Constitution Questions PDF

CHAPTER 1: MAKING OF CONSTITUTION 1. Accordingto _______________, "Constitution” means, the system of fundamental political Institutions or an autobiography of powerrelationship (2016) a) G.C.Lewis b) HermanFimer c) Wade&Philips d) None ofthese 2. The...

CHAPTER 1: MAKING OF CONSTITUTION 1. Accordingto _______________, "Constitution” means, the system of fundamental political Institutions or an autobiography of powerrelationship (2016) a) G.C.Lewis b) HermanFimer c) Wade&Philips d) None ofthese 2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for (2015) a) Diarchy at the center b) Establishment of federal Court c) Provincial Autonomy d) All of the above 3. India is referred as __________under Indian constitution a) Country b) Hidusthan c) Bharat d) Indus 4. India has been declared under Article 1 of Indian Constitution as a a) Union of states b) confederation c) Federation d) federation with strong unitary bias 5. Constitution if India declares India as a) A federation b) A union of states c) A quasi federal State d) A unitary State 6. The Constitution of India describes India as a a) Quasi federal b) Unitary states c) Union of states d) Union Territories 7. East India Company was established in the year a) 1857 b) 1600 c) 1757 d) 1773 8. Minto Morley reforms implemented by the Indian council Act in a) 1857 b) 1600 c) 1909 d) 1946 9. The plan of setting up of a Constituent Assembly to draw up the future Constitution for India was given by a) Independence Act, 1947 b) Government Committee c) The Cabinet Mission Plan d) Government of India Act, 1935 10. Diarchy means a system of (2015) a) Double government b) Responsible government c) Bureaucratic government d) all of the above 11. The President of Constituent Assembly was a) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar b) Jawaharalal Nehru c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad d) Gandhiji 12. The Members of the Constituent Assembly were a) Directly Elected by the People b) Elected by the Provincial Assemblies c) Nominated by Indian National Congress d) Nominated by the British Parliament 1 13. the Constituent Assembly appointed________ on 29thAug. 1947, as Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee(2015) a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad b) Jawaralal Nehru c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar d) Dr.K.M.Munshi 14. Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was and the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee was (2014 & 2016) a) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar and Dr.Rajendra Prasad b) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar and Jawaharlal Nehru c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad and Jawaharlal Nehru d) Dr.Rajendra Prasad and B.R.Ambedakar 15. The Number of Article in Indian Constitution was and is (2016) a) 395 & 445 b) 395 & 544 c) 295 & 445 d) 445 & 395 16. How much time did the Constituent Assemble took to prepare the Constitution of India a) 1 year, 11 month & 18 days b) 2 year, 11 month & 18 days c) 2 year, 11 month & 28 days d) 3 year, 11 month & 18 days 17. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad b) N.GopalaswamyAyyangar c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar d) Dr.K.M.Munshi 18. The Constitution of India was adopted on and came into effect on (2016) a) 26th Feb, 1946 & 26th Jan 1950 b) 26th Jan, 1950 & 26th Nov, 1949 c) 26th Nov, 1949 & 26th Jan, 1950 d) 26th Nov, 1949 & 15th Aug, 1947 19. Indian constitution came in to force on (2015) a) 15th Aug, 1947 b) 26th Nov, 1949 th c) 26 Jan, 1950 d) 26th Nov, 1950 20. Who made and adopted the Indian constitution a) The Constituent Assembly b) The Indian Parliament c) British Parliament d) All State Assemblies 21. The cabinet mission came to Indiain (2015) a) 1946 b) 1945 c) 1944 d) 1943 22. The constituent assembly of India started its work in 1946 and completed its workin(2015) a) Nov1949 b)Jan1949 c)Dec1948 d) Jan1950 23. ThefamousDandiMarchdonebyMahatmaGandhijiwasagainst (2015) a) BritishRule b) Untouchability c) Sati System d) SaltTax 2 CHAPTER 2: SALIENT FEATURES OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION 24. Flexible constitution can be a) Can be amended easily b) Cannot be amended easily c) Can be amended only after undergoing a special procedure d) Does not allow frequent changes 25. Democracy in India rests on the fact that a) The constitution is written b) There are fundamental rights c) People have the right to choose and change the government d) There are directive principles 26. The one of the salient features of Indian Constitution is (2014, 2016) a) Very