Embryo Anatomy Quiz PDF

Q1. Which of the following is the correct definition of the fetal period? a\) The first 2 weeks after fertilization b\) From the 3rd week to the 8th week of gestation c\) From the 9th week to birth d\) The period from implantation to birth Answer: c) From the 9th week to birth Q2. Which term r...

Q1. Which of the following is the correct definition of the fetal period? a\) The first 2 weeks after fertilization b\) From the 3rd week to the 8th week of gestation c\) From the 9th week to birth d\) The period from implantation to birth Answer: c) From the 9th week to birth Q2. Which term refers to the positioning of the fetus with the head down in the uterus? a\) Cephalic presentation b\) Breech presentation c\) Transverse presentation d\) Longitudinal presentation Answer: a) Cephalic presentation Q3. The first trimester of pregnancy spans which weeks? a\) Weeks 1 to 8 b\) Weeks 1 to 12 c\) Weeks 13 to 24 d\) Weeks 25 to 40 Answer: b) Weeks 1 to 12 Q4. Which of the following structures develops from the mesonephric ducts in males? a\) Urethra b\) Vas deferens c\) Uterus d\) Ovaries Answer: b) Vas deferens Q5. In females, the Mullerian ducts develop into which of the following structures? a\) Epididymis b\) Uterus c\) Penis d\) Seminal vesicles Answer: b) Uterus Q6. Which part of the male reproductive system is responsible for the production of sperm? a\) Seminal vesicles b\) Testes c\) Prostate gland d\) Bulbourethral glands Answer: b) Testes Q7. What is the primary purpose of meiosis in human reproduction? a\) To produce identical cells for growth b\) To reduce the chromosome number by half for gamete formation c\) To repair damaged DNA d\) To produce genetically identical gametes Answer: b) To reduce the chromosome number by half for gamete formation Q8. Which of the following is NOT a phase of meiosis? a\) Prophase b\) Metaphase c\) Telophase d\) Interphase Answer: d) Interphase Q9. During which phase of meiosis does crossing-over occur? a\) Prophase I b\) Metaphase II c\) Anaphase I d\) Telophase I Answer: a) Prophase I Q10. At what stage of meiosis does a secondary oocyte arrest until fertilization? a\) Metaphase I b\) Prophase II c\) Metaphase II d\) Anaphase II Answer: c) Metaphase II Q11. How many chromosomes does each gamete (sperm or oocyte) contain after meiosis? a\) 23 chromosomes b\) 46 chromosomes c\) 92 chromosomes d\) 46 pairs of chromosomes Answer: a) 23 chromosomes Q12. The first step of fertilization is: a\) The sperm penetrates the egg's cytoplasm b\) The sperm undergoes the acrosomal reaction c\) The fertilized egg begins mitosis d\) The zygote implants in the uterine lining Answer: b) The sperm undergoes the acrosomal reaction Q13. In response to fertilization, which of the following occurs in the uterus? a\) The endometrial lining sheds b\) The uterine mucosa thickens c\) Menstruation begins d\) The cervix dilates Answer: b) The uterine mucosa thickens Q14. Which structure forms during the second week of embryonic development? a\) Neural tube b\) Primitive streak c\) Amniotic cavity d\) Heart Answer: c) Amniotic cavity Q15. The syncytiotrophoblast is responsible for: a\) Formation of the umbilical cord b\) Secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) c\) Differentiation into the mesoderm d\) Formation of the blastocyst Answer: b) Secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Q16. Gastrulation leads to the formation of which primary germ layers? a\) Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm b\) Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Periderm c\) Mesoderm, Endoderm, Epiblast d\) Neural crest, Mesoderm, Epiblast Answer: a) Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm Q17. Neurulation refers to the formation of which structure? a\) Heart b\) Neural tube c\) Limb buds d\) Placenta Answer: b) Neural tube Q18. During which week does the primitive heart begin to beat in an embryo? a\) Week 2 b\) Week 3 c\) Week 4 d\) Week 5 Answer: b) Week 3 Q19. In which week does the first sign of limb formation occur? a\) Week 3 b\) Week 4 c\) Week 5 d\) Week 6 Answer: b) Week 4 Q20. The fetal period begins in which week of pregnancy? a\) Week 8 b\) Week 9 c\) Week 10 d\) Week 12 Answer: b) Week 9 Q21. During the second trimester, which of the following