents a healthy man d\) an empty square represents a healthy man e\) a dot in a square represents a carrier (heterozygote) f\) a filled square represents an affected man g\) generations are designated by Roman numerals h\) generations are designated by Arabic numerals **9.** **What is true about extranuclear inheritance:** a\) DNA molecules are found in mitochondria and chloroplasts in one copy b\) traits determined by genes in mitochondria are inherited the same as traits determined by nuclear genes c\) inheritance of traits controlled by extranuclear genes differs from nuclear inheritance d\) DNA molecules are found in mitochondria and chloroplasts in multiple copies e\) Mendel\'s laws apply here f\) it is non-Mendelian inheritance g\) maternal inheritance is more common h\) paternal inheritance is more common 10\. Osmotic lysis of cells occurs in the environment: a\) hypotonic b\) hypertonic c\) in an environment in which the osmotic pressure is lower than in the cell d\) in an atonic environment e\) isotonic f\) in an environment in which the osmotic pressure is the same as in the cell g\) in an environment in which the osmotic pressure is higher than in the cell h\) hyperosmotic **11. What is the basis for sexual reproduction of all multicellular organisms:** a\) presence of somatic cells b\) differentiation of cells into gametes c\) the presence of sex chromosomes d\) presence of external genital organs e\) the presence of sex cells f\) differentiation of cells into zygotes g\) differentiation of cells into blastomeres h\) presence of coupling 12\. Embryos of all multicellular animals pass in their individual development in the stage of: a\) the morula b\) the blastula c\) ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm d\) the gastrula e\) the endoderm f\) the mesoderm g\) the mesoglea h\) the ectoderm 13\. Amino acids in the protein molecule are linked by bond: a\) complementary b\) ester c\) peptide d\) high-energy bond e\) hydrogen f\) glycosidic g\) low-energy bond h\) covalent 14\. Conjugation occurs in: a\) viruses b\) bacteria c\) cilliata d\) plasmodia e\) plasmids f\) sponge g\) human h\) placentalia 15\. Sexual dimorphism is: a\) differentiation of the method of sexual reproduction b\) when individuals of different genders can be distinguished by primary and secondary sexual characteristics c\) the existence of the same male and female sex cells d\) when individuals of different sex can be distinguished by gonads, morphological and functional properties e\) when male and female individuals can be distinguished by primary and secondary sexual characteristics f\) the separation of external and internal fertilization g\) the phenomenon present in seminal monoecious plants h\) the phenomenon present in dioecious plants **16. Model organisms used in biological experiments are:** a\) viruses b\) bacteria c\) Drosophila d\) amphibians e\) Guinea pigs f\) eobionts g\) chimpanzees h\) ribosomes 17\. Inbreeding is: a\) reproduction, in which the heterozygotes frequency increase in the population b\) interspecific crossing c\) mating of relatives d\) crossing of heterozygotes e\) the method used in selective breeding f\) crossing individuals with very similar genotypes g\) opposite of panmixia h\) reproduction which results in homozygosity **18.** **When does crossing-over occur during meiotic division?** a\) in prophase of the first meiotic division b\) in prophase of the second meiotic division c\) in anaphase of the first meiotic division d\) in anaphase of the second meiotic division e\) in the first phase of the first meiotic division f\) in protophase g\) in the prophase of both meiotic divisions h\) in anaphase of both meiotic divisions **19.** **The X chromosome can be detected in:** a\) a sperm cell b\) an egg cell c\) a hepatocyte d\) cells of the buccal mucosa e\) a neuron f\) a hair follicle g\) a somatic cell h\) neuroglia **20.** **Genes:** a\) are located in DNA macromolecules b\) are found in proteins c\) form the karyotype d\) are in every human cell e\) can also be found in matured erythrocytes f\) are sequences of amino acids g\) are sequences of nucleotides h\) are located in the cell nucleus **21. The various tissues are grouped into higher units that are called:** a\) specialized tissues b\) organs c\) cell cultures d\) organisms e\) tissues f\) tissue cultures g\) communities h\) cell colonies 22\. According to the complexity of an individual, we divide the organisms into: a\) acellular, single-celled, multicellular b\) single-celled, multicellular, and higher-grade individuals (colonies) c\) acellular, single-celled, multicellular, cell colonies d\) viruses, single-celled, multicellular e\) single-celled and multicellular cell colonies f\) prokaryotic and eukaryotic g\) viruses, cell colonies, and multicellular h\) viruses, protozoa and protophyta 23\. The function of the epithelium is: a\) resorption b\) absorption c\) support d\) connection e\) covering of surfaces f\) excretion g\) protection h\) contraction 24\. Fertilization is: a\) the fecundation b\) the fusion of gametes of the opposite sex type c\) the fusion of a sperm and an ovum d\) the fusion of gametes of the same sex-type e\) the process resulting in the formation of a zygote f\) a process that does not occur in isogametes g\) a process that also occurs with isogametes h\) a process that also occurs with anisogamates **25.** **Gonosomes:** a\) are all chromosomes in sex cells b\) are found only in sex cells c\) their presence or absence in the genome determines chromosomal sex d\) are sex chromosomes that carry genes exclusively determining the development of sexual traits e\) are inherited exclusively from the father in sons f\) are non-homologous chromosomes, thus they do not pair during meiosis g\) are chromosomes where all aneuploidies are incompatible with life h\) are X and Y in humans, with males being the heterogametic sex **26. The development of an unfertilized egg is called:** a\) adolescence b\) external fertilization in fish c\) parthenogenesis d\) internal fertilization in birds e\) isogamy f\) anisogamy g\) fertilization h\) coupling **27.** **Which statements are true?** a\) mitochondrial DNA is mostly circular b\) some proteins are exclusively synthesized in mitochondria c\) all codons in mitochondrial and genomic DNA are read the same way d\) diploid cells typically have two copies of mitochondrial DNA e\) mitochondrial DNA is not transmitted to the next generation of cells but is encoded in the NOR region f\) mitochondrial DNA is not essential for the survival of mammalian cells g\) transcripts of mitochondrial genes are transported to the cytoplasm where translation occurs h\) the inheritance of traits governed by extranuclear genes differs from nuclear inheritance; only traits on male mitochondria are transmitted 28\. Regulation in the cell is affected by: a\) by changing the movement of cellular structures in the cytoplasm b\) the number of enzymes in the cytoplasm and cellular structures c\) cytolysis d\) by changing enzyme activity in the cytoplasm e\) slowing the movement of cellular structures in the cytoplasm f\) by reducing the amount of water in the cell g\) by changing the enzyme activity in cellular structures h\) by accelerating the movement of cellular structures in the cytoplasm 29\. Hermaphroditism is: a\) a state, when an organism produces male and female reproductive cells b\) a development of both types of sex cells in the same individual c\) a gender differentiation d\) a development of both types of sex organs of the same individual e\) the same as gonochorism f\) occurs e.g. for some mosses g\) occurs e.g. in all double-seeded plants h\) the basis of sexual reproduction 30\. Anatomy belongs to the sciences: a\) examining the construction of tissues b\) systematic c\) exploring the structure and shapes of the organisms d\) morphological e\) taxonomic f\) physiological g\) examining the structure and function of the cells h\) applied **31.** **Which statement about human genetics is true?** a\) it deals with inherited diseases, while physiologically normal human traits are the subject of the study of normal physiology b\) clinical genetics deals with genetic diseases c\) cytogenetics deals with the detection of gene rearrangements down to the size of a few nucleotides d\) molecular genetics primarily utilizes methods of cytogenetic karyotyping e\) investigating the impact of chromosomal number changes on phenotype is the subject of cytogenetics studies f\) cytogenetics, molecular genetics, and population genetics are specialized areas of human genetics g\) human genetics employs different study methods than genetics of other organisms h\) the goal of human genetics is to eliminate pathological mutations by creating clean lines **32. Regulations in higher multicellular organisms are under control of:** a\) central regulatory mechanisms b\) cell nucleus c\) regulatory and structural genes d\) specific immunity e\) DNA f\) RNA g\) centralized nervous system and hormonal system h\) mechanisms ensuring homeostasis and the integrity of the organism **33.** **If one strand of DNA contains 40% guanine, how much percentage of cytosine is in the complementary DNA strand?** a. 0% b. 10% c. 20% d. 30% e. 40% f. 50% g. 60% h. 70% **34**. **If one strand of DNA contains 63% adenine, how much percentage of thymine is in its mRNA?** a\) 0% b\) 10% c\) 27% d\) 37% e\) 43% f\) 50% g\) 63% h\) 70% 35\. Hormonal regulation in comparison to the nerve regulation is: a\) phylogenetically older b\) phylogenetically younger c\) faster than nerve regulation d\) phylogenetically equal e\) suppressed in plants f\) slower than the nervous regulation g\) in plants an exclusive management mode h\) the result of the external agents influencing the manifestation of the genetic potential\ of the cell 36\. The differentiation is: a\) a process that leads to different genomes in the cells b\) an organ formation during oogenesis c\) a distinction of sex d\) a process that leads to changes of structure and function of the originally same cells e\) a process that leads to changes of structure and function of the originally different cells f\) a phenomenon where the daughter cell is not identical to the parent cell, and they have the same genomes g\) a phenomenon where the daughter cell is not identical in its properties to the parent cell, and they do not have the same genome h\) the effect of an external agent on a gene expression of the cells 37\. Male sex cells in multicellular organisms are called: a\) eggs b\) spermatozoa c\) egg cells d\) sperm cells e\) gonads f\) sperm g\) roe h\) microgametes 38\. Female gametes are: a\) Graafian follicles b\) spermatic cells c\) oocytes d\) microspores e\) yellow bodies f\) oospheres g\) macrogametes h\) macrospores 39\. Methods of research used in biology are: a\) observation b\) scientific description c\) reading d\) experiment e\) comparison method f\) democracy g\) defenestration h\) conjugation **40. The product of transcription is:** a\) polypeptide b\) complementary DNA c\) mRNA d\) polymerase e\) amino acid f\) nucleoside g\) nucleotide h\) messenger RNA 41\. The biotic factors of the environment are: a\) dependence of heterotrophic organisms on autotrophic organisms b\) host and parasite relationship c\) symbiosis d\) activity of other organisms in the biocenosis e\) temperature f\) atmospheric pressure g\) light energy h\) the content of biogenic elements **42.** **The sugar in RNA is:** a\) furanose b\) deoxyribose c\) pentose d\) dideoxyribose e\) fructose f\) ribose g\) lactose h\) glucose 43\. Which polysaccharides have a storage function? a\) sucrose b\) cellulose c\) glucose d\) chitin e\) starch f\) glycogen g\) fructose h\) galactose **44.