Indian Constitution Past Paper PDF

Which of the following article empower for “National Emergency”? A) Article 352 B) Article 356 C) Article 360 D) Article 363 ANSWER: A Which of the following is not the basis for the proclamation of “National Emergency”? A) War B) External Aggression C) Armed rebellion D) Internal disturbance ANSWE...

Which of the following article empower for “National Emergency”? A) Article 352 B) Article 356 C) Article 360 D) Article 363 ANSWER: A Which of the following is not the basis for the proclamation of “National Emergency”? A) War B) External Aggression C) Armed rebellion D) Internal disturbance ANSWER: D Which of the following constitutional amendment act made the declaration of National Emergency immune from Judicial review? A) 38th Amendment Act (1975) B) 42nd Amendment Act (1976) C) 44th Amendment Act (1978) D) 101st Amendment Act (2016) ANSWER: A Proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament within? A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 6 months D) 1 year ANSWER: A Which type of Majority is needed to pass the emergency resolution in Parliament? A) Simple Majority B) Special Majority [ majority of total membership and 2/3rd of the members of the present and voting; C) Special majority and approval by half of the states’ assembly D) Absolute majority ANSWER: B National emergency was not declared in which of the following year? A) 1962 B) 1971 C) 1975 D) 1999 ANSWER: D Which of the following is/are true? 1) Part 20 deals with emergency provisions. 2) An Emergency, converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) None of the above ANSWER: B Which of the following was proposed by the Supreme Court in the Bommai Case (1994)? 1) The burden lies on the Centre to prove that relevant reasons exist to justify the imposition of the President’s Rule. 2) The state legislative assembly should be dissolved only after the Parliament has approved the presidential proclamation. 3) A state government pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356. A) 1, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) All of the above ANSWER: D Which of the following is/are true? 1) Critics claim that emergency provisions undermine the Fundamental Rights. 2) President becomes dictator by emergency provisions as per the critics. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWER: B National emergency remains in operation with approval of the Parliament for - A) Maximum period of four months B) Maximum one year C) Maximum period of six months D) Indefinite period ANSWER: C In case of declaration of financial emergency - A) All money bills of state compulsorily will be considered and passed only by the parliament B) All the state governments will dissolve and management of the economy will be taken over the union government C) It can be passed by a simple majority D) All the state assemblies will be put under suspension and laws on the state list will be enacted by parliament ANSWER: C Which of the following is/are true? 1) Maximum period for President’s Rule is 3 years. 2) President’s Rule doesn’t affect Fundamental Rights of citizens as opposed to National Emergency. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) None of the above ANSWER: C Which of the following state has had the President’ Rule imposed for a maximum number of times? A) Kerala B) Punjab C) Bihar D) Manipur ANSWER: A Which of the following is/are true? 1) President can declare internal emergency on grounds of internal disturbance. 2) The President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. 3) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the president to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of IndiA) 4) President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression. A) 1, 3, 4 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3 ANSWER:B Which of the following sentence/sentences is/are correct? 1) Article 359 does not actually suspend the Fundamental Rights. 2) Article 20 and Article 21 can be restricted only during National Emergency on grounds of war or external aggression. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWER:A Which of the following sentence/sentences is/are correct? 1) During National Emergency, life of the Lok Sabha may be extended for one year at a time. 2) Fundamental Rights under Article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWER:C Which of the following is/are true regarding effects of National Emergency on Centre-State relations? 1) During normal times the President has power to give directions to the states on all the matters. 2) During emergency, legislative power of state legislature is suspendeD) 3) During emergency, the President can issue ordinances on the state subjects. 