Dental Material Final Exam Review PDF

1. Resistance to flow is known as curing density film thickness viscosity 2. Oral biofilm is is a complex organization of microorganisms on oral surfaces and restorations considered normal or healthy when non-pathogens keep harmful microbes in balance. a slick film of mucus tha...

1. Resistance to flow is known as curing density film thickness viscosity 2. Oral biofilm is is a complex organization of microorganisms on oral surfaces and restorations considered normal or healthy when non-pathogens keep harmful microbes in balance. a slick film of mucus that develops on surfaces within the mouth. composed of bacteria only 3. Which of the following statements is true concerning the American Dental Association (ADA) Seal? The ADA Seal is usually awarded for the life of the product. All dental products qualify for the Seal. It helps consumers make informed decisions about the safety and efficiency of products. Once a product has been accepted, it does not need to be reevaluated if its composition changes. 4. The study of dental materials includes knowledge of All of the above the physical reactions of the material the ways to manipulate the material the chemical reactions of the material 5. Susan has just had an MOD amalgam placed on tooth #30. When biting, this tooth is in contact with a gold crown on tooth #3. Susan complains of an electric shock sensation and a metallic taste. This is most likely due to metamerism galvanism tarnish corrosion 6. The correct term for describing the maximal amount of stress a material can withstand without breaking is ultimate strength ductility elasticity toughness 7. Microleakage may be responsible for postoperative sensitivity recurrent decay all of the above marginal staining 8. The leakage of fluids and debris extending along the tooth-restoration interface is called Trituration Microleakage Deformation  Metamerism 9. Color shades can vary depending on the incident light or source of light. This effect is called Metamerism Spectrum Meniscus Chroma 10. Colonies of bacteria growing on the teeth are called Dental plaque Principle invaders Parasites Primary intruders 11. Material subject to repeated stresses such as in mastication may be subject to fracture due to flexural stress force exerted over a large area fatigue failure forces stretching an object 12. Which of the following is not a classification of dental materials? restorative biological therapeutic preventive 13. The proper PPE to be worn during handling of dental materials that can generate particulate matter consists of: safety glasses, lab coat or over gown, surgical or special dust mask safety glasses, surgical or special dust mask, heavy-duty utility gloves, and over gloves safety glasses, lab coat or over gown, surgical or special dust mask, and heavy-duty utility gloves lab coat or over gown, surgical or special dust mask, heavy-duty utility gloves, and vinyl examination gloves 14. When one is working with dental materials, the most common work-related health and safety hazards are: exposure to particulate matter, exposure to biological contaminants, exposure to perfume, and exposure to airborne contaminants exposure to mercury, exposure to particulate matter, exposure to perfume, and exposure to airborne contaminants exposure to particulate matter, exposure to biological contaminants, exposure to noise, exposure to perfume, and exposure to airborne contaminants exposure to mercury, exposure to particulate matter, exposure to biological contaminants, and exposure to toxic effects of chemicals 15. Since 2005, the American Dental Association (ADA) Seal of Acceptance is awarded to _____ products. professional but not consumer neither professional nor consumer consumer but not professional  both professional and consumer 1. Disinfection solutions need to have the following qualities. must be safe to use be on the EPA N List all of the choices destroy/inactivate COVID & Tuberculosis virus none of the choices 2. Which of the following impression materials can not be poured multiple times? polyvinyl siloxane (PVS) alginate addition silicone condensation silicone 3. what are the advantages of digital impressions? all of the choices are correct Creates pre- and post-operative models Are more accurate than conventional impressions Corrections can be made on the screen prior to sending to the lab. Adjustments can be made virtually 4. Which of the following is not true for hydrocolloids in dentistry? Agar hydrocolloid is not a reversible hydrocolloid Agar hydrocolloid requires the use of any impression trays. When agar powder is mixed with water, it forms a glue-like suspension that entraps the water, making a colloidal suspension called a gel. The main clinical use of reversible hydrocolloid is for impressions for diagnostic casts. 5. Which statement is correct regarding alginate hydrocolloid? Adjusting the powder-to-water ratio is the best way to lengthen or shorten the setting time. Alginate hydrocolloid should be removed slowly to prevent deformation of critical surfaces. Some moisture will be lost from the impression even in 100% humidity. Detail is sufficient for indirect restoration final impressions. 6. Which of the following is true of polyether’s? It can tolerate a little moisture around the preparation They are hydrophobic. It is available in three viscosities: light, monophase, and heavy. Cannot displace moisture on the tooth It flows well but has low tear strength. 