** **The process of doubling genetic information is called:** a\) replication b\) transcription c\) translation d\) protein synthesis e\) S-phase f\) deletion g\) meiosis h\) reduplication **\ 45.** **The enzyme that adds complementary bases during replication is:** a. DNA primase b. DNA helicase c. RNA replicase d. DNA polymerase e. DNA replicase f. RNA polymerase g. RNA helicase h. RNA primase 46\. Bacteriology: a\) studies viruses b\) studies bacteria c\) studies bacteriophages d\) belongs to microbiology as a systematic biological science e\) is part of microbiology f\) is part of protozoology g\) is part of virology h\) belongs to microbiology as a taxonomic biological science 47\. Nucleoid: a\) consists of two homologous chromosomes b\) consists of one chromosome c\) consists of one DNA molecule d\) creates one RNA molecule e\) has a single membrane coating f\) has a cover of two diaphragms g\) is a plasmid h\) contains two polynucleotide RNA strands 48\. Human somatic cell normally has: a\) two chromosome sets b\) one chromosome set c\) two chromosomes d\) four chromosome sets e\) diploid count of chromosomes f\) haploid count of chromosomes g\) aneuploid number of chromosomes h\) a pair of sex chromosomes 49\. Cell division stops: a\) in the absence of nutrients b\) at an inappropriate temperature c\) in case of harmful substances accumulation d\) under unsuitable conditions of the external environment e\) in the G~0~ phase after treatment with inhibitory agents f\) in the G~2~ phase after stimulation g\) in the main control node S phase h\) at the presence of stimulants 50\. The G~1~ phase of the cell cycle is characterized by: a\) the initiation of synthetic processes b\) the preparation of mRNA replication c\) the cell grows d\) the preparation of the replication of nuclear DNA e\) the main control point is located here f\) chromosomes are shortened and rough g\) creation of the two new nuclei h\) occurrence of cytokinesis **51.** **Which types of RNA are involved in protein synthesis?** a\) tiRNA b\) siRNA c\) tRNA d\) riRNA e\) rRNA f\) ribosomes g\) lncRNA h\) miRNA 52\. What belongs to the membrane system of eukaryotic cells? a\) mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi system, ribosomes and plastids b\) mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi system, plastids and vacuoles c\) mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi system, plastids and chromosomes d\) cell inclusions, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi system, plastids and vacuoles e\) endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi system, plastids, vacuoles and mitochondria f\) vacuoles, lysosomes, chloroplasts, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum g\) Golgi system, endoplasmic reticulum, centriole, mitochondria and vacuoles h\) Golgi system, endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, plastids, cytoskeleton and vacuoles 53\. Biomembranes consist of: a\) two layers of phospholipid molecules and protein molecules b\) two layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules c\) two layers of phospholipid molecules and carbohydrate molecules d\) one layer of phospholipid molecules and protein molecules e\) two layers of protein molecules and two layers of polysaccharide molecules f\) one layer of phospholipid molecules and two layers of protein molecules g\) phospholipid bilayer in which the protein molecules are submerged h\) cellulose network filled with proteins and polysaccharides 54\. Chromosomes in the metaphase of mitosis: a\) align to the central plane b\) align to the equatorial plane c\) align to the cell poles d\) are condensed e\) have the shape of letter X f\) separate from each other g\) reduplicate h\) aggregate into new nuclei 55\. Eukaryotic cell organelles include: a\) meiosis b\) ribosomes c\) mitosis d\) endoplasmic reticulum e\) centriole f\) mitochondria g\) fat droplets h\) centromere 56\. The shape of non-nuclear chromosomes in eukaryotic cells is: a\) baculiform b\) cylindrical c\) cubical d\) circular e\) the same as a prokaryotic chromosome f\) the same as the eukaryotic chromosome g\) homologous h\) heterologous 57\. Indirect division of the eukaryotic cell is called: a\) amitosis b\) meiosis c\) endomitosis d\) mitosis e\) parthenogenesis f\) reduplication g\) gametogony h\) schizogony 58\. Cell cycle and its regulation might be studied effectively: a\) in tissue cultures b\) on viruses c\) on bacteria d\) *in vitro* e\) *in vivo* f\) in monocultures g\) in tumors h\) in host cells 59\. Lysosomes: a\) are the constant membrane organ of prokaryotic cells b\) are small vesicles made of biomembrane c\) contain digestive enzymes d\) contain enzymes capable of cleaving certain substances e\) are the organisms of the osmotic equilibrium f\) contain enzymes synthesizing substances secreted from the cell by exocytosis g\) are a permanent membrane organ of eukaryotic animal cells h\) their enzymes decompose some of the substances taken into the cells 60\. The phases of mitotic division in eukaryotic cells are: a\) prophase b\) interphase c\) metaphase d\) anaphase e\) telophase f\) G0 phase g\) S phase h\) protophase 61\. Cells with one chromosome set are: a\) diploid b\) haploid c\) somatic d\) gametes e\) zygote f\) blastomere g\) oogonia h\) spermatogonia 62\. The cell wall of a eukaryotic cell may include: a\) chitin b\) cellulose c\) chlorophyll d\) lignin e\) mitochondria f\) glycogen g\) salts and wax h\) phycoerythrin 63\. Where are the nuclear pores? a\) in the nuclear envelope of prokaryotic cells b\) at the poles of the nucleus of prokaryotic cells c\) on the inside of the nuclear envelope of the prokaryotic cell nucleus d\) in the nucleolus of prokaryotic cells e\) in the nuclear envelope of the eukaryotic cell f\) at the poles of the nucleus of eukaryotic cells g\) on the inner side of the nuclear envelope of the eukaryotic cell nucleus h\) in the nucleolus of eukaryotic cells 64\. A special type of cell cycle that forms gametes is called: a\) mitosis b\) meiosis c\) amitosis d\) reduction division e\) isogamy f\) anizogamy g\) sporulation h\) coupling **65. The plasmatic membrane of cells is:** a\) permeable only in certain cells b\) semipermeable c\) equally permeable for all substances in all cells d\) characterized by selective permeability e\) a structure that separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm f\) perforated g\) a structure that separates the cell from the environment h\) part of the cell wall 66\. One of the important metabolic processes in the cell in which new protein molecules are produced is called: a\) prototrophy b\) phagocytosis c\) proteosynthesis d\) pinocytosis e\) exocytosis f\) autotrophy g\) heterotrophy h\) oxidative phosphorylation **67.** **The nitrogenous base uracil is found:** a\) only in mRNA b\) only in single-stranded DNA c\) only in DNA d\) only in RNA e\) in both DNA and RNA f\) in tRNA g\) only in rRNA h\) only in genes 68\. Chromosomes can be found in: a\) the cell nucleus membrane b the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells c\) the cell nucleus of eukaryotic cells d\) chloroplasts e\) mitochondria f\) the endoplasmic reticulum g\) lysosomes h\) a centromere 69\. The ability of a cell to absorb microorganisms is called: a\) diapedesis b\) pinocytosis c\) phagocytosis d\) diffusion e\) specific immunity f\) agglutination g\) exocytosis h\) toxin formation **70. Autotrophic cells can use energy:** a\) kinetic b\) chemical c\) heat d\) mechanical e\) endergonic f\) exergonic g\) organic h\) tandem 71\. Ribosomes: a\) have a size of several dozen nanometres b\) are composed of ribonucleic acid and sugars c\) are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins d\) are composed of DNA and protein e\) in prokaryotic cells are greater than in eukaryotic cells f\) are composed of a biological membrane g\) are composed of DNA, RNA and proteins h\) in prokaryotic cells are smaller than in eukaryotic cells 72\. The mitotic apparatus is composed of: a\) centromere b\) centrioles c\) nucleoli d\) filaments of the mitotic spindle e\) mitochondria f\) chloroplasts g\) cellulose fibers h\) chromatin 73\. Phospholipids in the biomembrane are arranged: a\) into a bilayer in which protein molecules are incorporated b\) into two layers c\) into a monolayer in which protein molecules are incorporated d\) into a monolayer in which the glycide molecules are incorporated e\) into two double layers f\) into the globular layers g\) into one layer of lipids and one layer of proteins h\) into one layer of lipids and two layers of proteins **74. Protein synthesis takes place:** a\) in cellular inclusions b\) on the cytoskeleton fibers c\) on ribosomes d\) on microtubules e\) on ribosomes in the cytoplasm f\) on ribosomes in lysosomes g\) on ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum h\) on ribosomes attached to centromeres 75\. How many biomembranes cover the nucleus? a\) two in eukaryotic cells b\) one in eukaryotic cells c\) three in eukaryotic cells d\) in eukaryotic cells by two membranes e\) two in prokaryotic cells f\) one in prokaryotic cells g\) three in prokaryotic cells h\) in prokaryotic cells it has no membrane 76\. Nucleus: a\) is part of the cell wall b\) may contain a nucleolus c\) contains mainly RNA d\) in eukaryotic cells has two membranes e\) its main component in prokaryotic cells are chromosomes f\) its main component in eukaryotic cells are chromosomes g\) is the control center of the cell h\) decreases by mitosis 77\. Glycogen is: a\) bacterial metabolite b\) animal cell polysaccharide c\) vegetable starch d\) the supply of viruses e\) animal starch f\) anabolic enzyme g\) catabolic enzyme h\) a part of the cell wall in plants 78\. DNA replication in a cell occurs in: a\) Golgi\'s system b\) cell nucleus c\) lysosomes d\) chloroplasts e\) mitochondria f\) rough endoplasmic reticulum g\) endoplasmic reticulum h\) plasma membrane 79\. A cell cycle phase in which nuclear DNA replication and duplication of nuclear chromosomes occurs is called: a\) G~1~ phase b\) M phase c\) S phase d\) G~2~ phase e\) synthetic phase f\) main control point g\) G~0~ phase h\) interphase 80\. The phases of mitosis include: a\) protophase b\) prophase c\) telophase d\) G~2~ phase e\) S phase f\) anaphase g\) metaphase h\) G~1~ phase 81\. Which substances are osmotically most effective? a\) electrolytes b\) non-electrolytes c\) substances whose molecules dissociate to ions d\) organic substances e\) heterocyclic f\) colloid g\) gases h\) macromolecular 82\. The cell uses osmotic energy: a\) for muscle work b\) to transfer of substances through cell membranes c\) to spread impulses d\) to transport of electrolytes through cell membranes e\) for cell growth f\) for the regulation of metabolism g\) for preparation of mitosis h\) for DNA replication 83\. The nucleolus consists of: a\) RNA and mDNA b\) proteins and lipids c\) proteins and RNA d\) proteins and DNA e\) chromatin f\) chromosomes g\) ribonucleic acid and proteins h\) from RNA and polysacharides 84\. The cell in meiosis is divided: a\) one time b\) not once c\) twice d\) thrice e\) twice with one DNA replication f\) twice with two replications of DNA g\) once with one replication of DNA h\) once with two replications of DNA **85. Based on the complexity, cells can be divided into:** a\) subcellular and protocellular b\) epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous c\) nuclear and nuclear-free d\) prokaryotic and eukaryotic e\) simple and compound f\) viruses and bacteria g\) single-cell and multi-cell h\) subcellular of eobionts **86. The oxidative phosphorylation