4) During emergency, President may modify distribution of financial resources between the center and the state. A) 1, 3 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2 ANSWER: C If president of India exercises his power under article 356 of the constitution in the respect of a particular state, then - A) Article 19 is suspended in that state. B) Assembly of that state is dissolved automatically. C) The president can also get powers of the state high courts. D) Parliament assumes the power to legislate on subject in the state list. ANSWER: d Which of the following constitutional amendments equipped President to impose National Emergency on any particular part of India? A) 38th B) 40th C) 42nd D) 62nd ANSWER: C When was the word "armed rebellion" added to the Constitution to declare a National Emergency? A) After 44th Constitution Amendment Act B) After 42nd Constitution Amendment Act C) After 40th Constitution Amendment Act D) After 38th Constitution Amendment Act ANSWER: A How soon imposition of National Emergency should be approved by the Parliament? A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 6 months D) 3 months ANSWER: A If the announcement of the National Emergency has been approved by both Houses of Parliament, how long will it be effective? A) 1 month B) 2 months C) 6 months D) 3 months ANSWER: C Which kind of emergency will be imposed in the case of war, external aggression and armed rebellion? A) 356 B) 352 C) 360 D) None of the following ANSWER: B How many times have the financial emergency imposed in India? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) Never ANSWER: D Which of the following Fundamental Rights do not get abolished automatically during National Emergency? A) Article 19 B) Article20 C) Article21 D) Both b and c ANSWER: D Which of the following statements is not true? A) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are susepnded automatically during National Emergency declared on the basis of war or external aggression. B) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 can not be suspended in the case of National Emergency declared on the basis of armed rebellion. C) Article 19 automatically revives when the National Emergency is over. D) When a National Emergency is enforced, the Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are repealed after the President's order. ANSWER: D How many times have the National Emergency been implemented in India? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 ANSWER: B Which of the following is a synonym of emergency? A) President's Rule B) State emergency C) Constitutional emergency D) All ANSWER: D Consider the following statement in context Emergency provisions. (1) Emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion that popularly known as National Emergency comes under Art. 356. (2) An Emergency due to the failure of the constitutional Machinery in the states comes under Article 360. (3) Financial Emergency due to a threat to the financial stability or credit of India that popularly known as President Rule in the country comes under Article 352. Which of the statement given above is / are correct. A) 1 & 2 only B) 1, 2 & 3 only C) 3 only D) None of the above ANSWER: D Consider the following statement. (1) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the President of limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of IndiA) (2) 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the word ‘armed Rebellion’ for internal disturbance. (3) When a National emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression it is known as ‘External Emergency’. (4) When National emergency declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion’ it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’. Which of the statement given above is / are correct. A) 1, 3 & 4 only B) 2 & 4 only C) 1, 2 & 3 only D) All of the above ANSWER:D Consider the following statement on context of Emergency provisions. 1) The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the house of parliament within 15 days from the date of its issue. 2) The period allowed for approval by the Parliament was two months before the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. 3) If approved by both the house of Parliament the emergency continues for six months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months. 4) its continuance must be passed by both house of parliament by a special majority. Which of the statement given above is / are correct. A) 1 & 2 only B) 1, 2 & 4 only C) 2, 3 & 4 only D) All of the above ANSWER:C Consider the following statements: 1) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list. 2) Resolution approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is / are correct. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWER:A Emergency power are influenced from constitution of which country A) Australia B) USSR C) UK D) Germany ANSWER:D Constitution handles emergencies related to A) National B) Constitutional C) Financial D) All ANSWER:D National emergency can be declared due to? A) Armed rebellion B) War C) External aggression D) All ANSWER:D Which is true regarding proclamation declaring emergency? A) A proclamation can be issued by the president for different grounds. B) It can be issued when an already existing proclamation is in force too. C) It can apply to entire country or a part. D) all ANSWER:D Which is true regarding President's proclamation declaring National emergency? A) The president can declare this only after written recommendation of the entire cabinet B) A proclamation can be subject to judicial