occurs? a\) Formation of the neural tube b\) Rapid weight gain and fat deposition c\) Development of heart chambers d\) Formation of the placenta Answer: b) Rapid weight gain and fat deposition 10\. Fetal Membranes and Placenta Q22. Which of the following is NOT a fetal membrane? a\) Amnion b\) Chorion c\) Allantois d\) Placenta Answer: d) Placenta Q23. The placental barrier is made up of which of the following layers? a\) Maternal epithelium and fetal epithelium b\) Maternal blood vessels and fetal blood vessels c\) Syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast d\) Amniotic fluid and endometrial tissue Answer: c) Syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast Q24. Which of the following is a known teratogen associated with the development of cleft palate? a\) Rubella virus b\) Alcohol c\) Thalidomide d\) Radiation Answer: b) Alcohol Q25. Genetic mutations in which gene are commonly associated with neural tube defects? a\) PAX6 b\) Sonic hedgehog (SHH) c\) FGFR3 d\) TBX5 Answer: b) Sonic hedgehog (SHH) Q26. Which of the following diagnostic tests involves the sampling of cells from the placenta for genetic analysis? a\) Ultrasound b\) Amniocentesis c\) Chorionic villus sampling d\) Maternal blood test Answer: c) Chorionic villus sampling Q27. Which of the following is the primary purpose of an ultrasound during pregnancy? a\) To detect genetic abnormalities b\) To assess fetal size and development c\) To measure amniotic fluid levels d\) To assess the mother's hormone levels Answer: b) To assess fetal size and development Q28. A 30-year-old woman is 12 weeks pregnant and presents for her first prenatal visit. She mentions that her previous pregnancy ended in miscarriage during the first trimester. She requests genetic testing. What is the most appropriate diagnostic method for detecting chromosomal abnormalities at this stage? a\) Amniocentesis b\) Ultrasound c\) Chorionic villus sampling d\) Maternal serum screening Answer: c) Chorionic villus sampling Q29. A 35-year-old woman is in her second trimester and undergoes an ultrasound, revealing a neural tube defect. Which of the following genetic abnormalities is most commonly associated with neural tube defects? a\) Down syndrome b\) Turner syndrome c\) Folate deficiency d\) Cystic fibrosis Answer: c) Folate deficiency Q30. During the embryonic period, the development of which of the following structures is most sensitive to teratogens? a\) Brain b\) Heart c\) Lungs d\) Kidneys Answer: b) Heart Q31. At which stage of development is the embryo referred to as a blastocyst? a\) At fertilization b\) At implantation c\) At the start of the second week d\) At the end of the third week Answer: b) At implantation Q32. In the male reproductive system, which structure forms from the remnants of the Mullerian ducts? a\) Prostate b\) Seminal vesicles c\) Epididymis d\) Urethra Answer: c) Epididymis Q33. The Leydig cells in the testes produce which of the following hormones during fetal development? a\) Progesterone b\) Testosterone c\) Estrogen d\) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Answer: b) Testosterone Q34. Which of the following statements is true about the difference between mitosis and meiosis? a\) Mitosis results in two genetically identical cells, while meiosis results in four genetically different cells. b\) Mitosis occurs only in gametes, while meiosis occurs in somatic cells. c\) Meiosis involves one round of cell division, while mitosis involves two. d\) Mitosis results in the reduction of chromosome number, while meiosis maintains it. Answer: a) Mitosis results in two genetically identical cells, while meiosis results in four genetically different cells. Q35. What is the significance of anaphase I in meiosis? a\) Homologous chromosomes are separated b\) Sister chromatids are separated c\) The nuclear envelope reforms d\) Crossing-over occurs Answer: a) Homologous chromosomes are separated Q36. What is the result of spermatogenesis in terms of the number of functional gametes produced? a\) One functional sperm and three polar bodies b\) Four functional sperm c\) One functional sperm and two polar bodies d\) One functional oocyte and three polar bodies Answer: b) Four functional sperm Q37. The primary oocyte in females arrests at which stage of meiosis