enzyme system is located in:** a\) Golgi\'s system b\) chloroplasts c\) mitochondria d\) endoplasmic reticulum e\) cell nucleus f\) lysosomes g\) ribosomes h\) thylakoids 87\. Blastomeres are: a\) cells generated at the first meiotic division b\) cells generated by the mitotic zygote division c\) macrogametes of bivalves d\) daughter cells at meiosis e\) cells generated by \"cleavage\" of the zygote f\) cells generated by amyotrophic division of zygotes g\) cells generated by the second meiotic division h\) cells produced by blastulation 88\. In the anaphase of mitosis: a\) the microtubules of the mitotic spindle are shortened and thus the chromosomes are pulled towards centrioles b\) microtubules of the mitotic spindle are prolonged and thus the chromosomes are pulled towards centrioles c\) chromosomes are pulled towards centrioles d\) chromosomes are pulled towards centromeres e\) a diploid number of chromosomes is located around centrioles f\) a haploid number of chromosomes is located around centrioles g\) chromosomes are shortened and thickened h\) chromosomes concentrate in the central plane of the cell 89\. In the telophase of mitosis: a\) chromosomes concentrate on the central plane of the cell b\) the mitotic spindle disintegrates c\) chromosomes change back to long fibers d\) new nuclear envelope will be created e\) the structure of the nucleus is restored f\) cytokinesis occurs g\) the cell is being prepared for S phase h\) the G~2~ phase is prepared **90. The result of meiotic cell division are:** a\) cells with a diploid number of chromosomes b\) cells with a haploid number of chromosomes c\) sex cells d\) cells with four chromosome sets e\) gametes f\) somatic cells g\) zygote h\) gametogony 91\. The main cell cycle checkpoint is located in the: a\) G~2~ phase b\) G~1~ phase c\) S phase d\) prophase e\) metaphase f\) anaphase g\) telophase h\) interphase **92.** **Methods used in clinical genetics are:** a\) karyotype evaluation b\) twin studies c\) victim identification d\) population research e\) prenatal genetics f\) postnatal genetics g\) identification of biological samples h\) DNA analysis 93\. Ribosomes of prokaryotic cells are: a\) cellular organelles composed of a biomembrane b\) found in the cytoplasm c\) located in their nucleus d\) involved in the construction of a rough endoplasmic reticulum e\) involved in the construction of a smooth endoplasmic reticulum f\) cellular organelles composed of proteins and sugars g\) cellular organelles composed of proteins and RNA h\) cellular organelles composed of proteins and DNA 94\. The number of gonosomes in the normal somatic cell of both male and female is: a\) odd b\) even c\) the same d\) one X and two Y e\) one X and the other is X or Y f\) different g\) diploid h\) haploid 95\. During mitosis, eukaryotic cells are divided: a\) only once b\) once, with one DNA replication c\) once, with one replication of RNA d\) twice, with one RNA replication e\) into two equal daughter cells f\) into four cells with the same genome g\) in the G~1~ phase of the cell cycle h\) in the M phase of the cell cycle **96.** **Forensic genetics deals with:** a\) the Human genome project b\) comparison of biological trace evidence c\) identification of genetic diseases d\) identification of individuals e\) determination of paternity f\) determination of kinship between individuals g\) polygenic inheritance h\) identification of victims 97\. Which nitrogenous bases are complementary in DNA? a\) adenine with cytosine b\) thymine with guanine c\) guanine with cytosine d\) uracil with thymine e\) adenine with uracil f\) thymine with adenine g\) cytosine with guanine h\) adenine with thymine 98\. Do plasmids have the ability to replicate themselves? a\) yes, they do, in the Porifera b\) yes, they do, in the host cell c\) sometimes d\) depending on the state of the nucleus e\) yes, independently from the chromosomes f\) yes, along with chromosomes g\) yes, outside the cells h\) yes, in prophase 99\. The process of formation of two new and identical DNA molecules is called: a\) replication b\) transcription c\) duplication d\) translation e\) complementarity f\) metaphase g\) fertilization h\) identification 100\. The reason why plasmids are important for clinical medicine is that the plasmids: a\) determine against which antibiotic substance a respective bacterium is resistant b\) control hormone production c\) regulate the effectiveness of antibiotics d\) influence the pathogenicity of bacteria e\) increase the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics f\) encode enzymes for the decomposition of certain antibiotic substances g\) allow the introduction of new genes into human cells h\) allow the spread of antibiotic resistance between bacteria 101\. The basic building block of nucleic acids is: a\) nucleoside b\) nucleotide c\) chromatin d\) a substance composed of a nitrogenous organic base, pentose, and phosphoric acid e\) a substance composed of a purine or pyrimidine base, pentose, and H~3~PO~4~ f\) a substance composed of a purine or pyrimidine base, a five-carbon sugar, and H~3~PO~4~ g\) a substance composed of a purine or pyrimidine base, six-carbon sugar, and H~3~PO~4~ h\) a substance composed of a nitrogenous organic base, hexose, and phosphoric acid 102\. The process of DNA replication occurs: a\) before mitotic cell division b\) in the anaphase of mitotic cell division c\) in the prophase of mitotic cell division d\) in the telophase of mitotic cell division e\) in the synthetic phase of the interphase f\) in the synthetic phase of metaphase g\) in the metaphase of mitotic cell division h\) in the G~1~ phase of the interphase 103\. The template which contains information about the primary structure of the polypeptide chain is: a\) mRNA b\) tRNA c\) rRNA d\) transfer RNA e\) messenger RNA f\) ribosomal RNA g\) DNA h\) ATP 104\. According to the CAT AAG TAC AAC CGT CAC segment in the DNA, the generated mRNA is: a\) GUA UUC AUG UUG CGA TGT b\) GUU UUC AUG UUG CCA GTG c\) GUU UUG AUG UUG GCA CTG d\) GUU AUG AUG UUG GCA GTG e\) GUU UUC AUC UUG CGA CTT f\) GUA UUC AUG UUG GCA GUG g\) GUU UUC AUC UUG CGA TAG h\) GUU UUC AUC UUC CCA GAG 105\. What types of RNA do we know? a\) informational DNA b\) messenger RNA c\) transfer RNA d\) ribosomal RNA e\) transcriptional RNA f\) translational RNA g\) nucleolar RNA h\) hybrid DNA 106\. Structural gene expression is: a\) a transfer of genetic information coded by order of amino acids in the peptide chain b\) a transfer of genetic information coded by DNA into the amino acid sequence in the peptide chain c\) a transmission of genetic information from DNA to mitochondria d\) an expression of the recessive genetic trait e\) transferring genetic information from DNA to the primary structure of the protein f\) the process of transcription and translation g\) a transcription of the information from DNA and translation into the amino acid sequence\ of the protein h\) a transmission of information by reduplication 107\. The basic types of genes are: a\) induction genes b\) structural genes c\) genes for RNA d\) regulatory genes e\) mitogenic genes f\) genotype genes g\) phenotypic genes h\) genes for DNA 108\. The plasmids are: a\) circular RNA molecules stored in the nucleus b\) a particular type of cytoplasmic protein c\) small circular DNA molecules in the cytoplasm of bacteria that replicate independently from chromosomal DNA d\) structures of the cytoskeletal system e\) circular DNA molecules in the nucleus f\) small circular DNA molecules separated from chromosomal DNA in bacteria g\) small circular DNA molecules separated from chromosomal DNA in animals h\) small circular DNA molecules separated from chromosomal DNA in higher plants 109\. The tRNA anti-coding sequence for protein synthesis according to the structural gene segment CAA AAC TGT GCG TCA TTA CCA is: a\) CAA CCA UCU CGG UCA UUA CCA b\) CAA AAC UGU GCG UCA UUA CCA c\) GAA CCA UGC CCC UCC UUA GCA d\) CAA AAC UCU GCC UCA UAA CCA e\) GAA CAA UCU GCG UCA UAA CCA f\) CAA CCA TGT GCG TCA TTA CCA g\) CAA CCA UCU CGC UCA UUA CCA h\) CAA GGA UCU GCG UCA UUA CCA **110. What are the disadvantages of genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?** a\) the use of GMOs in waste degradation b\) the allergenic potential of GMOs c\) the environmental risks d\) the resistance to antibiotics used in GMO creation e\) the use of GMOs in research f\) the unexpected gene interactions in the target organism g\) the endangerment of biodiversity h\) the vaccine production 111\. The codon is: a\) a sequence of nucleotides that carries information determining the inclusion of the amino acids in the peptide chain b\) a triplet of adjacent nucleotides in DNA or mRNA c\) a triplet in rRNA for amino acid sequencing d\) a triplet in tRNA e\) three consecutive nucleotides in DNA or mRNA f\) the major part of the ribosome g\) an active enzyme center h\) another name for the genetic code **112.** **What are the advantages of genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?** a\) the usability in waste decomposition b\) the improvement of the quality or yield of certain crops c\) unexpected gene interactions in the target organism d\) the resistance to antibiotics used in GMO creation e\) the allergenic potential of GMOs f\) the endangerment of biodiversity g\) the usability in research h\) the enablement of production of vaccines and other medicines 113\. Genetic information in DNA molecules is stored: a\) depending on protein molecules b\) according to the genetic code c\) according to the structure of the ribosomes d\) by transcription from RNA to mRNA e\) by the sequence of deoxyribonucleotides f\) the ribonucleotide sequence g\) in the structure of its molecule h\) by order of deoxyribonucleosides 114\. The complementary strand to the ACT GCT TGT GTC AGT AA chain in\ DNA is: a\) TGA CGA AGA GAG TCA TT b\) TCA GGA ACA CAG TCA TT c\) TGA CCA ACA CAC TCA TT d\) TGA CGA ACA CAG TCA TT e\) TCA CCA AGA CAG TGA TT f\) TGA CGA AGA CAG TCA TT g\) TGA CGA ACA GAC TCA TT h\) TGA CCA ACA CAG TGA TT 115\. Regulatory genes: a\) regulate the activity of other genes b\) regulate the synthesis of polysaccharides c\) regulate the transport of water to the cell d\) encode the sequence of bases in DNA molecules e\) regulate the same activity of all genes f\) regulate the same activity of the genes in all cells g\) maintain order in the whole system of genes h\) regulate the activity of genes in time and space 116\. Chromatin consists of: a\) DNA and lipids b\) deoxyribonucleic acid and protein c\) proteins and ribonucleic acids d\) proteins and carbohydrates e\) DNA and protein f\) DNA and polysaccharides g\) RNA and protein h\) RNA and polysaccharides 117\. According to the principle of complementarity, thymine binds to: a\) adenine b\) guanine c\) uracil d\) uracil or guanine e\) cytosine f\) cytosine or adenine g\) thymine or uracil h\) thymine 118\. What are the anticodons in tRNA to the mRNA CGAUAUCGUGCU? a\) CGU UTU CGU GCU b\) GCU AUA GCA CGA c\) CGA UAU CGU GCU d\) GCT ATA GCA CGA e\) CGA TAT CGT GCT f\) GCU AUA CGA CGA g\) CGT ATA CGT GCA h\) GCU ATA GCA CGA 119\. Which of the following nitrogenous bases of the DNA molecule is located opposite to adenine in the complementary strand: a\) adenine b\) thymine or guanine c\) guanine d\) uracil or guanine e\) thymine f\) guanine or thymine g\) adenine and guanine h\) thymine and adenine **\ ** **120.