review. C) A proclamation must be approved by both houses within one month by a special majority. D) all ANSWER:C Which is true regarding revocation of President's proclamation? A) A proclamation can be revoked by president anytime. B) doesn’t need parliament ratification C) Lok Sabha can force a revocation by disapproving it with a simple majority D) all ANSWER:D Effects of national emergency A) Centre can issue executive directions to states on any matters. B) parliament can make laws on matters in the state list C) both a and b D) none ANSWER:C Which is true regarding the effect of national emergency on Fundamental rights A) Right to Freedom, are automatically suspended B) a presidential order can be passed disallowing people from seeking judicial remedy to enforce other fundamental rights C) both D) none ANSWER:C Which is true regarding Constitutional emergencies A) When the constitutional machinery breaks down in a state, the president rule is imposed by centre. B) This can be proclaimed if the president is satisfied that the governance of a state can’t be carried in accordance with the constitution. C) both D) none ANSWER:C What is true regarding declaration of constitutional emergency? A) president can act with or without the governor’s report B) when a state doesn’t follow any directive from the centre, president’s rule can be imposeD) C) both D) none ANSWER:C Beyond the first year, president’s rule can be extended 6 months at a time only if A) national emergency is proclaimed in the country or any part of the state. B) Election commission certifies that elections can’t be held in the state C) both D) none ANSWER:C Which is true with regards to the revocation of president's rule? A) Presidents proclamation can be revoked by president anytime B) Parliament on its own can’t revoke president’s rule. C) both D) none ANSWER:A Which is applicable to financial emergency A) Such a proclamation has to be approved by a simple majority in both houses. B) financial stability or credit of India or any part of the state is in danger C) His satisfaction is subject to judicial review. D) all ANSWER:D Effect of the Financial Emergency A) Once approved it continues indefinitely B) President can revoke this proclamation anytime; this doesn’t need parliament’s approval. C) both D) none ANSWER:C Which is true regarding financial emergency A) centre can ask states to observe canons of financial propriety. B) It can direct that money bills or financial bills of state should need president’s assent. C) both D) none ANSWER:C Which of the following is/are true regarding constitutional position of Governor of the state? 1) Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President is by discretion of the Governor. 2) Recommendation of the imposition of the President’s Rule in the state is not as per the discretion of the Governor. 3) Ministerial advice is not binding on the Governor. A) 1 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 2 ANSWER: B Which of the following is/are true regarding special responsibilities of the Governor? 1) Regarding Assam it is with respect to the administration of tribal areas. 2) Regarding Arunachal Pradesh it is with respect to law and order in the state. 3) Regarding Nagaland it is with respect to development of tribal areas. 4) Regarding Karnataka it is with respect to law and order related to formation of Telangana. A) 1, 2 B) 1, 2. 4 C) 2,3 D) All ANSWER: A What is/are true regarding term of Governor’s office? 1) Governor has no security of tenure. 2) Governor holds office for a term of five years. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWER: C Which of the following is/are true regarding conditions of office of the Governor? 1) For Governor of two states the emoluments are divided amongst the states as decided by the President. 2) Governor, during his term, cannot be arrested or imprisonment for criminal proceedings. 3) The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court. A) 1,3 B) 1,2 C) 2,3 D) All ANSWER: D Which statements are true regarding legislative powers of the Governor? 1) Governor can reserve bill for Presidents consideration when it opposes a Directive Principle of State Policy. 2) Governor calls for joint sitting of both the houses of state legislature (in case of bi-cameral legislature). 3) He nominates 1 Anglo-Indian to the state legislative assembly. A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2 D) All ANSWER: B What are executive, financial and judicial powers of the Governor? 1) Governor cannot remove members of State Public Service Commission. 2) President consults him while appointing the judges of the concerned State High Court. 3) Governor appoints people to the judicial service of the state. A) 2 B) 1 C) 2, 3 D) All ANSWER: D Which of the following is/are true regarding the appointment of the Governor? 1) Feature of appointing the Governor has been taken from the Irish Constitution. 2) Constitution provides only 2 qualifications for a person who can be appointed as a Governor. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWER: B Which of the following is/are true regarding the President and the Governor? 1) President and Governor can pardon a death sentence. 