7. If an alginate impression is left exposed to the air the water content of the impression will evaporate, causing the impression to shrink. This process is called _______________________________. syneresis hysteresis dehydration imbibition  8. If an alginate impression is submerged in a liquid it will absorb the liquid, causing the impression to enlarge/swell. This process is called ____________________________ syneresis dehydration imbibition hysteresis 9. The completed impression forms a _____ reproduction of the teeth and tissues, and the replica or model forms a _____ replica of the teeth and tissues. negative, positive positive, negative negative; negative positive; positive 10. Elastomer impression materials are popular due to their flexibility. True False 11. How long do you disinfect the alginate impression before it can be poured? 5 minutes 20 minutes 15 minutes 10 minutes 12. Ferric Sulfate is sometimes used as an astringent to control bleeding prior to taking an impression. T True F False 13. Which characteristic should be considered when choosing an impression tray? Be rigid to support the impression material Be large enough to fit all oral structures accurately reproduce vestibules All of the choices are considered. 14. Polyvinyl siloxane materials are hydrophobic. Which of the following is not correct about polyvinyl siloxane? Used in a wet field Moisture causes loss of surface detail Contains a wetting agent Cannot displace moisture on the tooth 1. What is the initial setting time of gypsum?  25 minutes 15-20 minutes 8-16 minutes 10 minutes 2. Boxing wax comes in ropes that are easily manipulated at room temperature. T True F False 3. Gypsum rock is referred to as _________ Calcium sulfate dihydrate dihydrate calcium sulfate calcium sulfate hemihydrate sulfate calcium hydrate 4. The melting range can best be described as the point at which the wax softens and then flows the point at which the wax flows a combination of melting points the required temperature of the heat source 5. Which of the following statements is correct about mixing plaster and stone materials? The measured amount of water is placed into the mixing bowl and all the powder is added to the water. The measured amount of water is placed into the mixing bowl and the powder is slowly sifted into the water. The measured amount of powder is placed into the mixing bowl and all the water is slowly added to the powder. The measured amount of powder is placed into the mixing bowl and the water is quickly added into the powder. 6. Which of the following is not an example of processing wax? impression wax boxing wax sticky wax utility wax 7. What does the term calcination refer to? The process removing water from the gypsum. Adding water to gypsum When the gypsum is in its strongest state. When gypsum is in its weakest state. 8. When is utility waxed used? all of the choices are correct Used to adapt the periphery of an impression tray. Used to provide a better fit into the vestibule of the impression material. Used to cover sharp brackets and wires for orthodontic patients. none of the choices are correct 9. Decreasing the setting time of the gypsum causes the gypsum to _______________ increase the strength set quicker/faster decreases the strength set slower 10. The lost wax technique used in the fabrication of some metal restorations. What is the lost wax technique? placing the invested material in to the burnout oven removing the sprue when the wax is burned out of the casting leaving the space for the metal to be forced in creating a detailed wax pattern on the restoration 11. What type of chemical reaction takes place as the gypsum is setting/hardening? endothermic exothermic syneresis imbibition 12. When the gypsum rock is boiled in a 30% solution of calcium chloride, it produces a high density product called densite. T True F False 13. Which of the below is not a use of utility wax ropes? bite registration fill in the undercuts adapt the periphery of the impression tray repair broken study models 14. There are different strengths of gypsum stone; high strength gypsum stone is also called type III stone. True False 15. The desirable strength of gypsum is ____________ related to the amount of water used. partially indirectly directly does not have an affect 16. An increase in spatulation time and rate will _____ the setting time and _____ the rate of setting expansion. lengthen; increase shorten; increase shorten; decrease lengthen; decrease 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding types of tooth stains? In general, yellow-brown discolorations are easier to whiten than blue-gray and black colors. All extrinsic stains can be removed by hand or ultrasonic scaling and coronal polishing. Intrinsic stains are on the tooth surface. Tetracycline derivatives such as minocycline will cause discoloration of teeth in children but not in adults. 