** **Genomics:** a\) is a branch of science studying genetic information b\) has evolved thanks to genome sequencing of various organisms c\) studies the organization of genomes d\) analyzes DNA sequences in the genome e\) is based on processing, comparing, and searching DNA sequences f\) has enabled the discovery of the causes of all hereditary diseases g\) utilizes methods of molecular biology, such as karyotyping h\) focuses on the study of genomes 121\. How many amino acids are coded by ATG TCT TTT CGG GGC DNA segment? a\) 3 b\) 4 c\) 5 d\) 6 e\) 8 f\) 7 g\) 2 h\) 1 122\. Amino acids can be coded: a\) all of them with only one type of codon b\) always with only two codons c\) always with several types of codons d\) by multiple codon types e\) by only three codons f\) multiple types of triplets g\) all by just one type of triplet h\) always by only two triplets 123\. Synthesis of RNA: a\) is catalyzed b\) is not catalyzed c\) the building blocks are free amino acids d\) energy is supplied by ATP e\) energy is not supplied ATP f\) is chemically similar to DNA synthesis g\) RNA is synthesized, e.g. in the nucleus, in the mitochondria, in the chloroplasts h\) the order of nucleotides is determined by the order of the bases in one of the DNA strands **124. Specific triplets of consecutive nucleotides in the DNA macromolecule are called:** a\. nucleotide trinomies b\. nucleotide trickeries c\. nucleotide trizomies d\. nucleotide triplets e\. codons f\. anticodons g\. transposons h\. genomes 125\. DNA and RNA differ by: a\) type of saccharide b\) primary structure c\) the way they originate d\) secondary structure e\) transcription f\) molecular mass g\) matrix h\) the enzyme that catalyzes their synthesis 126\. RNA carries genetic information at: a\) mammals b\) RNA viruses c\) fungi d\) DNA viruses e\) some non-cellular organisms f\) RNA of bacteria g\) prokaryotic organisms h\) plasmids **127. Nucleic acids:** a\) belong to the basic macromolecular substances of living systems b\) are formed by connecting nucleotides into long chains c\) have genealogic information or are involved in its implementation d\) contain three types of nitrogenous bases and one type of sugar e\) always contain a five-carbon sugar f\) always contain a six-carbon sugar g\) carry a genetic information or participate in its implementation h\) always contain amino acids 128\. What blood group can a child have when the mother has a blood group 0 and father has blood group A? a\) A with the genotype AA if the father is homozygous b\) 0 with the genotype 00 if the father is homozygous c\) A with the genotype A0 if the father is homozygous d\) B with genotype B0 if the father is heterozygous e\) A with the genotype AA if the father is heterozygous f\) 0 with the genotype 00 if the father is heterozygous g\) A or 0 if the father is heterozygous h\) A or 0 if the father is homozygous 129\. Which of the following statements is true about genomic mutations? a\) the number of chromosomes in the cell changes b\) the structure of the genes is not changed c\) the structure of individual chromosomes is changed d\) number of individual chromosomes and sets is changed e\) eukaryotic cell has more or fewer chromosomes than 2n f\) prokaryotic cell has more or fewer chromosomes than 2n g\) we observe polyploidy or aneuploidy h\) we observe a change in the structure of the chromosomes **\ ** **130.** **Gene engineering technologies include:** a\) technologies for preparing recombinant DNA b\) DNA cleavage and preparation of genetic constructs c\) amplification of DNA fragments in bacterial plasmids d\) preparation of hybrid DNA e\) hybridization of selected individuals f\) isolation of genes and their insertion into cells of unrelated organisms g\) preparation of hybrid proteins h\) utilization of restriction endonucleases for ligating DNA and plasmid fragments 131\. Healthy parents have two sons; one of them is affected by daltonism. What are the genotypes of both parents? a\) XdX x XY b\) XX x XY c\) XdX x XdY d\) XdXd x XY e\) the mother does not have the allele for daltonism, and the father is the carrier f\) the mother is a carrier and the father does not have the allele for daltonism g\) the mother does not have the allele for daltonism and father is healthy h\) XX x XdY 132\. The phenotypic ratio of monohybrid hybridisation with complete dominance of a heterozygote with a recessive homozygote is: a\) 1: 3: 1 b\) 2: 1 c\) 3: 1 d\) 1: 1 e\) 50%: 50% f\) 75%: 25% g\) 25%: 50%: 25% h\) there is no ratio since the uniformity law applies 133\. Daltonism is a genetic disorder with: a\) the recessive inheritance linked to the sex chromosomes X and Y b\) the recessive inheritance linked to the gonosome X c\) the recessive inheritance linked to the sex chromosome X d\) the recessive inheritance linked to the sex chromosome Y e\) the recessive inheritance linked to the heterochromosome X f\) the dominant inheritance linked to the heterochromosome X g\) the dominant inheritance linked to the heterochromosome Y h\) the recessive inheritance linked to the somatic chromosomes 134\. Galactosemia is: a\) the autosomal recessive genetic disorder b\) the autosomal dominant genetic disorder c\) the recessive genetic disorder linked to the X chromosome d\) the recessive genetic disorder linked to the Y chromosome e\) the recessive genetic disorder linked to a somatic chromosome f\) the intermediate genetic disorder linked to a somatic chromosome g\) dominant, the trait is on the somatic chromosome h\) the gonosomal recessive genetic disorder 135\. The genotype of a recessive homozygous individual for the following traits is: a\) AAbb b\) Aabb c\) aaBb d\) aabb e\) AaBb f\) aabbcc g\) cc h\) bbcc 136\. The presence of Y chromosome in a karyotype means: a\) an aneuploidy in mammals b\) a male sex in humans c\) a female sex in humans d\) a chromosome segregation disorder e\) a male gender in humans f\) a male genotype in humans g\) a polyploidy in mammals h\) a tetraploidy in mammals 137\. The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid hybridization between two heterozygotes, exhibiting complete dominance, is: a\) 2: 1 b\) 3: 1 c\) 3: 2: 1 d\) 1: 1 e\) 66%: 33% f\) 75%: 25% g\) 25%: 50%: 25% h\) 50%: 50% **138. Karyotyping:** a\) is the study of the composition and structure of chromosomes b\) does not allow distinguishing between homogametic and heterogametic sexes c\) is possible even from amniotic fluid d\) is not suitable for diagnosing hereditary diseases e\) is most commonly performed on blood cells (lymphocytes, leukocytes), from skin, or muscle f\) cannot be performed on samples obtained by amniocentesis g\) is a method enabling the detection of large chromosomal rearrangements and chromosomal aberrations h\) is the arrangement of chromosomes into a so-called karyotype 139\. Intermediate inheritance is: a\) a case of incomplete dominancy in which the dominant allele does not manifest in the heterozygote phenotype b\) a case of incomplete dominance, in which both alleles are equally manifest in the heterozygote phenotype c\) an interspecific crossbreeding d\) a specific case of dominance in which the dominant allele does not manifest in the heterozygote phenotype e\) also known as incomplete dominance f\) a phenomenon where the two alleles in the pair are always the same, they create one trait, and both alleles cooperate on its manifestation equally g\) a phenomenon when two different alleles determined the creation of two traits h\) a particular case of incomplete dominance in which the recessive allele does not manifest in the heterozygote phenotype 140\. Both parents have a blood group AB. What blood group can their children have? a\) heterozygous A b\) heterozygous B c\) homozygous 0 d\) homozygous A e\) homozygous B f\) codominant AB g\) heterozygous 0 h\) codominant A 141\. Haemophilia A (hereditary bleeding): a\) occurs more often in women b\) occurs more often in men c\) is Y-linked trait d\) occurs in men whose father had this disease e\) occurs in men whose mother is a carrier f\) occurs in sons whose mother is a carrier g\) occurs in all sons whose mother is a carrier h\) occurs only in the men whose father suffer to haemophilia **142. Which organelles play an important role in post-translational modifications of proteins?** a\. endoplasmic reticulum b\. Golgi reticulum c\. Golgi apparatus d\. endoplasmic apparatus e\. lysosomes f\. endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus g\. polyzomes h\. nucleus 143\. The set of all genes in one cell is called: a\) genome b\) genosome c\) polyribosome d\) polyploidia e\) plasmid f\) genotype in Monocytozoa g\) karyotype h\) phenotype **144.** **Nucleolus:** a\. is a permanent organelle of eukaryotic cells b\. degrades at the beginning of cell division c\. is the site of rRNA synthesis d\. has a membrane envelope e\. is not a permanent structure of the nucleus f\. is the site of protein synthesis g\. is a permanent structure of prokaryotic cell nuclei h\. is the site of mRNA synthesis **145. The dihybrid genotype of the dominant homozygote for the first trait and the recessive homozygote for the second one is:** a\) AABb b\) aaBB c\) AAbb d\) aabb e\) CCdd f\) DDee g\) Ddee h\) CcDd 146\. Both parents are heterozygotes for blood group B. The probability that their children will have a blood group B is: a\) 100% b\) 75% c\) 50% d\) 25% e\) 0.75 f\) 0.25 g\) 0.80 h\) 0.50 147\. In the case of incomplete dominance, what can we say about the phenotype of the heterozygote with genotype Bb? The phenotype is: a\) identical to bb b\) identical to BB c\) identical only to BB d\) identical to both BB and bb e\) different from BB f\) different from bb g\) different from Bb h\) different from BB and bb **148.** **How many biomembranes do mitochondria consist of?** a\. they do not have a membranous structure b\. two c\. three d\. two - outer membrane and inner membrane, which forms mitochondrial cristae e\. one f\. two - inner membrane and outer membrane, which forms mitochondrial cristae g\. one or two, depending on cell shape h\. one or two, depending on mitochondrial shape 149\. Mutagens are: a\) agents inducing the modification of tissues b\) agents that cause mutation in the cell c\) agents that prevent mutations in the cell d\) mutation-causing genes e\) involved in the formation of induced mutations f\) of physical nature, e.g. ionizing radiation g\) of chemical nature, e.g. radio mutations h\) of chemical nature, e.g. ethylnitrosourea and ethidium bromide 150\. Gene mutations: a\) cause structural changes in individual genes b\) cause structural changes in individual chromosomes c\) cause changes in the order or number of nucleotides d\) change the shape or number of chromosomes e\) cause, for example, the loss of one or several nucleotides f\) cause, for example, the insertion of one or several additional nucleotides g\) are also termed chromosomal aberrations h\) cause, for example, the replacement of one nucleotide by an abnormal nucleotide 151\. What types of mutations do we recognize? a\) gene, structural, and conditional b\) those affecting genes, chromosomes, and chromosomal sets c\) those affecting genes, chromosomes, and the genome d\) those affecting chromosome, autosomes, and the genome e\) induced and spontaneous f\) autogamous and gonochoristic g\) structural and functional h\) hereditary and epigenetic **152.