before puberty? a\) Metaphase I b\) Prophase I c\) Anaphase I d\) Telophase I Answer: b) Prophase I Q38. The acrosomal reaction during fertilization allows the sperm to: a\) Penetrate the zona pellucida b\) Fuse with the egg\'s plasma membrane c\) Complete meiosis d\) Activate the egg Answer: a) Penetrate the zona pellucida Q39. Following fertilization, the zygote undergoes cleavage. What is the outcome of this process? a\) Formation of a blastocyst b\) Formation of a neural tube c\) Formation of a trophoblast d\) Formation of mesoderm Answer: a) Formation of a blastocyst Q40. The bilaminar disc consists of which two layers? a\) Epiblast and mesoderm b\) Epiblast and hypoblast c\) Mesoderm and endoderm d\) Endoderm and ectoderm Answer: b) Epiblast and hypoblast Q41. The trophoblast differentiates into which two layers during the second week of development? a\) Inner cytotrophoblast and outer syncytiotrophoblast b\) Mesoderm and ectoderm c\) Epiblast and hypoblast d\) Endoderm and ectoderm Answer: a) Inner cytotrophoblast and outer syncytiotrophoblast Q42. In gastrulation, the primitive streak is important for the formation of which of the following? a\) Neural tube b\) Ectoderm c\) Mesoderm d\) Endoderm Answer: c) Mesoderm Q43. The notochord, which plays a key role in inducing neural development, is derived from which germ layer? a\) Ectoderm b\) Mesoderm c\) Endoderm d\) Extra-embryonic mesoderm Answer: b) Mesoderm Q44. By the end of the fourth week of development, the embryonic heart: a\) Is completely formed b\) Begins beating c\) Begins forming blood vessels d\) Is incapable of circulating blood Answer: b) Begins beating Q45. During the fourth week of embryonic development, the somites are responsible for the development of: a\) Vertebrae and skeletal muscles b\) Limb buds c\) Heart and blood vessels d\) Brain and spinal cord Answer: a) Vertebrae and skeletal muscles Q46. In the fetal period, the brain undergoes significant development, which begins at which point? a\) Week 4 b\) Week 5 c\) Week 6 d\) Week 9 Answer: d) Week 9 Q47. By the end of the second trimester, which organ system is functioning well enough to support life outside the womb? a\) Digestive system b\) Respiratory system c\) Circulatory system d\) Excretory system Answer: b) Respiratory system Q48. The amniotic fluid is produced primarily by: a\) Maternal blood b\) Fetal kidneys c\) Fetal lungs d\) The placenta Answer: b) Fetal kidneys Q49. The chorionic villi are important in: a\) Secreting hCG b\) Forming the placenta c\) Providing nutrients to the embryo d\) Differentiating the mesoderm Answer: b) Forming the placenta Q50. A pregnant woman is exposed to high doses of radiation during her first trimester. Which of the following malformations is most likely to occur? a\) Neural tube defects b\) Cardiac malformations c\) Limb defects d\) Cleft lip and palate Answer: a) Neural tube defects Q51. A mutation in the FGF8 gene can result in which of the following congenital malformations? a\) Craniofacial defects b\) Limb malformations c\) Heart defects d\) Neural tube defects Answer: b) Limb malformations Q52. Amniocentesis is typically performed during which week of pregnancy? a\) Week 8-10 b\) Week 12-14 c\) Week 15-20 d\) Week 25-30 Answer: c) Week 15-20 Q53. Which of the following antenatal diagnostic techniques is non-invasive and used to detect fetal abnormalities by analyzing fetal DNA in maternal blood? a\) Amniocentesis b\) Chorionic villus sampling c\) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) d\) Ultrasound Answer: c) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) Q54. A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her first prenatal visit at 18 weeks of gestation. She requests genetic testing for Down syndrome. What is the most appropriate non-invasive screening test for her at this stage? a\) Amniocentesis b\) Chorionic villus sampling c\) Ultrasound and serum screening d\) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) Answer: c) Ultrasound and serum screening Q55. A 34-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents with concerns about her risk for having a child with a genetic disorder. She has a family history of cystic fibrosis. Which antenatal diagnostic technique would be most appropriate for assessing this risk? a\) Ultrasound b\) Amniocentesis c\) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) d\) Carrier screening for cystic fibrosis Answer: d) Carrier screening for cystic fibrosis Q56. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the fetal period? a\) Formation of primary germ layers b\) Organogenesis c\) Growth and maturation of organs d\) Gastrulation Answer: c) Growth and maturation of organs Q57. The transition from the embryonic to fetal period occurs at: a\) 8 weeks b\) 12 weeks c\) 16 weeks d\) 20 weeks Answer: a) 8 weeks Q58. The Mullerian ducts in females give rise to which of the following structures? a\) Uterus b\) Prostate c\) Seminal vesicles d\) Epididymis Answer: a) Uterus Q59. The Wolffian ducts in males give rise to: a\) Uterus and fallopian tubes b\) Prostate and seminal vesicles c\) Epididymis and vas deferens d\) Vagina and cervix Answer: c) Epididymis and vas deferens Q60. Which of the following is the main difference between anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis? a\) In mitosis, sister chromatids are separated, while in meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated. b\) In meiosis I, sister chromatids are separated, while in mitosis, homologous chromosomes are separated. c\) In mitosis, homologous chromosomes are separated, while in meiosis I, sister chromatids are separated. d\) In meiosis I, only one chromosome pair separates, whereas in mitosis, all chromosomes separate. Answer: a) In mitosis, sister chromatids are separated, while in meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated. Q61. Which of the following phases in meiosis is characterized by crossing-over between homologous chromosomes? a\) Prophase I b\) Metaphase I c\) Anaphase II d\) Telophase II Answer: a) Prophase I Q62. During oogenesis, the secondary oocyte is arrested in which stage of meiosis before fertilization? a\) Metaphase I b\) Anaphase I c\) Metaphase II d\) Telophase II Answer: c) Metaphase II Q63. Spermatogenesis results in the production of how many functional sperm cells from one primary spermatocyte? a\) Two b\) Four c\) One d\) Eight Answer: b) Four Q64. Which of the following is the first event that occurs after fertilization? a\) Activation of egg metabolism b\) Zygote cleavage c\) Formation of the blastocyst d\) Blastocyst implantation Answer: a) Activation of egg metabolism Q65. During implantation, the blastocyst attaches to the endometrial lining through which layer? a\) Epiblast b\) Hypoblast c\) Syncytiotrophoblast d\) Cytotrophoblast Answer: c) Syncytiotrophoblast Q66. The extra-embryonic mesoderm contributes to the formation of which structure during the second week? a\) Amniotic sac b\) Placenta c\) Neural tube d\) Somites Answer: b) Placenta Q67. Which of the following structures forms from the epiblast during the second week of development? a\) Amniotic cavity b\) Yolk sac c\) Trophoblast d\) Hypoblast Answer: a) Amniotic cavity 7\. Development in the 3rd Week (Continued) Q68. Which of the following is derived from the ectoderm? a\) Skin and nervous system b\) Muscles and bones c\) Liver and pancreas d\) Heart and blood vessels Answer: a) Skin and nervous system Q69. The process of neurulation results in the formation of which structure? a\) Neural tube b\) Somites c\) Notochord d\) Pharyngeal arches Answer: a) Neural tube Q70. During the 5th week of embryonic development, the forelimbs and hindlimbs begin to form as: a\) Limb buds b\) Pharyngeal arches c\) Neural tube d\) Somites Answer: a) Limb buds Q71. The neural tube closes by the end of which week of development? a\) Week 2 b\) Week 3 c\) Week 4 d\) Week 5 Answer: c) Week 4 9\. Fetal Period (Continued) Q72. Which of the following occurs during the first trimester of the fetal period? a\) Complete organ development b\) Formation of external genitalia c\) Eye development and eyelids forming d\) Significant weight gain Answer: b) Formation of external genitalia Q73. The fetal kidneys begin to function in the production of urine during which week? a\) Week 6 b\) Week 10 c\) Week 12 d\) Week 16 Answer: b) Week 10 Q74. The placental barrier consists of which of the following layers? a\) Cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast, and fetal capillary endothelium b\) Epiblast, hypoblast, and trophoblast