2) Governor always needs instructions from the President for issuing ordinances. A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWER: D Under which of the following Article of Indian Constitution the Governor may reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President? A) Article 169 B) Article 200 C) Article 201 D) Article 202 ANSWER: B Who remains in office as long as the President of India wishes? A) Governor B) Election Commissioner C) Judges of Supreme Court D) Speaker of Lok Sabha ANSWER: A The Constitution of India does not contain any provision for the impeachment of _______. A) The President B) The Governor of a State C) The Chief Justice of India D) The Vice-President of India ANSWER: B Who is the Constitutional Head of the State Governments? A) Chief Minister B) Governor C) Speaker D) High Court Judge ANSWER: B The first lady to become Governor of a State in India? A) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur B) Padmaja Naidu C) Sarojini Naidu D) Serla Grewal ANSWER: C Who appoints the Lt. Governor of Jammu and Kashmir? A) The Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir B) The Chief Justice of High Court of Jammu and Kashmir C) The Prime Minister of India D) The President of India ANSWER: D Who amongst the following administers the oath of office to the Governor? A) President of India B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court C) Chief Justice of High Court D) Outgoing Governor of the concerned State ANSWER: C Which one of the following statements about the Governor of an Indian State is not true? A) He is appointed by the President of India B) He can be Governor of more than one State C) He holds office for a term of five years D) He can be removed earlier if the Legislature of the concerned State passes a resolution for his removal ANSWER: D Who among the following is not appointed by the State Governor? A) Chief Minister B) Members, State Public Service Commission C) Judges of High Court D) Advocate General ANSWER: C Which one of the following statements is correct? A) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the same time B) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President C) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post D) In the case of the Union Territory having a Legislative set up the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support ANSWER: C The governor of the state, may act independently from the consultation of the Legislative Assembly when (1) The Government has to prove its majority in the session of Legislative Assembly. (2) To terminate the Chief Minister. (3) To reserve any bill for the consideration of the President of IndiA) (4) To send back a bill to Legislative Assembly for reconsideration. (5) To seek the consultation with High Court. Choose the correct answer from the following code. A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 B) 2, 3, 4 and 5 C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 D) All ANSWER: A The approval of ordinance promulgated by Governor is necessary ______. A) By President B) By the State Legislature C) By the Ministers of Council of State D) None ANSWER: B Consider the following statements in relation to the Governor of a State in IndiA) (1) He must be a citizen of India by birth. (2) Must have completed the age of 35 years. (3) He must be eligible to be a member of the Lok SabhA) (4) He may be appointed as Governor for two or more states. Which of these is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 are correct B) 1, 2, and 3 are correct C) 1, 2, and 4 are correct D) 2 and 4 are correct ANSWER: D State Governor is appointed by ________. A) Central Cabinet B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court C) Speaker of Lok Sabha D) President of India ANSWER: D Consider the following and select the correct answer by using the code given below. (1) The Governor shall take oath or affirmation before entering upon his office. (2) The format of oath or affirmation is given in the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution. (3) The Governor shall make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court or in his absence senior-most Judge of that Court. (4) The process of oath and affirmation is given in Article 159 of Indian Constitution. A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 1, 3 and 4 C) 1, 2 and 4 D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ANSWER: B Consider the following statements and select your answer from the codes given below. (1) The Governor does not have the power to appoint the judge of a state High Court. (2) He is not a part of the Legislature. (3) He has the power to nominate some members in the Legislative Council. (4) He has no judicial powers. A) 1 and 2 are correct B) 1 and 3 are correct C) 2 and 4 are correct D) All are correct ANSWER: B Which one of the following Statements about the State Governors is not true? A) He is a part of the State Legislature B) He can pardon a sentence of death C) He does not appoint Judges of the State High Court D) He has no Emergency powers ANSWER: B Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (1) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s Rule.