** **The number and size of mitochondria:** a\) are constant b\) depend on the cell type c\) are variable d\) do not depend on the stage of cell development e\) depend on the cell type, its developmental stage, and metabolic activity f\) do not depend on the metabolic activity of the cell g\) are significantly influenced by the oxygen content h\) depend on the cell type, with muscle cells having many mitochondria 153\. The genetic hybridisation of a heterozygote with a recessive homozygote is: a\) Aa x aa b\) AA x aa c\) Aa x Aa d\) Aa x AA e\) AaBb x aabb f\) AaBb x AaBb g\) AABB x aaBB h\) aaBB x aaBB 154\. How many autosomes does a human somatic cell contain? a\) 22 pairs b\) 23 pairs c\) 44 d\) 46 e\) an even number f\) an odd number g\) one set h\) two sets 155\. Which of the following statements are true about gonosomes in humans? a\) they are called chromosome X and chromosome Y b\) they are present in gametes c\) combination of YY normally does not exist d\) only one gonosome is present in a normal gamete e\) a somatic cell always contains the Y chromosome f\) a somatic cell always contains the X chromosome g\) a combination of YY determines the female gender h\) they are also called autosomes **156**. **Endoplasmic reticulum:** a\) belongs to membranous organelles b\) is not important for transport processes in the cell c\) is often localized near the nucleus d\) is not among membranous organelles e\) is involved in protein modification f\) has two forms (rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum) g\) is involved in intracellular transport h\) appears as a system of vesicles, flat cisterns, and tubules under the electron microscope **157. Mother has blood group 0 and father AB. What blood group can their children have?** a\) 0 with the 100% probability b\) B with the 75% probability c\) A with the 50% probability d\) AB with the 25% probability e\) 0 with the 0% probability f\) B with the 50% probability g\) A with the 25% probability h\) AB with the 0% probability 158\. Galactosemia is: a\) a hereditary molecular disease b\) a hereditary autosomal recessive disease c\) a disease caused by the lack of one of galactose degradation enzymes d\) a hereditary disease that belongs to the inborn hereditary malformations e\) a hereditary disease caused by a chromosome mutation f\) a hereditary gonosomal dominant disease g\) a hereditary gonosomal recessive disease h\) an inherited disease where the mutant allele has a pleiotropic effect 159\. How many groups of chromosomes are in the human karyotype based on Denver classification? a\) five b\) six c\) seven d\) eight e\) A to F f\) three g\) four h\) A to G 160\. One parent has a heterozygous blood group A and a second parent has\ a heterozygous blood group B. What blood groups can their child have? a\) heterozygous blood group A with a 25% probability b\) heterozygous blood group B with a 25% probability c\) blood group AB with a 25% probability d\) blood group 0 with a 25% probability e\) homozygous blood group A with a 25% probability f\) homozygous blood group B with a 25% probability g\) blood group AB with a 75% probability h\) blood group 0 with a 50% probability **161. Ribosomes:** a\) are not formed from a biomembrane b\) can occur freely in the cytoplasm c\) are responsible for lipid synthesis d\) in eukaryotic cells are exclusively located on rough endoplasmic reticulum e\) are organelles composed of proteins and RNA f\) are responsible for sugar synthesis g\) are responsible for protein synthesis h\) can be found on the surface of smooth endoplasmic reticulum **162.** **Protein synthesis occurs on:** a\) cell inclusions b\) cytoskeleton fibers c\) ribosomes d\) microtubules e\) ribosomes in the cytoplasm f\) ribosomes in lysosomes g\) ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum h\) ribosomes attached to centromeres 163\. Can the daltonic parents have a color-blind child? a\) yes, with a 25% probability b\) yes, with a 50% probability c\) yes, with a 75% probability d\) yes, with a 100% probability e\) all children must be colour blind f\) yes, but 25% of the sons will be color-blind g\) yes, but 75% of the sons will be color-blind h\) yes, but the birth of a colour-blind daughter is more likely than a color-blind son 164\. The set of genotypically and phenotypically identical individuals is called: a\) a pure line if they are the result of sexual reproduction b\) an inbred line if they are the result of breeding of relatives c\) a clone that originated from vegetative reproduction d\) colonies if differentiation occurred e\) an autogamy f\) a pure line that originated from vegetative reproduction g\) an inbred line that originated from vegetative reproduction h\) a clone that was created by breeding 165\. Both parents have a heterozygous blood group A. Their children may have a blood group: a\) A with a 25% probability b\) A with a 50% probability c\) A with a 75% probability d\) A with a 100% probability e\) homozygous A with a 25% probability f\) heterozygous A with a 50% probability g\) heterozygous A with a 75% probability h\) homozygous 0 with a 25% probability 166\. The Rh factor is inherited as: a\) an autosomal recessive trait b\) X-linked gonosomal recessive trait c\) an autosomal dominant trait d\) X-linked gonosomal dominant trait e\) an autosomal intermediate trait f\) Y-linked gonosomal dominant trait g\) Y-linked gonosomal recessive trait h\) X-linked autosomal recessive trait 167\. An example of normal human traits with Mendelian inheritance is: a\) haemophilia b\) blood groups c\) daltonism d\) Down syndrome e\) eye colour f\) to become right-handed and left-handed g\) colour-blindness h\) cleft lift **168**. **Golgi apparatus:** a\) does not have a synthetic function b\) is formed by a system of cisterns called dictyosomes c\) is functionally almost inactive d\) has synthetic and secretory functions e\) is not formed by a biomembrane f\) is also involved in the synthesis of some polysaccharides g\) does not participate in transport processes h\) is involved in the modification of substances to be secreted from the cell 169\. Polyploidy is: a\) a multiplication of some chromosomes b\) a multiplication of complete chromosome sets c\) the lack of certain genes d\) a multiplication of incomplete chromosome sets e\) e.g. triploidy f\) e.g. tetraploidy g\) e.g. diploidy h\) e.g. aneuploidy **170.** **How many chromosomes or sets of chromosomes are found in a diploid human cell?** a\) two haploid sets of chromosomes b\) 2n c\) 23 chromosomes twice d\) 46 chromosomes e\) the same number of chromosomes as in a zygote f\) the same number of chromosomes as in a sperm cell g\) the same number of chromosomes as in an egg cell h\) 44 autosomes and two sex chromosomes XY 171\. The change of the gene pool is caused by: a\) a monohybridism b\) a mutation if the carrier survives and can reproduce itself c\) the evolution d\) a natural selection e\) a dihybridism f\) a selection g\) a mutation in infertile individuals h\) the Hardy-Weinberg law 172\. Genetic pool is the set of: a\) alleles for all inherited traits in an individual b\) genes for all inherited traits in one family c\) alleles for all inherited traits in a particular species d\) alleles in the particular population members e\) dominant alleles of particular family members f\) recessive alleles of particular family members g\) phenotypes of one population member h\) all phenotypically manifested traits in a particular species 173\. What is the chromosomal determination of gender? a\) in mammals, males have gonosomes XY b\) in mammals, females have gonosomes XX c\) in birds, males have gonosomes ZZ d\) in butterflies, females have gonosomes ZW e\) in birds, females have gonosomes ZW f\) in butterflies, males have gonosomes ZZ g\) in mammals, females have gonosomes XY h\) in mammals, males have gonosomes XX 174\. Independent groups of factors causing variability in organisms are: a\) induced variability and induced inheritance b\) non-hereditary variability and external environment factors c\) natural inherited and acquired agents of the environment d\) hereditary and non-hereditary variability e\) genotype and external environment factors f\) hereditary variability and genotype g\) genotype and phenotype h\) phenotype and factors of the external environment 175\. The karyotype is: a\) morphological determination of the cell nucleus type b\) scheme of gene organization c\) the count and the morphology of the chromosomes within the cell nucleus d\) the amino acid sequence map of the core genes e\) a microscopic image of the chromosomes of the eukaryotic cell that identify them f\) a microscopic image of prokaryotic cell chromosomes that identify them g\) the same in the healthy individuals within the same species, but there are differences between sexes h\) in all healthy individuals of one species the same, the difference is given by age 176\. An example of human metabolic disease is: a\) Down syndrome b\) galactosemia c\) essential hypertension d\) chromosome aberration e\) brachydactyly f\) Turner syndrome g\) inheritance errors h\) neurosis 177\. What are the genotypes of the parents, if their son is haemophiliac and their daughter is healthy homozygote? a\) XhXh and XY b\) XhX and XhY c\) XhX and XY d\) XX and XhY e\) the mother is a carrier and the father is healthy f\) the mother is a carrier, and the father is sick g\) the mother is healthy homozygote, and the father is healthy h\) the mother is homozygote, and the father is sick 178\. X-heterochromosome-related hereditary diseases in humans are: a\) haemophilia b\) brachydactyly c\) green eye colour d\) essential hypertension e\) color blindness f\) daltonism g\) haemorrhagic disease, type A h\) haemorrhagic disease, type C 179\. Daltonism (color blindness) occurs: a\) equally often in both sexes b\) more often in men c\) more often in women d\) only in women e\) both in men and women f\) only in men g\) in all sons of the daltonic mother h\) in all daughters of the daltonic mother and the healthy father **\ ** **180. Lysosomes:** a\) are exclusively found in plant cells b\) are involved in intracellular digestion c\) are found in animal cells and fungi d\) do not contain digestive enzymes e\) are involved in breaking down worn-out organelles f\) participate in the programmed cell death g\) are involved in a substance synthesis h\) are small vesicles formed by the biomembrane **181. The basic methods of human genetics are:** a\) genealogy b\) population research c\) gemellology d\) cytochemistry e\) morphological f\) research of twins g\) physiological h\) cultivation 182\. The brother has a blood group AB and his sister has a blood group 0.