flexible b) Very rigid c) Partly flexible and partly rigid d) Rigid 27. Indian Constitution is a) Based on Conventions b) A brief Document c) Written & Bulky Document d) An evolved Constitution 28. Under the Indian Constitution the subjects of administration have been divided in to a) one list b) two lists c) Three lists d) four lists 29. Important test to identify the basic features of the Constitution of India a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duties c) Preamble d) Directive principles 30. The Parliamentary system in India is based on the pattern of a) Great Britain b) USA c) Canada d) France 31. The Constitution of India derives its authority from a) The People b) The Government c) The Constitution d) The Parliament 3 CHAPTER 3: PREAMBLE 32. Preamble to the Constitution of India is based on a) Britain Constitution b) Australian Constitution c) Objective Resolution d) Canada Constitution 33. The beginning word “WE THE PEOPLE” in Preamble to the Constitution of India is referred to a) British Rulers b) Members of Constituent Assembly c) Citizens of India d) All of the above 34. Sovereignty in a democracy (e.g. Democracy in India) rests with the a) People b) Prime Minister c) President d) Central Government 35. The Ultimate source of authority in India a) The People b) The Government c) The Constitution d) The Parliament 36. Which of the following word was added in to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976? a) Federal b) Sovereign c) Republic d) Socialist 37. The three types of Justice referred in the Preamble of our Constitution a) Economic, International, Political b) Economic, Religious and Social c) Social, Economic and Political d) Social, Economic and Technical 38. Which amendment to the Constitution of India added the words “Socialist”, “Secular” and “Integrity” to thepreamble of Indian Constitution a) 24th b) 44th c) 42nd d) 73rd 39. Which the following words added to the preamble of Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act (2015) a) Integrity b) Socialist c) Secular d) All the above 40. How many times the Preamble of the Constitution of India has been amended so far?(2015) a) Once b) Twice c) Three times d) Never 41. Which of the following is the key to open the mind of the makers of Constitution of India a) Fundamental Rights b) Fundamental Duties c) Preamble d) Directive principles 42. Preamble to the Constitution of India declare India as (2014) a) Independent Country b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic c) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic d) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic 4 43. The objective of the Constitution of India is to establish (2016) a) Independent Country b) Democratic form of govt. c) a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Govt d) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic & Republic Govt. 44. A State which does not promote or interfere in the affairs of religion is referred to as (2015) a) Secular b) Sovereign c) Democratic d) Socialist 45. Secular means (2016) a) Treating all religious equally b) No king or queen, president is the head of the state c) Peoples government d) Full authority of the government to legislate on its people 46. The Aims and the objectives of the Constitution have been enshrined in a) Part III Fundamental Rights b) Part IV Directive Principles c) Fundamental Duties d) Preamble 47. Fraternity means a) Spirit of brotherhood b) Unity and Integrity c) Federal Concept d) Humane treatment 48. India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, democratic, republic. This expression occurs in a) Fundamental Rights b) Citizenship c) Directive principles d)Preamble 49. Which of the following is described as a “soul of the Constitution” a) Fundamental Rights b) Citizenship c) Directive principles d) Preamble 50. The preamble secures Justice, Liberty, Equality and fraternity to a) Residents of India b) All Citizens c) All Non-Residents d) The Members of Parliament 51. The phrase ‘Economic’ justice is found in (2015) a) Preamble and fundamental Rights b) Preamble and Directive principles c) Fundamental Rights & duties d) Directive principles and fundamental duties 5 CHAPTER 4: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS (PART III) 52. In the Constitution of India the Fundamental Rights or FRs were (2015) a) Were added by 1st Amendment b) Were added by 42nd Amendment c) Formed a part of the original constitution d) None of the Above 53. India derived inspiration from OR borrowed the Idea of incorporating FRs in the Constitution of India from a) USA b) France c) China d) UK 54. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to its Citizens cannot be suspended a)Except by the order of President during the National Emergency b)Except through an order of the President during war c) Except by an order of Supreme Court d) None of the above 55. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to its Citizens can be suspended a) By President during the National Emergency b) By President during all type of Emergency c) By President with prior approval of Supreme Court d) By President under any condition 56. Which of the following is no longer a fundamental Rights (2016) a) Right to liberty b) Right to Equality c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to property 57. Which of the following is not a FRs no more or Which of the following ceased to be fundamental Rights in our Constitution a) Right to Property b) Right to assemble peacefully c) Right to move freely d) Right to Constitutional remedies 58. Right to Property was dropped from FRs and took shape of the legal Right (Art.300A) by way of a) 44th Amendment in 1978(Morarji Desai) b) 42nd Amendment c) 40th Amendment d) 24th amendment 59. Which one is not a fundamental Rights? (2015) a) Right against exploitation b) Right to Strike c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to equality 60. Under Art.368 Parliament has no power to repeal FRs because they are a) Human Rights b)Basic structure of Constitution c) Enshrined under Part.III d) All of the above 61. FR can be claimed against the a) State b) Judiciary c) Individuals d) all of the above 6 62. Fundamental Rights are available against __________ (2016) a)the action of both State& private individual b) the action of the state c) the action of the Individuals d) none of the above 63. FRs are can be restricted or abrogated by the Parliament to a) the members of Armed forces b) Member of paramilitary forces c) Police forces d)all of the above 64. By which FRs the other FRs can be enforced or protected a) Right to constitutional Remedies b) Right to Equality c) Right to freedom d) none of the above 65. A citizen can directly move to SC for the enforcement of FR under ARTICLE a) 14 b) 30 c) 31 d) 32 66. A Citizen’s FR are protected a) When the citizen approached the High/Supreme Court for remedy b) Automatically by Supreme Court c) By parliament when the citizen bring the issue before it d) By the Executive when citizen bring the issue before it 67. For the enforcement of FR Court can issue a) A Decree b) Writs c) A Notification d) An ordinance 68. Who enjoys the Right to impose reasonable restriction on FRs of Indian citizen? a) Parliament b) Supreme Court c) Prime Minister d) President 69. Who is authorized to impose reasonable restriction on FRs of Indian citizen? a) Legislature b) Judiciary C) Executive d) All of These 70. Who can abridge the Fundamental Rights without damaging or destroying the Basic features of Indian Constitution? a) Parliament b) Supreme Court c) Prime Minister d) President 71. Who is the ‘Protector’ of OR ‘Guardian’ of FRs a) Parliament b) Supreme Court c) Prime Minister d) President 72. Any violation of FR can be enforced in a) High Courts only b) Supreme Court only c) Both SC & HC d) Any courts in INDIA 7 73. The FRs ensure the protection of a) Citizens against arbitrary Rule b) the Pride of the Citizens c) Law & order in country d) People against exploitation by traders 74. Indian Constitution grants to the citizens ________ FRs a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Seven 75. The main objective of FR is to a) Ensure individual liberty b) ensure independence of judiciary c) Promote socialist pattern of the society d) All of the above 76. Match the following: (2014) i) Righttoequality a) Article -17 ii) Abolition ofUntouchability b) Article-14 iii) FreedomofAssembly c) Article - 19( 1)(d) iv) Freedomof movement d) Article - 19(1)(b) a) i - d , ii - c , iii - a ,iv –b b) i-a,ii-d.iii-b,iv-c c)i-b,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c d) i - d , ii -b. iii - c , iv - a. RIGHT TO EQUALITY: ART.14 TO ARTICLE 18 77. Right Equality guaranteed under Indian constitution does not include a)Economic Equality b) Equality before Law c) Equal protection of law d) Social Equality 78. Equality before law implies a) That all the religions should be treated equally b) The law should be same for both in case of men and women c) Equal opportunities in social and economic matters to all citizens d)Absence of any privilege in favor of any person 79. Right to Equality under Indian Constitution means (2016) a) Right to treat people equally b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequal c) Upliftment of SC’s & ST’s and backward class people d) None of the above 