2. In-office whitening materials can contain which active ingredient? Hydrogen peroxide or Carbamide peroxide Carbamide peroxide Hydrogen peroxide All of the above Phosphoric Acid 3. Which of the following is true regarding sports guards? They can absorb 100% of the energy from a traumatic hit to the mouth. They usually cover the mandibular teeth, gingiva, and bone. They cannot prevent lacerations to the lips for athletes with orthodontic braces or brackets. They can cushion the maxillary and mandibular teeth when an athlete’s jaws are forced together by a blow to the lower jaw. 4. What whitening product is used fir the in-office whitening procedure? Correct: 35% carbamide peroxide gel 9% hydrogen peroxide 10% hydrogen peroxide 10% carbamide peroxide gel 5. What is the procedure for home whitening prescribed by a dentist? The home whitening process is less effective than the in-office process.  The material consists of clear, flexible strips containing a peroxide gel that are adapted over the teeth and worn for 30 minutes at a time once or twice a day. The gel is placed in a custom-formed soft, thin plastic tray and is worn by the patient for periods as short as 30 minutes twice daily or as long as overnight. Only the anterior six teeth are covered. 6. What could be the reason for the discoloration of tooth #9? blunt trauma to the tooth defect in the development of the tooth severe fluorosis tetracycline stain 7. The process of whitening was found/created as a "side effect" from the original use of carbamide peroxide to reduce inflammation. T F False 8. Which of the following statements are true about obstructive sleep apnea appliances? Choose all that apply. Are worn 2 times more in men than women. They reposition the mandible to a forward position. Can result in serious medical problems. They reposition both the maxilla and the mandible. 9. Identify the appliance in the photograph.  Hawley retainer space maintainer removable partial thumb sucking device 10. Which of the following are possible side effects of tooth whitening. Choose all that apply. tooth sensitivity May cause clenching and grinding if whitening trays are worn overnight. reversible pulpitis 11. Both vital and non-vital teeth can be whitened. What is the whitening technique for non-vital teeth in which whitening materials are sealed inside the tooth crown for a few days and the patient “walks” around with the whitening material in place? over night whitening laser whitening Walking bleach technique power whitening 12. Boil and bite mouth guards are useful for children with mixed dentition. T F False 13. The cosmetic process that uses chemicals to remove discolorations from teeth or to lighten them is called ____________________. air polishing air abrasion prophylaxis whitening 14. Which of the following is/are a potential side effect(s) of whitening?  tooth sensitivity gingival irritation all of the above only B jaw discomfort from increased bruxism/clenching when wearing the trays overnight. 15. Mouth guards can be fabricated in different thicknesses. What is the correct thickness for a mouth guard that will be worn during heavy contact sports? 3 mm thickness 2 mm thickness 5 mm thickness 8 mm thickness 16. Which of the following is not true regarding the whitening process. The concentration of Carbamide Peroxide can range from10% to 35%. All patients are candidates for whitening procedures. The concentration of Hydrogen peroxide can range from 5% to 40% Carbopal or glycine may also be added to the whitening material. 17. What is the best method of proper home care for guards? Soak in mouthwash to remove odors. Brush with toothpaste to remove debris. Allow to air-dry in a rigid container. Store in water when not in use. 18. Which of the following is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)? Pick all that apply. large neck size lean body mass obesity high blood pressure 19. Which of the following statements is true regarding teeth whitening? Acid etching will polish the surface of the enamel. All teeth whitening products contain peroxide. Teeth whitening occurs when the whitening material passes through the spaces in enamel and oxidizes the stains. Acid etching before the application of the whitening chemical may enhance penetration of the whitening agent. 20. What is the in-office whitening procedure that uses strong whitening agents and may use a high-intensity light source to accelerate the whitening process? Power whitening walking bleach technique enamel microbrasion 1. Who controls the amalgam mix? (pick all that apply) the manufacturer the dentist the dental hygienist the dental assistant 2. The matrix band is used to __________________________ Choose all that apply. used to help contain the amalgam during condensation in a class II preparation helps to form the proximal contours and contacts of the restoration temporarily forms a wall that helps contain and shape the amalgam during placement 3. The strength of the amalgam can be affected by over trituration under trituration the amount of mercury in the mix all of the above none of the above 4. Which of the modern alloys uses the least amount of mercury? spherical lathe-cut admixed 5. The matrix band functions to hold the amalgam in the prep. T True F False 6. Which of the below is the best property of amalgam? tension compression shear torsion 7. The process whereby particles are heated to the point that they fuse together at their borders but do not clump into one solid mass is called _________________________. baking sintering soldering glazing 8. The fact that mercury makes-up almost half of the amalgam has caused concerns about…... patient safety risk to office staff environmental factiors for disposal of amalgam waste all of the above none of the above 9. The mixing of amalgam is call ______________________________________ trituration mixing blending 10. A _____________________________ alloy is composed of metals that do not corrode readily; at least 25% must be noble metals noble base-metal high noble 11. The gradual changes in the shape of the restoration usually caused by compression from occlusion or adjacent teeth can cause the amalgam to bulge out of the cavity prep is call ____________________. creep corrosion condensation 12. Dental amalgam is the combination of the alloy powder and the mercury. Amalgam alloy is referring to only the alloy powder. both true both false The first statement is true. The second statement is false. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. 13. The process of heating porcelain powders at high temperature until they fuse is referring to _______________________ firing sintering glazing coping 14. The final setting time of amalgam is __________________________. 30 minutes one hour 12 -24 hours 24-48 hours 15. Which dental material has been used as a base or liner and has been shown to stimulate reparative/secondary dentin? copalite binding agents ZOE calcium hydroxide/dycal 1. Proper finishing, polishing, and cleaning of tooth structures and restorative materials _____ of the restorative material. improves esthetics improves tissue health improves life of the restoration all of the above none of the above 2. Which of the below scales ranks materials according to theirr relative resistance to abrasion? Brinell Moh Vickers Knoop 3. Abrasive particles that are _____ will cut more efficiently.  Show answer choices large and regular large and irregular small and regular small and irregular 4. Which of the following is the most abrasive? aluminum oxide tin oxide diamond pumice 5. The powder form of _____ is used in sandblasting restorations in preparation for cementation and air abrasion. tin oxide silicon dioxide silicon carbide aluminum oxide 6. The philosophy of _____ polishing is regarded as the most appropriate approach in the selection of which teeth and surfaces to polish. aggressive complete selective polish all teeth 7. It is safe to use bleach to clean removable prostheses with metal components. T True F False 8. The size of the abrasive particles has no impact on the tooth structure. T True F False 9. Abrasives are available in different grits. What is the term grit referring to? the shape of the particles the size of the particles  the amount of heat produced by the particles the amount of pressure one can use when using abrasives 10. When using abrasives, you need to be sure to use a lubricant to assist in decreasing the effect of the abrasive T True F False 11. Which of the following is not a benefit of polishing a restoration? to increase the attrition of tooth structure to smooth the Cavo surface margin to reduce biofilm attachment to decrease corrosion and tarnish 12. A higher number of particles or flutes on a rotary finishing bur _____ its abrasive intensity. increases decreases the size of the flutes has no impact on abrasion 13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding abrasives? coarse pumice contains large, regular sized particles If the surface is harder than the abrasive, there will be little to no effect. Flour pumice is safe to polish cementum but has little impact on restorations. Course abrasives maintain their shape and size and may be used multiple times 14. Safe-sided abrasive have the abrasive material on one side, only. T True F False 15. ______________________________ is the feather-like excess of material present at margin of the restoration, usually on the occlusal or interproximal surface. flash polishing finishing margination 16. When the __________________ is performed, you are removing overhangs or the ledges created by overhanging margins of the restoration. margination cavosurface margin flash the deficient margin of the restoration 17. Which of the following is recommended to use to polish a composite restoration? prophy paste air polisher ultrasonic scaler aluminum oxide 1. Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the care of dentures by the patient? Dentures should be stored in water to prevent warping and drying out. Dentures should be cleaned over a sink filled with water or over a towel to prevent fracture if dropped. Abrasive pastes or cleaners should not be used, or they will scratch the acrylic. The denture should be cleaned with bleach and hot water periodically to kill microorganisms. 2. Which of the following is a key component of a removable dental prosthesis? Crowns. Denture base. Dental implants. Orthodontic wires. 3. Why is it important to brush both the dentures and the gums regularly? To reduce bad breath. To stimulate circulation in the gums and remove biofilm. To make the denture fit better. To whiten the teeth. 4. What is a common issue caused by not removing dentures at night or for a minimum of 6-8 hours daily? Increased risk of denture discoloration. Risk of developing fungal infections. Faster wear of the denture material. Increase in bone density. 5. Denture-Induced Oral Mucosal Lesions (OML’s) may be caused by which of the following factors: Not removing the denture/appliance at night or for extended periods allowing the tissue to rest. Poor oral hygiene and denture care. Poorly fitting dentures. All the above. 