\ The genotypes of their parent\'s blood groups are: a\) AB and A0 b\) A0 and B0 c\) B0 and AB d\) 00 and AA e\) heterozygous A and heterozygous B f\) homozygous A and homozygous B g\) heterozygous A and homozygous 0 h\) heterozygous A and codon AB 183\. Genes: a\) are sections of DNA molecules in chromosomes b\) consist of ribosomes and DNA c\) control the production of specific proteins d\) are present in full set in each individual diploid cell e\) are divided into minor and major effect genes f\) are present in full set in each individual haploid cell g\) are found on the chromosome loci h\) provide a non-hereditary variability 184\. Why the human inheritance cannot be examined by the crossing method: a\) because Mendel\'s laws do not allow it b\) due to ethical reasons c\) due to the low number of offspring d\) due to the low number of monitored generations e\) because human gametes are not suitable for crossing f\) due to the long life-span of a man g\) due to the lack of funding h\) due to aesthetic reasons 185\. Qualitative traits are: a\) e.g. the color of rose petals b\) the intensity of metabolism c\) functional d\) an eye color e\) a phenotype f\) a hair color g\) the gender of individual h\) a body height 186\. The mother has a heterozygous blood group A. Her baby has a homozygous blood group A. What blood group the father of the child may have? a\) heterozygous A b\) homozygous 0 c\) homozygous A d\) heterozygous A or heterozygous B e\) homozygous A or heterozygous A f\) homozygous 0 or homozygous A g\) heterozygous A or homozygous A h\) heterozygous A or homozygous 0 187\. The grandmother has an autosomal dominant trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that a grandchild will have this trait if his father is recessive homozygote for this trait? a\) 50% b\) 100% c\) 25% d\) 0% e\) a half f\) will always have it g\) will never have it h\) one quarter 188\. The grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that the grandchild also will not have this trait if his father is the dominant homozygote for the trait? a\) 50% b\) 0% c\) 75% d\) 100% e\) a half f\) will always have it g\) will never have it h\) three quarters 189\. The genotype of a dihybrid that is a dominant homozygote for the first trait and\ a heterozygote for the second trait is: a\) BBCc b\) DDEe c\) AAbb d\) AaBB e\) BBcc f\) DdEE g\) AABb h\) EEFf 190\. The inheritance: a\) ensures the transfer of generic traits from generation to generation b\) ensures the transfer of generic traits from offspring to parents c\) cannot be separated from variability d\) is variability e\) causes the offspring to resemble their parents f\) is the ability of living organisms to pass predisposition for traits from parents to offspring g\) is the ability of living organisms to pass predisposition for traits from generation to generation h\) causes the offspring to be identical with their parents 191\. Mutations that change the structure of genes but do not change the structure or number of chromosomes are called: a\) genome mutations b\) chromosome mutations c\) gene mutations d\) gene pool mutations e\) diploid mutations f\) haploid mutations g\) hypodiploid mutations h\) triploid mutations 192\. The grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that even the grandchild will not have this trait if his father is the dominant homozygote for the trait? a\) 50% b\) 100% c\) 75% d\) 0% e\) a half f\) will always have it g\) will never have it h\) three quarters 193\. Human chromosomal set: a\) is the same for all body cells of an individual b\) is the same for all family members c\) is transferred unchanged from parents to offspring d\) is the same for all sex cells of an individual e\) is a chromosome map f\) is a couple of sex chromosomes g\) it is also composed of autosomes h\) is also composed of gonosomes 194\. Grandmother has an autosomal recessive trait. Her daughter does not have this trait. What is the probability that even the grandchild will not have this trait, if his father is recessively homozygous for the trait? a\) 50% b\) 100% c\) 75% d\) 0% e\) a half f\) always have it g\) never have it h\) three quarters 195\. Can the child inherit color-blindness from parents if both of them recognize the colors normally? a\) never b\) yes, but only a daughter c\) yes, but only a son d\) yes, but only a son with a 75% probability e\) the daughter cannot, even if the mother is a carrier f\) a son cannot, even if the mother is a carrier g\) a daughter can not h\) a daughter can when the mother is a carrier 196\. If the father has a blood group 0 and the mother also has a blood group 0: a\) their children may only have a blood group 0 b\) children will have a homozygous 0 with the 0% probability c\) the child may be homozygous 0 with the same probability as heterozygous 0 d\) both are universal blood donors e\) both are universal blood recipients f\) all offspring will have a blood group 0 with the 100% probability g\) depending on the genotype, their child may have a blood group 0 but not necessarily h\) the child will probably have a blood group A 197\. Allelic pair: a\) is represented in the sex cell b\) is formed by two alleles c\) may be formed by two dominant alleles d\) cannot be formed by two recessive alleles e\) can be formed by two recessive alleles f\) is identical with the genome g\) is inherited from one parent h\) contains one functional and one morphological allele 198\. Genes: a\) are located in DNA macromolecules b\) are found in a protein c\) are biochemical ground for a trait formation d\) are the molecular grounds of the traits e\) are embedded in cells in the ultrastructure of their chromosomes f\) are the basic building blocks of enzymes g\) with major effect encodes quantitative traits h\) are located in the cell nucleus 199\. Mutations that change the structure of chromosomes, but do not change the structure of genes or the number of chromosomes are called? a\) genome mutations b\) chromosome mutations c\) gene mutations d\) gene pool mutations e\) diploid mutations f\) haploid mutations g\) hypodiploid mutations h\) triploid mutations 200\. Induction of active defence against the infection in humans occurs after: a\) a pasteurization b\) an active immunization c\) a preventive vaccination d\) the administration of antibodies prepared in advance e\) a production of cytotoxic substances f\) the vaccination g\) a distillation h\) a passive immunization 201\. What do protozoa produce on their surface in unfavourable conditions? a\) a spore b\) a cyst c\) a capsid d\) a protective envelop e\) a cuticle f\) a parenchyma g\) a vacuole h\) a sheath 202\. Oncogenic viruses can cause: a\) an extension of the interphase of cell cycle b\) a viral inflammation of endocrine glands c\) an uncontrollable cell division d\) tuberculosis e\) cephalomeningitis f\) an infectious hepatitis g\) a controllable cell division h\) a development of malignant tumor 203\. Do protozoa have simple regulations? a\) yes, it is based on enzymes b\) it depends on environmental conditions c\) no, because they do not need a regulation d\) it is not known e\) yes, but only some of them f\) yes, all of them g\) yes, after the spore formation h\) yes, in the larval stage 204\. The female of Anopheles mosquito transmits etiological agent of: a\) black plague (black death) b\) malaria c\) trypanosomiasis d\) dysentery e\) cephalomeningitis f\) cholera g\) leprosy (Hansen\'s disease) h\) yellow fever 205\. Viruses consist of: a\) DNA and proteins b\) proteins, nucleic acids and lipids c\) RNA and proteins d\) saccharides and proteins e\) nucleic acids and proteins f\) nucleic acid and saccharides g\) only RNA and hormones h\) saccharides and lipids 206\. Antibodies in the blood are located in: a\) red blood cells b\) blood plasma c\) U-lymphocytes d\) thrombocytes e\) erythrocytes f\) macrophages g\) phagocytes h\) antigens 207\. What kind of bacteria do permanently live in the large intestine? a\) fermenting bacteria b\) *Escherichia coli* c\) putrid bacteria d\) non-pathogenic bacteria e\) phenol degrading bacteria f\) hydrogen sulphide degrading bacteria g\) hydrogen dioxide degrading bacteria h\) staphylococci and streptococci 208\. The antigen is: a\) a foreign substance produced by blood coagulation b\) a foreign substance that can evoke the immunity response in the organism c\) a structure from another organism that induces a specific immune response d\) a substance produced by an organism as a result of the immunity system reaction e\) a structure that, upon contact, evokes the transformation of B-lymphocyte to plasma cell and the production of specific antibodies f\) a structure that, upon contact, evokes the transformation of T-lymphocyte to plasma cell and the production of specific antibodies g\) a structure that, upon contact, evokes the transformation of T-lymphocyte to plasma cell and the production of cytotoxic compounds h\) foreign substance that stimulates the production of hormones in the adrenal gland 209\. Giardia intestinalis occurs in: a\) the large intestine b\) the stomach c\) the small intestine d\) the lymph nodes e\) a man f\) children g\) Rhizopoda h\) Sporozoa 210\. Hepatitis epidemica is: a\) epidemic inflammation of the brain b\) infectious inflammation of the liver c\) infectious inflammation of the spleen d\) term for the jaundice epidemic e\) term for measles f\) term for varicella g\) term for a heart attack h\) term for gallbladder colic 211\. Fleas transmit etiological agent of: a\) plague b\) malaria c\) spotted fever d\) African sleeping disease e\) dysentery f\) tuberculosis g\) hepatitis epidemica h\) influenza 212\. Viruses reproduce: a\) only in living cells b\) in dead cell c\) vegetatively d\) by parthenogenesis e\) by mitosis f\) by amitosis g\) only in metazoans h\) in the cells into which they penetrate 213\. Bacteria reproduce by: a\) binary fission b\) reduction division c\) budding d\) schizogony e\) asexual binary fission f\) mitosis g\) sexual binary fission h\) meiosis **214. Murein is:** a\) an animal starch b\) a peptidoglycan c\) a chemical compound that gives strength to the cell wall of prokaryotes d\) a mucin e\) a complicated chemical substance f\) a chemical compound that gives strength to the cell wall of fungi g\) an enzyme h\) a chemical compound that fixes the cell wall of viruses 215\. Streptococci: a\) form chains b\) form bands c\) form clusters d\) form spirals e\) have a spherical shape f\) have a rod shape g\) form cysts h\) are viruses 216\. T-lymphocytes are responsible for: a\) cellular immunity b\) antibody immunity c\) anti-shock immunity d\) humoral immunity e\) production of cytotoxic substances f\) production of immunoglobulins g\) production of agglutinogens h\) prophylaxis 217\. The thin layer on the surface of the single-celled organisms is called: a\) a pellicle b\) a phytomembrane c\) a cyst d\) a blastocyst e\) a cuticula f\) a tunicin g\) an epidermis h\) a cytoskeleton 218\. Viruses in a human can cause: a\) tuberculosis b\) measles c\) poliomyelitis d\) varicella e\) hepatitis A f\) parotitis g\) plague h\) influenza 219\. Which cells are responsible for the active immunization? a\) N-lymphocytes b\) memory cells c\) granulocytes d\) activated B-lymphocytes e\) plasmatic cells f\) phagocytes g\) erythrocytes h\) thrombocytes 220\. Bacteria can be found: a\) in the air b\) in the soil c\) on the surface of organisms d\) in the blood of a healthy human e\) in bacteriophages f\) in the human large intestine g\) in the stomach of Haemosporidia h\) in the food vacuole of Infusoria 221\. Immunoglobulins are: a\) products of T-lymphocytes b\) special proteins, also called antibodies c\) products of B-lymphocytes d\) cytotoxic substances e\) specific antibodies f\) products of antigens g\) special antigens in immunization h\) phagocytosis capable cells 222\. According to origin and function we distinguish: a\) A-lymphocytes b\) B-lymphocytes c\) T-lymphocytes d\) E-lymphocytes e\) macrophages f\) phagocytes g\) G-lymphocytes h\) thrombocytes 223\. The vaccination is based on the: a\) response of the specific immunity b\) chemical composition of the vaccine c\) activity of thrombocytes d\) antibody response of the organism e\) induction of active immunization f\) induction of passive immunization g\) insertion of inactivated or attenuated germs which induce an immune reaction h\) insertion of active germs which induce passive immunization 224\. Is the nucleoid of prokaryotic cells bounded by biomembranes? a\) no, it is not b\) yes, it is c\) yes, sometimes d\) it depends on the environmental conditions e\) yes, in the spores f\) yes, in anaerobic bacteria g\) yes, but in the later stages the biomembranes disappear h\) yes, in photosynthetic bacteria 225\. Staphylococci: a\) form chains b\) form pairs c\) form grape-like clusters d\) form spirals e\) have a spherical form f\) are rod-shaped g\) form the cysts h\) are viruses 226\. The bacteriophage is: a\) a kind of phagocyte b\) a kind of bacterium c\) a kind of virus d\) a kind of leukocyte e\) a kind of enzyme f\) a virus that affects bacteria g\) a bacterium absorbing other bacteria h\) the part of natural immunity 227\. Erythrocyte antigens are: a\) called agglutinins b\) called erythrogenes c\) called agglutinogens d\) called immunoglobulins e\) are responsible