c\) Endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm d\) Maternal blood vessels and fetal blood vessels Answer: a) Cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast, and fetal capillary endothelium Q75. The umbilical cord is composed of: a\) Two arteries and one vein b\) One artery and two veins c\) Three arteries and one vein d\) One artery and one vein Answer: a) Two arteries and one vein Q76. Which of the following teratogens is known to cause limb defects if a pregnant woman is exposed during the critical period? a\) Alcohol b\) Rubella virus c\) Thalidomide d\) Folic acid deficiency Answer: c) Thalidomide Q77. A child born with a cleft palate is most likely to have been exposed to which teratogen during the first trimester? a\) Alcohol b\) Radiation c\) Rubella virus d\) Retinoic acid Answer: d) Retinoic acid Q78. Which of the following prenatal tests is most commonly used to assess the structure of the fetus at various stages of pregnancy? a\) Amniocentesis b\) Chorionic villus sampling c\) Ultrasound d\) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) Answer: c) Ultrasound Q79. Chorionic villus sampling is typically performed during which week of pregnancy? a\) Week 8-10 b\) Week 12-14 c\) Week 16-18 d\) Week 20-22 Answer: b) Week 12-14 Q80. A 28-year-old pregnant woman comes for her first prenatal check-up at 16 weeks of gestation. She has a family history of sickle cell disease and requests genetic testing. What is the most appropriate prenatal diagnostic test for her? a\) Amniocentesis b\) Chorionic villus sampling c\) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) d\) Carrier screening for sickle cell disease Answer: d) Carrier screening for sickle cell disease Q81. A 24-year-old woman in her first trimester presents to the emergency room with severe abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound confirms a miscarriage. The patient is concerned about future pregnancies. What is the most appropriate next step to assess her reproductive health? a\) Karyotyping b\) Serum progesterone levels c\) Hysterosalpingography d\) Genetic counseling Answer: b) Serum progesterone levels Q82. The embryonic period ends at the: a\) 8th week b\) 12th week c\) 20th week d\) 24th week Answer: a) 8th week Q83. The term \"gestational age\" refers to: a\) The age of the fetus based on its development b\) The age of the embryo from fertilization c\) The age of the fetus from the first day of the last menstrual period d\) The time from fertilization to the birth of the baby Answer: c) The age of the fetus from the first day of the last menstrual period Q84. The Sertoli cells in the male reproductive system are primarily responsible for: a\) Producing testosterone b\) Supporting and nourishing sperm cells c\) Stimulating sperm maturation d\) Secreting seminal fluid Answer: b) Supporting and nourishing sperm cells Q85. The female reproductive tract develops from which of the following structures? a\) Mesonephric ducts b\) Paramesonephric ducts c\) Wolffian ducts d\) Urogenital sinus Answer: b) Paramesonephric ducts Q86. In which phase of meiosis does genetic recombination occur? a\) Prophase I b\) Metaphase I c\) Anaphase I d\) Telophase II Answer: a) Prophase I Q87. Which of the following best describes the difference between meiosis I and meiosis II? a\) Meiosis I separates sister chromatids, while meiosis II separates homologous chromosomes. b\) Meiosis I results in the formation of two daughter cells, while meiosis II results in four daughter cells. c\) Meiosis I involves crossing-over, while meiosis II does not. d\) Meiosis II produces haploid cells, while meiosis I produces diploid cells. Answer: b) Meiosis I results in the formation of two daughter cells, while meiosis II results in four daughter cells. Q88. Which of the following best describes spermatogenesis? a\) The process where one diploid germ cell produces one functional sperm. b\) The process of oocyte formation in females. c\) The process where one diploid germ cell produces four functional sperm. d\) The formation of eggs in females that are arrested in metaphase II. Answer: c) The process where one diploid germ cell produces four functional sperm. Q89. In females, the first meiotic division of oogenesis results in: a\) One primary oocyte