6. The dental professional should instruct the patient on the use of denture adhesive, giving the patient the following instructions: Putting a thick layer of denture-adhesive cream on the denture will help the denture stay better. Leave the denture in until the material wears away. Denture adhesive must be thoroughly removed from the prosthesis and oral tissues daily. 7. All of the following are consequences of not replacing missing teeth except one. Which one is the exception? Migration of adjacent teeth Migration of opposing teeth Loss of occlusal vertical dimension Angular cheilitis Increased caries risk 8. In addition to educating patients on oral health, the dental professional is responsible for educating patients on how to properly care for any oral prosthetic appliance. When educating a patient  regarding caring for their removal of a partial denture (RPD), it is essential to inform them only to remove the RPD to brush and eat. Both statements are true. Both statements are false. The first statement is false the second statement is true. The first statement is true the second statement is false. 9. It may be necessary to place an insulating base under restorations to Encourage sclerotic dentin formation Protect the pulp from sudden temperature changes Reduce acidity Calcify the dentinal tubules 10. Which dental cement bonds to dentin, is “kind” to the pulp, and resists recurrent decay? Zinc oxide eugenol Polycarboxylate Calcium hydroxide Glass ionomer 11. Which cement exhibits an exothermic reaction during mixing? Glass ionomer Zinc phosphate Resin cement Calcium hydroxide 1. The most used etchant or conditioner for tooth bonding is _____ in concentrations ranging from 10% to 38%. acetic acid phosphoric acid Hydrochloric acid sodium perborate 2. The etched surface of a permanent tooth should have a/an _____ appearance when dried. frosty opaque darkened transparent 3. What is the purpose of a dental bonding? to seal margins to etch the enamel to provide adhesion to remove the smear layer 4. Microleakage is caused by many factors. Which factors contribute to microleakage? Select all that apply. Poorly seated margins Contaminants Percolation Shrinkage 5. When would microleakage occur? When too much bond is used When the tooth is over etched When restorations are overcured When contaminants are not removed 6. Which of the following is correct regarding the dual-cure process for resin bonding agents?  Requires activation by light Requires chemical curing rather than activation by light Neither can be activated by light nor cures chemically Can be activated by light or can cure chemically without application of the curing light 7. The smear layer __________________________. Is a tenacious layer of cut tooth debris on the surface of enamel and dentin Is easily removed by rinsing with water Is necessary for good bonding Is not removed when bonding by the etch-and-rinse technique 8. Which one of the following statements about bonding to enamel is true? Bonding is achieved by micromechanical retention. Bonding is achieved by chemical bonds. Bonding is achieved by resin tags penetrating the collagen matrix. Bonding to enamel is less reliable than bonding to dentin. 9. Self-etching bonding systems Use 37% phosphoric acid as the etchant Use acidic primers to etch the tooth structure Require rinsing after etching Generally etch enamel equally as well as dentin 10. When a resin bonding agent hardens, it creates projections that lock into the tooth, creating a _____ bond. The resin bonding agent will then form a _____ bond to other resins placed over it, such as composite resin. Mechanical, mechanical Chemical, mechanical Chemical, chemical Mechanical, chemical 11. When teeth are prepared with a bur, debris composed mainly of hydroxyapatite and collagen, along with plaque, bacteria, saliva, and possibly blood, leaves behind a smear layer coating. How does the smear layer interfere with the bonding process? It plugs the openings of the dentinal tubules, preventing a hybrid layer. It cannot be washed off using an air/water syringe. It covers the enamel surface, lowering the permeability of the bonding material. A and B 12. Etch-and-rinse bonding systems May result in tooth sensitivity caused by overdrying or over-etching Do not require a separate etching and rinsing step Do not require drying of the primer Do not provide a suitable etch of uncut enamel 1. In general, the chemical-cured acrylic resins are _____ than heat-cured acrylic resins. Select all that apply. Stronger Harder More porous Less color stable 2. Which one of the following types of composites generally will shrink the most when polymerized? Bulk-fill composite Micro hybrid  Flowable composite Nanocomposite 3. Which of the following is true of plastic (acrylic) and porcelain denture teeth? Porcelain teeth are used more often than plastic teeth. Porcelain denture teeth chemically bond to the acrylic base of the denture. Plastic denture teeth do not wear the opposing natural or artificial teeth or restorations. It is easier to grind porcelain denture teeth rather than acrylic denture teeth to adjust the occlusion or to reshape a tooth to fit the available space. Feedback Plastic denture teeth do not wear the opposing natural or artificial teeth or restorations. Plastic teeth are tough and chemically bond to the acrylic base of the denture. Plastic teeth are easy to grind to adjust the occlusion or to reshape a tooth to fit the available space. Plastic teeth are used more often than porcelain teeth because they are somewhat resilient and are thought not to stress the underlying ridges as much as porcelain teeth. 