(2) Appointing the Ministers. (3) Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of IndiA) (4) Making rules to conduct the business of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A) Only 1 and 2 B) Only 1 and 3 C) Only 2, 3 and 4 D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ANSWER: B The Governor of a State (1) Is appointed by the President. (2) Holds office during the pleasure of the President. (3) Is the head of the State’s Executive Power. (4) Normally holds office for five years. Select the correct answer from the codes given below. A) 1 and 2 B) 1, 2 and 3 C) 1, 2 and 4 D) All ANSWER: D To whom is the Governor of a State responsible? A) Prime Minister B) President C) Legislative Assembly D) Chief Minister ANSWER: B Given below are two statement, one is labeled as Assertion A) and other is labeled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from code given below. Assertion (A): “The President or a Governor cannot be sued in a Court of law for any act”. Reason (R): “The President can be impeached and the Governors may be dismissed for unconstitutional acts done”. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) C) (A) is true, but (R) is false D) (A) is false, but (R) is true ANSWER: B Which article of Indian constitution deals with constitutional amendments? A) Article 332 B) Article 386 C) Article 368 D) None of the above ANSWER: C In which Constitutional Amendment Act, Goa was made a full fledged State with a State assembly? A) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977 B) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 C) 56th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987 D) 57th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987 ANSWER: C In which Constitutional Amendment Act An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi was provided to the people of India by the President? A) 57th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987 B) 58th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987 C) 59th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 D) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 ANSWER: B Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admissions in private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled castes/tribes and other backward classes? A) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005 B) 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 C) 94th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2006 D) 95th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2009 ANSWER: A Which constitutional amendment reduced the voting rights from 21 years to 18 years? A) 54th B) 36th C) 62th D) 61st ANSWER: D Under which constitutional amendment Bill, four languages: Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali are added in the 8th schedule of the Indian constitution. A) 89th B) 92nd C) 90th D) 95th ANSWER: B Which of the following amendment was passed during the emergency? A) 45th Amendment B) 50th Amendment C) 47th Amendment D) 42nd Amendment ANSWER: D In which of the following amendment the term of Lok Sabha increased from 5 to 6 years? A) 40th Amendment B) 42nd Amendment C) 44th Amendment D) 46th Amendment ANSWER: B Which of the following is true about the constitution (42nd amendment) Act, 1976. A) Precedence to directive principles over fundamental rights B) Fundamental duties are included C) Constitutional amendment should not be questioned in any court D) All ANSWER: D Which of the following amendment Act makes the right to education as the fundamental right to all the children under the age of 6-14 years by inserting Article 21A to the constitution. A) 87th amendment, 2003 B) 86th amendment, 2002 C) 88th Amendment, 2003 D) 89th Amendment, 2003 ANSWER: B Which of the following words were added to the Indian constitution by 42nd amendment – A) federal B) socialist secular C) democratic D) republic ANSWER: B Which of the following articles deals with the amendment to our constitutions – A) 356 B) 368 C) 370 D) 372 ANSWER: B Indian constitution was amended for the first time in – A) 1950 B) 1951 C) 1953 D) 1952 ANSWER: B The 44th amendment modifies or nullifies a number of provisions of which amendment – A) 43rd B) 42nd C) 41st D) 40th ANSWER: B Of all the amendments in the Indian constituiton the most comprehensive and controversial amendment was – A) 42nd B) 43rd C) 44th D) 45th ANSWER: A Which amendment bill is proposed to grant statehood to Delhi – A) 44th B) 70th C) 69th D) 77th ANSWER: C By which amendment did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years – A) 42nd B) 44th C) 61st D) 73rd ANSWER: C The Panchayati raj system was adopted to – A) make people aware of politics B) decentralise the power of democracy C) educate the peasants D) none ANSWER: B The historic panchayati raj bill was adopted by the Parliament in 1992 as which amendment – A) 70th B) 72nd C) 73rd D) 68th ANSWER: C Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayats – A) property tax B) house tax C) land tax D) vehicles tax ANSWER: D In which constitutional amendment, the ninth Schedule was added to protect the land reform law from Judicial