for blood groups in a man f\) might cause isohaemagglutination g\) hereditary h\) not hereditary 228\. Direct administration of complete antibodies to the organism is called: a\) the active immunization b\) the passive immunization c\) the direct immune reaction d\) the vaccination e\) the production of memory cells f\) the indirect immune reaction g\) the pasteurization h\) the sensitization 229\. Virus protective shell composed of proteins is called: a\) a capsomere b\) a protein c\) a proteinic bag d\) a capsid e\) a cyst f\) a spore g\) a murein h\) a peptidoglycan 230\. The specific cellular immunity is mediated by: a\) B-lymphocytes b\) T-lymphocytes c\) thrombocytes d\) erythrocytes e\) lymphocytes producing cytotoxic substances f\) lymphocytes producing specific antibodies g\) macrophages h\) phagocytes 231\. The spore of bacterium differs from the parent cell by: a\) the shape b\) the composition of a cell wall c\) the different water contents d\) the sensitivity to environmental factors e\) the number of chromosomes f\) the activity of metabolism g\) the presence of microtubules of spindle fibers h\) the taxonomic classification 232\. Which statement about AIDS is true: a\) it is the final and most serious stage of HIV infection b\) small scratches are enough for the infection c\) risk groups are drug users, patients treated by frequent blood transfusions and homosexuals d\) it is not transmissible through the sexual intercourse e\) the cause of the patient\'s death is, e.g. inflammatory diseases caused by parasites, fungi, yeasts and some viruses f\) development of a malignant tumour is frequent in patients with AIDS g\) it occurs only in Africa and Asia h\) risk groups are not drug users, patients cured by frequent blood transfusions and homosexuals 233\. Viruses are: a\) intracellular parasites of the other organisms b\) sorted according to the type of the cells, in which they parasite c\) sorted according to the type of nucleic acid d\) intracellular parasites of bacteria, plants and animals e\) extracellular parasites of the other organisms f\) sorted according to the type of the viruses, in which they parasite g\) intracellular parasites of plants, viruses and bacteria h\) sorted according to the type of mitosis 234\. Influenza is: a\) an infectious disease caused by an influenza virus b\) affecting only humans c\) a respiratory illness caused by a virus d\) caused by a protozoan e\) an infectious disease caused by an influenza bacterium f\) caused by bacteria g\) highly contagious h\) a respiratory illness caused by a bacterium 235\. Syphilis: a\) is caused by the bacterium *Treponema pallidum* b\) may be transmitted from the mother to her baby during pregnancy c\) is caused by *Trichinella spiralis* d\) is caused by the virus *Treponema pallidum* e\) is caused by the bacterium *Trichomonas vaginalis* f\) is caused by the bacterium *Trichomonas pallidum* g\) is caused by viruses h\) is a sexually transmitted infection 236\. Sexually transmitted infectious diseases are: a\) flu b\) syphilis c\) pneumonia d\) gonorrhoea e\) icterus f\) chickenpox g\) rubella h\) chancroid 237\. Varicella: a\) is a highly contagious disease caused by the initial infection with varicella-zoster virus b\) is caused by a bacterium c\) does not occur in humans d\) is also known as chickenpox e\) occurs only in chicken f\) results in a characteristic skin rash g\) is caused by the trichinella virus h\) is an airborne disease 238\. Hepatitis viruses are: a\) hepatitis A virus b\) hepatitis H virus c\) hepatitis E virus d\) hepatitis Z virus e\) hepatitis B virus f\) hepatitis C virus g\) hepatitis D virus h\) hepatitis F virus 239\. Which statement about HIV is not true? a\) it causes genital warts b\) it contains RNA c\) it contains reverse transcriptase to convert DNA into RNA d\) it occurs only in Africa e\) it causes AIDS f\) AIDS does not belong to air transmitted diseases g\) it does not affect the immune system h\) the virus is spread worldwide 240\. HPV virus: a\) is DNA virus b\) is RNA virus c\) is transmitted by air d\) is transmitted by sexual intercourse e\) causes AIDS f\) can cause cervical cancer g\) affects only women h\) there is no vaccination against HPV 241\. Hepatitis A: a\) is an autoimmune disease b\) is an inflammatory disease of the immune system c\) is an infectious disease of the liver caused by the virus d\) hepatitis A vaccine is not effective e\) poor hygiene cannot cause hepatitis A f\) raw seafood can cause hepatitis A g\) affects only children h\) affects humans 242\. Hepatitis B: a\) hepatitis B virus causes only chronic liver disease b\) infection can be acute or chronic c\) is caused by parasites d\) vaccination is a form of prevention e\) drug abusers are not at the higher risk of this infection f\) virus can be transmitted by blood, body fluids or air g\) affects men, women, and children h\) presence of the specific antibodies in serum serves as a diagnostic method 243\. Hepatitis C: a\) is not an infectious disease b\) is an infectious disease acquired by enteral transmission c\) is an infectious disease acquired by parenteral transmission d\) is not caused by hepatitis B virus e\) the liver is the main affected organ f\) can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusion g\) can cause chronic damage to the liver h\) does not have an acute form of the disease 244\. HPV: a\) affects only men b\) affects only women c\) HPV infection belongs to sexually transmitted diseases d\) HPV is an abbreviation for human pappilodermis virus e\) belongs to the group of DNA viruses f\) the most common types of HPV infection can be prevented by vaccination g\) can be spread from a mother to her child during pregnancy h\) cannot be spread from a mother to her child during pregnancy 245\. Which structures allow black and white vision during the twilight? a\) rod cells b\) Purkyne cells c\) cone cells d\) neurites e\) rod cells and cone cells f\) cells of the macula lutea g\) dendrites of the cone cells h\) cells of the photosensitive spot 246\. Plasma proteins are formed mainly in: a\) the small intestine b\) the cytoplasm of the blood cells c\) the liver d\) the bone marrow e\) the spleen f\) the largest endocrine gland g\) the organ that also produces bile h\) the blood plasma 247\. Complex inborn reactions of the organism are: a\) emotions b\) instincts c\) conditioned reflexes d\) memory tracks e\) inbreeding f\) panmixy g\) ethics h\) aesthetics **\ ** **248. What happens during the spread of the impulse in the nerve fibre?** a\) the NaCl concentration in the nerve fibre changes b\) potassium salts move towards the cell nucleus c\) Na+ ions are moving through the neuron membrane d\) K+ ions are moving through the neuron membrane e\) the permeability of the membrane changes for the K+ and Na+ ions f\) the concentration in the nerve fibre changes g\) the nerve fibre dilates h\) an action potential 249\. The neuron is composed of: a\) a nucleoid b\) an acrosome c\) an axon d\) genophore e\) dendrites f\) glair g\) the caecum h\) crop 250\. Motor nerve fibres terminate in: a\) the smooth muscle in the inner organs´ wall b\) the vascular muscle c\) the skeletal muscles d\) the glands with internal and external secretion e\) the middle of the muscle fibre in the simple synapse f\) the middle of the muscle fibre in the neuromuscular junction g\) the smooth muscles h\) the striated muscles 251\. According to a stimulus origin, receptors can be divided into: a\) chemoreceptors b\) radioreceptors c\) interoreceptors d\) mechanoreceptors e\) exteroreceptors f\) membrane receptors g\) mezoreceptors h\) mixoreceptors 252\. Endocrine glands exclude secretions: a\) into the inner environment of the organism b\) into the gland terminals c\) into organs d\) from the organism e\) into the sweat glands f\) into the bladder g\) into the blood h\) into the lumen of the small intestine 253\. What is the body\'s response to a change in hormone levels like? a\) it is immediate b\) it is not immediate c\) it is permanent d\) it is the same as for the nerve regulation e\) it is faster than in the nerve regulation f\) it is slower than in the nerve regulation g\) it is long-term and uniform h\) gradually decreases as hormones are metabolized 254\. What function do the testicles have? a\) to produce estrogens b\) to produce male germ cells c\) to produce testosterone d\) to produce progesterone e\) to heat the blood f\) sperms are formed there g\) mixed, they produce gametes and hormones h\) cyclical, from birth to an old age 255\. Defensive reflexes of the respiratory system are: a\) coughing b\) sneezing c\) vomiting d\) coughing and sneezing e\) winking f\) diarrhoea g\) defection reflex h\) perspiration 256\. A defensive reflex of the digestive system: a\) is vomiting b\) is sneezing c\) may be caused by the irritation of the stomach d\) is winking e\) can be caused by the irritation of the digestive tract f\) occurs in monocytes g\) sternutation h\) are coughing and sneezing 257\. Irritation of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi provokes: a\) cold b\) sneezing c\) coughing d\) defensive reflexes of the respiratory system e\) vomiting f\) alcohol fermentation in the lungs g\) deafness h\) blindness 258\. Hormones: a\) are usually amino acids b\) are often proteins c\) some are steroids d\) are usually polysaccharides e\) some are arenes f\) are not the source of energy g\) are not the building blocks of the body h\) are the source of energy 259\. The form of the signal on which the receptor is sensitive the most is called: a\) the reasonable stimulus b\) the adequate stimulus c\) the energetic stimulus d\) the impulse e\) the reflex f\) attenuation g\) the maximal stimulus h\) the optimal stimulus 260\. Are vitamins the source of energy? a\) they are not the source of energy b\) only in case of starving of the organism c\) yes d\) it depends on food quality e\) fat-soluble are the source of energy f\) water-soluble they are the source of energy g\) fat-soluble are not the source of energy h\) water-soluble are not the source of energy 261\. What is the function of capillaries? a\) nutrient exchange takes place there b\) they balance the blood pressure in the body c\) the passage of dissolved nutrients from the blood into intercellular spaces takes place there d\) the exchange of breathing gases takes place there e\) the exchange of O~2~ and CO~2~ takes place there f\) dust particles are trapped there g\) red blood cell production takes place there h\) plasma protein production occurs there 262\. The metabolism is controlled by: a\) hormones only b\) hormones c\) nerves only d\) the inner environment e\) nerves f\) the metabolism g\) hormones and nerves h\) the external temperature 263\. The myocardium is: a\) regulated from its headquarters and works as a whole b\) formed by smooth muscles c\) an involuntary, striated muscle d\) a muscle similar to the muscle of the vessel wall e\) controlled by autonomic nerves f\) controlled by vegetative nerves g\) structurally similar to smooth muscle and functionally to skeletal muscle h\) structurally similar to skeletal muscle and functionally to smooth muscle 264\. Excitement at the synapse is transmitted through: a\) glucagons b\) acetylcholine c\) noradrenalin d\) progesterone e\) insulin f\) adrenaline g\) mediators h\) glucose 265\. The small intestine\'s mucosal surface is enlarged by: a\) the length of the organ b\) villi c\) protuberances d\) microvilli e\) microorganisms f\) by penetrating body fluids g\) secretory cells h\) bacteria 266\. The liver is responsible for: a\) water filtering b\) dust trapping c\) leukocytes production d\) the production of plasmatic proteins e\) the