and three polar bodies b\) Two secondary oocytes c\) One secondary oocyte and one polar body d\) Two polar bodies and one oocyte Answer: c) One secondary oocyte and one polar body ) Q90. Fertilization normally occurs in which part of the female reproductive system? a\) Uterus b\) Ovary c\) Fallopian tube d\) Cervix Answer: c) Fallopian tube Q91. The zona pellucida is important in fertilization because it: a\) Prevents the embryo from implanting prematurely. b\) Stimulates sperm motility. c\) Prevents polyspermy by blocking the entry of additional sperm. d\) Is the site of maternal blood exchange. Answer: c) Prevents polyspermy by blocking the entry of additional sperm. Q92. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst differentiates into: a\) The epiblast and hypoblast b\) The ectoderm and mesoderm c\) The trophoblast and cytotrophoblast d\) The somatic and splanchnic mesoderm Answer: a) The epiblast and hypoblast Q93. The cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast are derived from: a\) Epiblast b\) Hypoblast c\) Trophoblast d\) Extra-embryonic mesoderm Answer: c) Trophoblast Q94. The notochord is derived from which germ layer? a\) Ectoderm b\) Mesoderm c\) Endoderm d\) Epiblast Answer: b) Mesoderm Q95. The process of somite formation occurs during which phase of embryonic development? a\) Early gastrulation b\) Late gastrulation c\) Organogenesis d\) Neurulation Answer: b) Late gastrulation Q96. By the end of which week do the basic body plan and organ systems begin to form? a\) Week 3 b\) Week 4 c\) Week 6 d\) Week 8 Answer: b) Week 4 Q97. The heart starts to beat by which day of embryonic development? a\) Day 16 b\) Day 20 c\) Day 22 d\) Day 28 Answer: c) Day 22 Q98. The development of fetal limbs occurs during which month of pregnancy? a\) 1st month b\) 2nd month c\) 3rd month d\) 4th month Answer: b) 2nd month Q99. By the end of the 3rd trimester, the fetus has reached what approximate length? a\) 30 cm b\) 40 cm c\) 50 cm d\) 60 cm Answer: c) 50 cm Q100. Which of the following is responsible for nutrient and waste exchange between the mother and fetus? a\) Chorion b\) Amniotic sac c\) Placenta d\) Yolk sac Answer: c) Placenta Q101. The amniotic fluid serves all of the following functions except: a\) Cushioning the fetus b\) Maintaining a constant temperature c\) Assisting in the development of the lungs d\) Providing nutrients to the fetus Answer: d) Providing nutrients to the fetus Q102. Which of the following genetic conditions is most likely associated with maternal age over 35 years? a\) Down syndrome b\) Turner syndrome c\) Klinefelter syndrome d\) Cystic fibrosis Answer: a) Down syndrome Q103. Teratogenic effects of alcohol during pregnancy may result in which of the following? a\) Cleft lip and palate b\) Spina bifida c\) Fetal alcohol syndrome d\) Clubfoot Answer: c) Fetal alcohol syndrome 12\. Antenatal Diagnostic Techniques (Continued) Q104. The most common indication for amniocentesis is to: a\) Screen for neural tube defects b\) Assess fetal lung maturity c\) Detect genetic disorders d\) Determine fetal position Answer: c) Detect genetic disorders Q105. Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) can detect which of the following conditions? a\) Cystic fibrosis b\) Neural tube defects c\) Chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome d\) Spina bifida Answer: c) Chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome Clinical Scenario-Based Questions (Continued) Q106. A 30-year-old pregnant woman at 20 weeks gestation presents for routine prenatal care. Her ultrasound shows a low-lying placenta. What is the likely outcome for this pregnancy? a\) Increased risk of preterm labor b\) Need for immediate cesarean section c\) Placenta will likely move up as pregnancy progresses d\) Increased risk of maternal hypertension Answer: c) Placenta will likely move up as pregnancy progresses Q107. A woman with a history of multiple miscarriages is found to have a bicornuate uterus. What is the most appropriate management for her pregnancy? a\) Bed rest and frequent ultrasounds b\) Surgical correction of the uterine anomaly c\) Close monitoring for preterm labor d\) No intervention, as the pregnancy will likely proceed without complications Answer: c) Close monitoring for preterm labor