Review? A) 1st B) 8th C) 9th D) 10th ANSWER: A In which constitutional amendment act, four categories( Part A, B, C, D) of states were abolished and recognized 14 states and 6 Union? A) 7th B) 8th C) 9th D) 10th ANSWER: A In which constitutional amendment act, empower the establishment of a common high court for two or more states? A) 7th B) 8th C) 9th D) 10th ANSWER: A Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made it compulsory for the president to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill? A) 24th CAA(1971) B) 26th CAA( 1971) C) 27th CAA(1972) D) 28th CAA(1972) ANSWER: A Which constitutional amendment act raised the retirement age of the State Public Service Commission and joint public service commission from 60 to 62 A) 41st CAA (1976) B) 42nd CAA (1976) C) 43rd CAA (1977) D) 44th CAA (1978) ANSWER: A Anti-defection law was made in which constitutional amendment act? A) 52nd CAA 1985 B) 61st CAA 1989 C) 71st CAA 1992 D) 73rd CAA 1992 ANSWER: A Which constitutional act made elementary education a fundamental right? A) 86th CAA 2002 B) 87th CAA 2003 C) 91st CAA 2003 D) 92nd CAA 2003 ANSWER: A Which of the following constitutional amendment is related to Goods and Services Tax(GST): A) 100th CAA 2015 B) 101 st CAA 2016 C) 102nd CAA 2018 D) 103rd CAA 2019 ANSWER: B Consider the following statements regarding Article 368 of the Constitutional amendment bill; 1. Constitutional amendment bills can be initiated only in Lokasabha; not in Rajya Sabha. 2. The bill can be introduced either by the minister or by a private member. 3. The bill does not require prior permission from President. 4. The bill must be passed in each house with a special majority means 50 % of the total membership of the house and 2/3rd of the member of the house present and voting. Which of the above statements is correct; A) 1 and 2 only B) 1,2, and 3 only C) 2,3, and 4 only D) 1,2,3, and 4 only ANSWER: C A simple majority requires more votes in favor than against among the members present and voting. Constitution can be amended in three way; 1. By the simple majority of parliament. 2. By the special majority of parliament. 3. By the special majority of parliament and ratification of half of the state legislative. Which of the above amendments comes under Article 368. A) 1and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 only ANSWER: C Procedure laid down for amendment of the Indian constitution is based on which constitution of the world? A) the UK B) the USA C) Synthesis of UK and USA D) Japan ANSWER: C Article 368, amending procedure of constitution is mentioned in which part of the Indian constitution? A) Part X B) Part VI C) Part IX D) Part XX ANSWER: D An amendment of the constitution can be initiated only in? A) Rajya Sabha Only B) Lok Sabha Only C) Either Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha D) Either Parliament or State Legislatures ANSWER: C Which of the following statement is false regarding the Constitutional Amendment bill? A) It can be introduced by the minister. B) Introduction of the constitutional amendment bill does not require prior permission from the president. C) There is a provision for holding a joint sitting of the two houses in case of disagreement. ANSWER: C Which of the following amendment require only a simple majority of parliament? A) Election of the president. B) Emoluments, allowances, and privileges of the president. C) Executive power of the Union and the states. D) Representation of states in Parliament. ANSWER: B Which of the following statements regarding the 74th Amendment to the Constitution of India are correct? 1. It provides the insertion of a new Schedule to the constitution. 2. It restructures the working of Municipalities 3. It provides the reservation of seats for women in Municipalities 4. It is applicable only to some specified states.Select the correct answer from the codes given below: A) 1,2, and 3 are correct B) 1,2, and 4 are correct C) 1,3, and 4 are correct D) 2,3, and 4 are correct ANSWER: A By which constitutional amendment act the number of Central Ministers has been limited to 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha? A) 91st Amendment B) 92nd Amendment C) 90th Amendment D) None ANSWER: A Which Article in the Indian Constitution deals with the topic of state legislature? A) Article 22 B) Article 168 C) Article 380 D) Article 25 ANSWER: B How many Indian States have a bicameral legislature A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 3 ANSWER: B Which of the following states does not have a legislative assembly? A) Andhra Pradesh B) Telangana C) Jammu D) Uttar Pradesh ANSWER: C What does special majority mean in state legislatures? A) Two-thirds of present and voting members must vote yes, and this number must also constitute the majority of the total capacity of membership of that House B) Two-thirds of present and voting members must vote yes C) Two-thirds of present and voting members must vote yes, and there should also be two-thirds majority of the total capacity of membership of that House D) All ANSWER: A Which is the smallest legislative assembly (capacity) in India? A) Goa B) Telangana C) Chattisgarh D) Sikkim ANSWER: A Which