glucagon production f\) the production of erythrocytes g\) the insulin production h\) the white blood cell trapping 267\. Skeletal muscles: a\) are formed after birth b\) are responsible for the movement of the organism c\) are typical smooth muscles d\) occurs only in reptilia e\) do not occur in humans f\) are formed by nervous fibres g\) occur in inner organs h\) contain a high amount of maltose 268\. The conditioned reflex arises: a\) by the effect of two stimuli, one of which is biologically significant for the organism b\) by the effect of two indifferent stimuli c\) by the action of a single biologically significant stimulus d\) by the action of two biologically significant stimuli e\) by the action of two inadequate stimuli f\) as a temporary connection between areas activated by two stimuli g\) after birth h\) during fertilization 269\. The pancreas: a\) produces insulin b\) is responsible for bilirubin trapping c\) produces HCl d\) produce thyroxin e\) is located in the abdominal cavity f\) produce glucagon g\) is located in the cranial part of the human body h\) does not occur in humans 270\. The excretion of the parathyroid hormone is affected by: a\) the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys b\) the calcium level in extracellular fluid c\) the blood calcium level d\) the pituitary function e\) plasma levels of calcium f\) the thyroid activity g\) the parathyroid activity h\) the pancreatic activity 271\. Which of these glands is not a true gland with the internal secretion: a\) neurohypophysis b\) parathyroid gland c\) adenohypophysis d\) the thyroid gland e\) the posterior pituitary lobe f\) the anterior pituitary lobe g\) the middle pituitary lobe h\) the adrenal cortex 272\. Which substances does amylase break down: a\) proteins b\) fats c\) starch d\) polysaccharides e\) nucleic acids f\) lipids g\) nucleotides h\) polypeptides 273\. Where does the external breathing of mammals occur? a\) in the lungs b\) in the skin c\) on the surface of the body d\) on the outer surface of tissues e\) in the nasal cavity f\) in the larynx g\) in tissues h\) in the heart 274\. Unconditioned reflexes are: a\) congenital b\) permanent in number c\) species-specific d\) acquired during the life of the individual e\) individual f\) species non-specific g\) dependent on a subject\'s blood group h\) obtained after the death of the individual 275\. Homeostasis is: a\) the stability of the external environment b\) the instability of the internal environment c\) the influence of the external factors on the organism d\) the stability of the internal environment e\) the variability of the external environment f\) the maintenance of a balanced state g\) the similarity of two members of different species h\) the adaptability of the organism to changes in the external environment 276\. The infant\'s period in humans: a\) is characterized by intense growth b\) is characterized by locomotor and psychological development c\) ends at 2 years d\) ends at 1 year e\) the sucking reflex is present f\) puts great demands on a proper diet g\) is also called the toddler period h\) is characterized by the child beginning to walk 277\. Release of a human egg from Graafian follicle and its migration into the fallopian tube occurs: a\) on the 8th to 10th day of the menstrual cycle b\) on the 12th to 14th day of the menstrual cycle c\) on the 17th to 19th day of the menstrual cycle d\) on the 24th to 28th day of the menstrual cycle e\) in the proliferation phase f\) in the follicular phase g\) in the ovulation phase h\) in the menstrual phase 278\. What is true about red blood cells in humans? a\) there are about 5 x 10^12^ in one litre of blood in men b\) there are about 7 x 10^12^ in one litre of blood in men c\) there are about 3 x 10^12^ in one litre of blood in women d\) there are about 4.3 x 10^12^ in one litre of blood in women e\) they contain approximately 170 g of haemoglobin in one litre of blood of a woman f\) they contain approximately 140 g of haemoglobin in one litre of blood of a woman g\) they contain approximately 150 g of haemoglobin in one litre of blood of a woman h\) they contain approximately 180 g of haemoglobin in one litre of blood of a woman 279\. What does the accommodative muscle enable? a\) the pupil reflex b\) arching of the iris c\) arching of the eye lens d\) the eye movement e\) adapting the optical system of the eye to a different distance f\) the possibility of the sharp vision of objects with healthy eyes g\) astigmatism h\) increased elasticity of the lens in the old age 280\. Pepsin is secreted in humans as: a\) an active pepsinogen b\) an active enzyme c\) an inactive pepsinogen d\) a pepsinogen into the strongly acidic environment of the stomach e\) a pepsinogen to the strongly alkaline environment of the stomach f\) an inactive trypsinogen g\) a trypsinogen into the strongly acidic environment of the stomach h\) a trypsinogen into the strongly alkaline environment of the stomach 281\. Smooth muscles are controlled by: a\) motor nerves b\) autonomic nerves c\) will d\) the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system e\) some hormones f\) nerves g\) the sympathetic nervous system h\) the parasympathetic nervous system 282\. Which of the joints of the human body is the most complex and one of the most burdened? a\) ankle b\) the knee joint c\) the shoulder joint d\) the hip joint e\) the joint between the humerus and the shoulder blade f\) the joint between the femur and the tibia g\) the joint between the femur and the pelvis h\) the connection of the tibia, fibula, and tarsal bones 283\. How many muscles does a human have? a\) 100 b\) 400 c\) 600 d\) 950 e\) 590 f\) 200 g\) 300 h\) 500 284\. The midbrain of a human is the centre of: a\) conditioned auditory reflexes b\) unconditioned visual and auditory reflexes c\) conditioned visual reflexes d\) reticular formation e\) coordinating stomach movements in response to respective stimuli f\) coordinating eye movements in response to respective stimuli g\) coordinating head position changes in response to respective stimuli h\) coordinating whole body movements in response to respective stimuli 285\. The human cerebellum participates in the: a\) coordination of motion functions b\) control of muscle tension c\) regulation of the internal organs\' functions d\) control of involuntary movements e\) control of voluntary movements f\) coordination of metabolism g\) maintenance of the body\'s upright position h\) control of movement fluency 286\. Which of the most important voluntary sphincters belong to the muscles of the pelvis? a\) only the internal sphincter of the urethra b\) only the external anal sphincter c\) both the external and internal sphincters of the urethra d\) the external sphincter of the urethra e\) the external anal sphincter f\) the serratus anterior muscle g\) he tensor fasciae latae muscle h\) the inguinal canal 287\. From the functional point of view, head muscles include the: a\) mimic muscles that move the mandible b\) muscles of the soft palate that move the eyelids c\) oral sphincters that move the mandible d\) chewing muscles that move the mandible e\) mimic muscles that move the skin f\) mimic muscles that create facial expressions g\) muscles of the pharynx, important for breathing and phonation h\) muscles of the larynx, important for breathing and phonation 288\. What is the basic functional unit of the nervous system? a\) excitement b\) stress c\) reflex d\) attenuation e\) response to a stimulus mediated by the reflex arc f\) instinct-mediated response to a stimulus g\) an adequate stimulus h\) effector 289\. What is the most complex feature of higher nervous activity? a\) learning b\) reflex c\) memory d\) instinct e\) the conditioned reflex f\) the unconditioned reflex g\) the innate reflex h\) aggressiveness 290\. The skeleton of the lower limb includes the: a\) the radius b\) the thigh bone c\) the tibia d\) the pelvis e\) the fibula f\) the patella g\) the collar bone h\) the sacrum 291\. Insulin: a\) increases the use of glucose in tissues b\) increases the storage of glycogen in the liver c\) increases the storage of glycogen in muscles d\) reduces the level of glucose in the blood e\) reduces the use of glucose in tissues f\) influences the transport of glucose into cells g\) decreases the transport of glucose into cells h\) its deficiency causes the development of diabetes **292. The control centre for breathing is in:** a\) the spinal cord b\) the cerebellum c\) the medulla oblongata d\) the midbrain e\) the lungs f\) the left hemisphere of the frontal brain g\) the right hemisphere of the frontal brain h\) the trachea 293\. The respiratory system of humans includes: a\) the airways b\) the nasal cavity c\) the windpipe d\) thepharynx e\) the oesophagus f\) the lungs g\) the larynx h\) the bronchi 294\. Vitamin C: a\) is important for maintaining the proper bone health b\) is important for the formation of atherosclerosis c\) is important for maintaining proper dentin health d\) is important for maintaining proper cartilage health e\) is important for collagen synthesis f\) reduces the body\'s resistance to infectious diseases g\) increases the body\'s immunity against infectious diseases h\) is important for atherosclerosis prevention 295\. What is the other name for vitamin B~6~? a\) thiamine (aneurine) b\) pantothenic acid c\) pyridoxine d\) vitamin K e\) retinol f\) axerophthol g\) parathormonic acid h\) aneurine 296\. The sucking reflex: a\) is congenital b\) is defensive c\) is obtained d\) is lost in the new-born period e\) is present in the infant\'s period f\) belongs to unconditional reflexes g\) belongs to conditional reflexes h\) belongs to acquired reflexes 297\. The adult human erythrocytes are formed in: a\) the spleen b\) muscles c\) the periosteum of long bones d\) the bone marrow of short bones e\) the bone marrow of flat bones f\) kidneys g\) the liver h\) lymph nodes 298\. What does the Graafian follicle do after release of an egg? a\) changes to the yellow body b\) changes to the corpus luteum c\) changes to the morula d\) enters the proliferation phase e\) gets into the follicular phase f\) begins to produce adrenaline in the luteal phase g\) begins to produce progesterone in the luteal phase h\) begins to produce gestagens in the secretion phase 299\. What is the blind spot? a\) an area where the optic nerve enters the eye and where many photosensitive cells are present b\) a site where the optic nerve enters the eye and only cone cells are present c\) a site where the optic nerve and blood vessels enter the eye d\) a site where only rod cells are found e\) the central fovea of the retina f\) a site of rod cell accumulation/concentration g\) a site of cone cell accumulation/concentration h\) a site on the retina with no photosensitive cells 300\. The spot of the sharpest vision is: a\) the yellow spot b\) the central fovea of the retina c\) the area with the accumulation of rod cells d\) the blind spot e\) a site of accumulation of rod cells in the retina f\) a site of accumulation of cone cells in the retina g\) a site of accumulation of rod cells in the cornea h\) a site of accumulation of cone cells in the cornea 301\. Bone articulation: a\) is a connection of bones b\) is lined with the periosteum c\) has contact surfaces lined with cartilage d\) has contact surfaces lined with bone tissue e\) has a joint capsule reinforced by ligaments f\) has synovial fluid inside the joint g\) contains fluid that nourishes the cartilage h\) is usually formed by the fossa and the head 302\. Urine formation begins in: a\) collection channels b\) urinary bladder c\) renal body d\) ureter e\) glomerule and the Bowman\'s c