80. Legal Equality implies that a) There should be equality amongst equals and inequality among unequal’s b) The state cannot enact different laws for different groups of people c) Everybody is equal before law d) There should be no special law for any category of people 81. Rule of Equality not applicable to a) Prime Minister b) Governor& President c) Union law minister d) Chief Justice of India 8 82. Right Equality guaranteed under Article a) 13 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16 83. Which of the following FR abolished discrimination a) Equality b) freedom of religion c) Against exploitation d) Cultural & educational 84. Art 14 guarantees equality before law to a) Citizens of India b) Persons of Indian origin c) All persons residing in the territory of India d) All persons 85. Creamy Layer means a) Persons having higher income b) Highly cultured persons c) Persons holding high Posts d) Highly educated persons 86. Mandal Commission deals with a) Reservation for Backward class people b) Rights of Minority c) Law relating to Sexual harassment d) Law relating to child labour 87. Seats in Educational Institution can be reserved for a) Socially and educationally backward people b) Socially backward people c) Educationally backward people d) Muslims 88. Maximum % of Reservation in educational institution is a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 33% 89. Which provision authorize the Parliament to discriminate in favor of women against men? a) Art.15(3) b) Art. 15(1) c) Art.16(1) d) all of the above 90. Right to Equality a) Permits the state to make special provision for the Women and children and backward classes b) Permits the state to make discrimination on the grounds of residence c) Prevent the state from making special provision for the Women and children and backward classes d) Permits the state to nationalize all the means of production and distribution 91. Art 15(3) confers special provision to a) Women b) Children c) Women & Children d) SCs & STs 92. Equal opportunity in the matter of public employment guaranteed under Article a) 13 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16 9 93. Which of the following FR abolished “Untouchability” and its practice a) Equality b) freedom of religion c) Against exploitation d) Cultural & educational 94. Constitution of India says ‘untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is prohibited. This is provided under a) Right to Equality b) Right to Liberty c) Right to freedom of religion d) Right to Constitutional remedies 95. Untouchability is associated with___________ in equality a) Social b) Political c) Economic d) Cultural 96. Equality before lawpermits(2014) a)Legislation based on race, religion, caste sex and place ofbirth b) Class legislation and prohibits legislatureclassification c) Legislative classification based on caste but prohibits class legislation based onreligion d) Legislation classification and prohibits classlegislation RIGHT TO FREEDOM: ART.19 TO 22 97. Article 19 provides for (2015) a) Four freedoms b) Five freedoms c) Six freedoms d) Seven freedoms 98. Freedom of speech and expression does not include a) Commercial advertisement b) The Right to express one’s own conviction c) the right to propagate the views of others person d) calling for Bundh 99. Freedom press is included under in Right to a) Speech & Expression b) Education c) Persona liberty d) carry any profession 100. Freedom of press is protected under Article a) 19 (1) (a) b) 19 (1) (b) c) 19 (1) (c) d) 19 (1) (d) 101. Freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are suspended during emergency on the ground of (2014) a) Internal disturbance b) failure of constitutional machinery c) Financial crisis d) War or external aggression 102. Right to freedom guaranteed under art.19______________during emergency a) Can be restrained b) cannot be restrained c) Cannot be suspended d) can be suspended 103. Contempt of Court places restriction on which of the following FR a)Right to freedom b) Right to Equality c) Right to against exploitation d) Right to Constitutional remedies 10 104. Art.19(2) under Indian Constitution speaks about a) Reasonable Restriction b) Absolute restriction c) Legal rights d) none of these 105. Right to freedom can be restricted in the interest of a) Public order b) Security of the state c) Friendly relation with foreign country d) all of these 106. Right to freedom of speech is subject to reasonable restriction in the grounds of protection of a) Dignity of the council of minister b) Security of the state c) Dignity of the office of Prime Minister d) Sovereignty and integrity of India 107. This is not a ground to