state has the largest legislative assembly capacity wise in India? A) Maharashtra B) Uttar Pradesh C) Madhya Pradesh D) Karnataka ANSWER: B What is the minimum age for the membership of the state legislative assembly? A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 20 ANSWER: A Who decides on the disqualification of the members of the legislative assembly? A) Speaker of legislative assembly B) Governor C) Chief Minister D) None of the above ANSWER: A What must be the maximum gap in the two sessions of the state legislature? A) 6 months B) 9 months C) 3 months D) 4 months ANSWER: A If the legislative assembly dissolves while any bill is pending, then what becomes of the bill? A) Bill lapses B) Bill remains till another session C) The Bill is sent to legislative council D) None ANSWER: A Which is the Upper Chamber of State Legislature in India? A) Legislative Council B) Legislative Assembly C) Governor’s Office D) None of the above ANSWER: A How many members are nominated in the Legislative Council of Uttar Pradesh by the State Governor? A) 1/10 of the total members B) 1/8 of the total members C) 1/7 of the total members D) 1/6 of the total members ANSWER: D Which one of the following is the period for the Legislative Council to detain the ordinary bills? A) 3 months B) 4 months C) 6 months D) 14 days ANSWER: B Which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be abolished? A) Lok Sabha B) Rajya Sabha C) State Legislative Assemblies D) State Legislative Councils ANSWER: D Which one of the following statements about the Chief Minister is not correct? A) He is normally selected by the Governor B) He is formally appointed by the Governor C) He is chosen by the members of the majority party in the Legislative Assembly D) His continuance is office depends upon many factors ANSWER: A Which one of the following states of India does not have a Legislative Council so for even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it? A) Maharashtra B) Bihar C) Karnataka D) Madhya Pradesh ANSWER: D According to which Article of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of a State? A) Article 163 B) Article 164 C) Article 165 D) Article 166 ANSWER: B Which of the following States does not have Bi-cameral Legislature? A) Tamil Nadu B) Uttar Pradesh C) Karnataka D) Bihar ANSWER: A In which assembly of States, money Bills are proposed? A) Any one of the two B) Together in both C) Only in Legislative Assembly D) Only in upper chamber ANSWER: C In which of the following States Legislative councils does not exist? A) Bihar B) Maharashtra C) Rajasthan D) Karnataka ANSWER: C No money Bill can be introduced in the Assembly of a State, except on the recommendations of _________. A) The Parliament B) The Governor of the State C) The President of India D) A special Committee of Ministers ANSWER: B Which one of the following States does not have a bi-cameral legislature? A) U.P. B) M.P. C) Bihar D) Karnataka ANSWER: B Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides the provision of Vidhan Parishad in the State? A) Article 170 B) Article 171 C) Article 172 D) Article 173 ANSWER: B Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution consists the provision of the election of Legislative Assemblies of States? A) Article 170 B) Article 176 C) Article 178 D) None of these ANSWER: A What is the right method to establish or cancel the second chamber in the States? A) Proposal in House of People with simple majority B) Proposal in Legislative Assembly with simple majority C) Proposal in Legislative Assembly with full majority along with law passed by Parliament D) Proposal in House of People with full majority ANSWER: C The provisions for creation and abolition of Legislative Councils in any State is included in Indian Constitution under ___________. A) Article 170 B) Article 169 C) Article 168 D) Article 167 ANSWER: B What can be the maximum number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State in India? A) 400 B) 450 C) 500 D) 550 ANSWER: C Which one of the following legislative houses can be abolished? A) Rajya Sabha B) Vidhan Sabha C) Lok Sabha D) Vidhan Parishad ANSWER: D Who conducts the State Assembly Elections? A) Chief Justice of High Court B) State Election Commission C) Election Commission of India D) Governor of the State ANSWER: C In any State of India, Legislative Council can be created or can be abolished by __________. A) The President on the recommendation of the Governor of the State B) The Parliament C) The Parliament as per Resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of the State D) The Governor on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers ANSWER: C Which state among the following has the maximum number of members in the Legislative Assembly? A) Andhra Pradesh B) West Bengal C) Maharashtra D) Uttar Pradesh ANSWER: D Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council? A) 168 B) 169 C) 170 D) 171 ANSWER: B Who among the following is the final authority to decide any question relating to disqualification of a Member of a House of Legislature of a State? A) Governor B) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly C) Chief Minister D) High Court ANSWER: A