4. Which of the following is true of in-office care of a complete denture? Patients will not form calculus on a denture. Tissue-bearing surfaces of the complete denture should be polished during cleaning. It is helpful for the patient if teeth and the acrylic base are worn down during the polishing process. Calculus can be removed by placing the prosthesis in a denture cleaning solution inside a zippered bag placed in an ultrasonic cleaner. 5. Common effects of polymerization shrinkage of composites may include all of the following except one. Which one is this exception? Microleakage Death of the pulp Microcracking of enamel causes white lines around the margins Postoperative sensitivity 6. What are new denture patients advised to expect once the dentures are delivered? Select all that apply. It may be difficult to pronounce some words. Dentures may rub and create sore spots. Dentures may move when eating. Dentures may create sore spots. 7. Which one of the following statements about glass ionomer cement (GIC) is false? GIC chemically bonds to the mineral of the tooth. GIC releases fluoride. GIC functions well for class II restorations in adults. GIC reduces microleakage at the margins of a restoration on the root. 8. One of the advantages of glass ionomer compared to composite is  The ability to finish it immediately It has higher strength than composite because of the glass fillers It uses the same bonding agents as composites It has been shown to release fluoride 9. Which of the following is not correct about porcelain denture teeth? They are hard They are esthetic They are easily repaired They are stain resistant 10. Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the care of dentures by the patient? Dentures should be stored in water to prevent warping. Dentures should be cleaned over a sink filled with water or over a towel to prevent fracture if dropped. Abrasive pastes or cleaners should not be used, or they will scratch the acrylic. The denture should be cleaned in hot water periodically to kill microorganisms. 11. What is the purpose of a bonding agent? to seal margins to etch the enamel to provide adhesion to remove the smear layer 12. Which stage of polymerization of acrylic resins is longer for heat-cured resins during denture processing to allow adequate time to pack the acrylic resin into the denture flask? Sandy Stringy Dough Exothermic 13. The effect that porosity has on an acrylic denture can be seen as all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one? It contributes to staining. It contributes to growth of microorganisms. It weakens the acrylic. It decreases the thermal conductivity of the acrylic. 14. A heat-processed denture differs from a chemical-cured denture. Which one of the following is NOT true for the heat-processed denture? It is stronger. It is more porous. It is harder. It has less dimensional change during the first 24 hours after curing. 15. Which one of the following statements about liquid monomer is FALSE? Gives a pleasant taste to a hard reline done at chairside Is potentially harmful to breathe Can cause allergic reactions or skin irritation  May be present in small quantities in a new denture Evaporates readily so do not leave the cap to the bottle off 1. What is the purpose of adding fillers to pit and fissure sealant material? Esthetics Strength increased wear resistance Increased bond 2. Which of the following is the most commonly noted side effect when a patient uses chlorhexidine gluconate as an antibacterial mouth rinse? Brown stain Leukoplakia Median rhomboid glossitis Geographic tongue 3. Where is resin infiltration most successfully used? On smooth surface white spots In pits and fissures On interproximal surfaces In early cavitation 4. What is the accepted level of fluoride in drinking water? 0.007 ppm 1.7 ppm 0.07 ppm 0.7 ppm 5. Which of the following would be a likely cause of sealant failure? Demineralization Plaque deep in the grooves Rubber dam application excessive moisture on the tooth 6. Which permanent teeth are most susceptible to caries? Upper and lower first premolars Mandibular molars Maxillary molars Upper and lower second premolars 7. Once the rubber dam in in place, the raw edge of the rubber dam material is turned under, creating a trough. What is the term to describe this process? reverting the dam securing the dam inverting the dam 8. What is an advantage of fluoride varnish over fluoride foam? Does not have unpleasant side effects such as nausea. All of the above are advantages of fluoride varnish. Will not stain the teeth Does not produce tooth hypersensitivity 9. Which of the following causes of tooth sensitivity may be successfully treated with a desensitizing agent? A leaking restoration A cracked tooth Exposed dentinal tubules  Dental caries 10. Which of the following is true concerning in-office fluoride application? The 1-minute application delivers approximately 25% of the fluoride that a 4-minute application delivers. A 1-minute application is recommended by the ADA. When used one to two times a year, topical fluoride treatments have been shown to produce 20% to 26% caries reduction. The most commonly used fluorides come in the form of topical gels or foams that are applied for 1 minute in disposable trays. 11. Which of the following could contribute to the development of fluorosis?. Choose all that apply. Iatrogenic factors Water supplemented at lower than 2 ppm Swallow excess amounts of toothpaste Excess amounts found in food 12. Fluoride's greatest anticaries benefit is gained by____________________________ Topical fluoride exposure before eruption Topical fluoride exposure after the teeth have erupted Systemic fluoride exposure before eruption Systemic fluoride exposure after the teeth have erupted 13. At which level, parts per million (ppm), of excess systemic fluoride will teeth develop brown staining and pitting of the enamel surface? 3.0 ppm 1.5 ppm 2.5 ppm 2.0 ppm 14. What are the main reasons for using a rubber dam? Choose all that apply. Improves the overall quality of the restoration Prevents aspirations of clamp /restorative material Keeps the area free of contamination 1. All-ceramic restorations can be used for which of the following indirect dental restoratives? Inlays Onlays Veneers Crowns All the above Inlays, onlays, veneers only 2. Which of the following is true of computer-aiding machining for crown and bridge techniques? It is available only for fabrication of porcelain veneers. No die needs to be poured, and no temporary crown is necessary. A porous ceramic core is infiltrated with molten glass by capillary action. Ceramic powder is mixed with a water-based liquid to form a mass that is pressed onto a porous refractory die. 3. What is/are the disadvantage(s) ultrathin veneers that do not require preparation? Difficult to mask dark tooth structure May be over-contoured  Are not custom fit Bulky 1&3 1, 2, 4 4. __________ is a bioresorbable sustained-release agent delivered in microsphere form and placed in periodontal pockets after periodontal debridement. Atridox Arestin Periochip Acticite 5. The active ingredient in Arestin is 10% doxycycline 2.5 mg of chlorhexidine gluconate 2% minocycline 5% tetracycline 6. Oraqix is a locally delivered topical anesthetic that turns from liquid to gel by a thermosetting system. Once set it provides profound anesthesia in the same manner as an injectable anesthetic. Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second statement is false The first statement is false, the second statement is true 7. What are the consequences that may happen if a patient decides not to replace missing natural teeth? Choose all that apply. Migration of adjacent and opposing teeth Loss of occlusal vertical dimension Angular cheilitis Irreversible pulpitis 8. Patients with missing teeth and/or ill-fitting dentures may have difficulties with chewing which can influence a poor diet and patients may become malnourished. T True F False 9. It is recommended that placement of Arestin should be placed in pocket depths ____mm or greater. 2mm 3mm 4mm 5mm 10. Chemotherapeutic agents are adjunctive (supplemental) therapies to mechanical therapies such as non-surgical periodontal therapies (NSPT). Chemotherapeutics slow or arrest the disease progression and can be delivered systemically or locally. Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is false, the second statement is true  The first statement is true, the second statement is false 11. Arestin has a sustained release for ____ days within the gingival pocket. 20 days 14 days 3 days 7 days 12. Oraqix is a locally delivered topical anesthetic containing 2.5 % Lidocaine and 2.5% prilocaine. It is delivered in a thermosetting system that changes from liquid to a gel when in contact with body temperature. Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second statement is false The first statement is false, the second statement is true 1. Which material for a provisional restoration would not be used extra-coronally? Provisional cement Provisional acylic Provisional composite Provisional polycarbonate crown 2. Which information might a patient be given regarding their provisional restoration? Modify diet to include sticky and hard foods Contacts are tight therefore one should not floss the area. Do not brush the area around the provisional restoration The provisional restoration is not intended to function exactly like a permanent restoration. 3. Polycarbonate crowns are used primarily On molars On anterior teeth and premolars for multiunit bridges for inlays 4. What is the most common use of a stainless steel crown? Crown prep on an adult molar Crown prep on a primary molar Crown prep on an anterior tooth Bridge prep in the adult posterior teeth 5. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of the use of acrylic provisional materials? High cost Poor esthetics High shrinkage Difficult manipulation 6. Which material is frequently used for cement provisional intracoronal restorations? Zinc polycarboxylate Zinc oxide eugenol Calcium hydroxide Zinc phosphate 7. _____ generated during the polymerization of chemical-cured acrylic can potentially damage the pulp or burn soft tissues. Heat Off-gassing Residual monomer  Chemical By-products 8. How should a provisional restoration be removed? Have the patient bite on a sticky piece of candy to pull to provisional restoration. Use an instrument to engage the margin and pry to provisional off the preparation. Use a pair of temporary removal forceps to grasp and gently rock the provisional from the tooth. answers 2 & 3 9. If a provisional crown comes off during a time that the dental office is closed, the patient can be instructed to replace it after cleaning the interior of the crown and placing a small amount of _____ into the crown. cyanoacrylate (super glue) liquid nails cement denture adhesive chewing gum 10. Compare using an indirect custom provisional restoration technique versus a direct custom provisional restoration technique. The direct technique is friendlier to the tissue. The indirect technique allows for superior access to the preparation. Missing tooth structure can be replaced using the indirect technique. If the clinician uses too much material with the direct technique, the provision crown may be locked onto the tooth. 11. What could occur if the provisional restoration is too high? trauma from occlusion. occlusal drifting of the prepared tooth. gingival irritation from food impaction. lateral migration (movement) of the prepared tooth. 12. Why is it important for an extracoronal provisional restoration to have accurate margins? Correct: maintain accurate contour. protect the tooth from microleakage. keep food from packing into the embrasure. maintain occlusion and prevent supereruption. 13. Important physical properties of provisional materials used for posterior teeth include the following Strength Tissue compatabilty Ease of handling All of the above 14. Which of the following is true of preformed polycarbonate provisional crowns? They are incompatible with acrylic resins. Like metal, they are flexible and may be crimped with contouring pliers. The primary advantage is their esthetics for replacement of anterior teeth. Unlike their metal partners, they do not come in several sizes and shapes. 15. Which of the following is not a criteria for provisional coverage? Promote gingival health Remain stable and retentive. Fit the tooth at the finish line. Reproduce the color of the adjacent teeth. 1. Why are endosseous implants more successful in the mandible than in the maxilla? Blood flow is better in the mandible.  Gravity drags maxillary implants from their sockets. The bone in the mandible is generally much denser than in the maxilla. There is a greater lateral component of force on maxillary teeth than on mandibular teeth 2. During a two-stage endosseous surgical implant placement procedure, the healing abutment is placed about _____ following placement of the implant fixture. 1-month Correct: 3-months 6-months 1-year 3. What is an acrylic guide essential to proper implant placement called? Splint Splice screw Stent 4. Most implants have a success rate of approximately 95%. T True F False 5. Failure of an implant after initial integration has occurred is often attributed what cause? Pick t he best answer. Unnatural forces on the implant poor surgical technique bacterial infection poor bone quality 6. Which of the following is not a reason for failure of the implant after the initial integration. Bacterial infection extending from the peri-implant tissues into the bone Generation of excessive heat when the implant hole is drilled into the bone Overloading of the implant during function Osseointegration does not occur. They all can contribute to implant failure 7. Which of the following metals demonstrates the highest level of biocompatibility with oral tissue for dental implants? nickle gold titanium stainless steel 8. Which of the following is true concerning home care for the implant patient? Plaque-disclosing agents must never be used with implant patients. Home care regimens should be customized for each patient. All implant patients should receive standardized instructions. Wooden plaque removers must not be used because they will scratch implants. 9. Non-absorbable sutures are usually made of silk and need to be removed. Absorbable sutures are made from the intestines of cattle, sheep, or goats and are absorbed or dissolve in the patient’s oral cavity. Both statements are true. Both sttements are false. The first statement is true. The second statement is false. The first statement is false. The second statement is true. 10. Which of the following implant placement techniques has the lowest success rate? one stage two stage immediate 11. The _____ implant is the most commonly used in dentistry today. supraperiosteal subperiosteal transosteal endosseous 12. What does the term immediate-placement surgical procedure mean? The top of the implant fixture projects through the soft tissue at the time of surgery and the healing abutment is placed. The implant fixture is placed directly into the new socket when the implant procedure involves the extraction of a tooth. A provisional crown is placed on the implant fixture immediately after surgical placement of the fixture. The healing abutment is placed during the second stage of the surgical procedure. 13. If a dental implant company wants to sell implants they must have the ADA Seal of Acceptance. T True F False 14. At the recare visit, which of the following would be the best choice for cleaning titanium implants? Air polishers Steel curetts conventional ultra sonic scalers titanium of plastic curettes and scalers