impose restriction under Art.19(2) on Right to freedom of speech and expression a) Maintenance of Law & order b) Security of state c) Morality & decency d) Contempt of court 108. Which of the following is called as bulwark/safeguard of democracy a) Right to Speech b) Right to form Association c) Reside in any part of India d) Move freely 109. FRs which cannot be suspended even during the emergency are under a) 14 & 15 b) 29 & 30 c) 23 & 24 d) 20 & 21 110. Original Constitution classified FRs in to 7 categories, but now there are a) Four b) five c) Six d) Seven 111. Which one of the following FR is restrained by Preventive detention Act? a) Freedom b) Religion c) Equality d) Constitutional Remedies 112. Who are not entitled to form Union a) Police b) Students c) Labors d) Teachers 113. This is no the ground to impose restriction on Right of freedom of Speech and Expression a)Public Nuisance b) Friendly relation with foreign countries c) Defamation d) Incitement to an offence 114. Under the Indian Constitution a citizen a) Can be deprived of life and personal liberty only in accordance of the procedure established by law b) can be deprived of life and liberty by the President during Emergency c) Cannot be deprived the life and personal liberty at any circumstance d) None of the above 115. The prohibition ex-post facto-(effect from past date)law imposed by Art.20 is applicable to a) Civil cases b) Criminal cases c) Constitutional cases d) all types of cases 11 116. “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once” is the principle called as a) Double jeopardy b) Testimonial compulsion c) Ex-Post facto Law d) single jeopardy 117. If an act is not an offence on the date of its commission, a law enacted on future cannot make such act an offence- is the principle of a)Double jeopardy b) Testimonial compulsion c) Ex-Post facto Law d) single jeopardy 118. Ex post factolawunder Article 20 means a) Passing criminal law with retrospective effect b) A law applicable only during the emergency c) An invalid law d) An out dated law 119. Right to Primary Education is a a) Fundamental Rights b) Directive Principles c) Fundamental Duties d) None of the above 120. Right to privacy includes Right to a) Personal liberty b) Reside in any part of India c) Practice any profession d) Move freely in India 121. Which important Human Rights is Protected in Art.21 of our Constitution a) Right to life and personal liberty b) Right to Equality c) Right to freedom of speech d) Righto freedom of Religion 122. Art.21A was inserted under the Indian Constitution by way of _____ constitutional amendments a) 73rd b) 74th c) 86thin 2002 d) 42nd 123. Earlier to 86th Amendment Art.21A is in the form of a) DPSP b) FR c) Fundamental Duties d) Rule of Law 124. What is the object of Art.21A of Constitution a) Higher Education b) Secondary Education c) Post graduation d) Primary Education 125. Education guaranteed under Art.21A shall be between the age group of a) 7 to 15 b) 6 to 14 c) 5 to 14 d) 1 to 14 126. Right to education is a part of a) Right to life b) Right to social Equality c) Right to freedom of profession d) Right to freedom of expression 12 127. Right to life includes Right to a) Make a will b) Right contest election c) Property d)Get Education 128. On the Basis of Article 21A Parliament Enacted a) Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE)Act,2009 b) RTI Act c) Primary education Act d)None of the above 129. Right to Decent Environment includes a) Right to life b) Right to equal protection of law c) Freedom to reside anywhere in India d) Right to Religion 130. Right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Art.21 implies a) Right to survive b) Mere animal existence with dignity c) Right to live full life d) Right of every human being to live with dignity 131. Any law depriving personal liberty guaranteed under Art.21 had to confirm with a) Art.19 b) Art 20 c) Art.22 d) Both Art.20 and 22 132. Any law laid down by Parliament to deprive the personal liberty should be a) Reasonable b) Just c) Fair d) all of the above 133. No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed a) Of the time when he will be produced before the magistrate b) On the ground for such arrest c) Of the orders of the court d) None of the above 134. This is not the right of the arrested person (2016) a) To inform him the ground of his arrest b) To consult his lawyer c) To produce before magistrate immediately d) To produce before magistrate within 24 hours 135. A person arrested has to be produced beforemagistrate (2016) a) 48 hours b) 24 Hours c) one week d) 72 hours 136. right of the arrested person to be informed about his ground of arrest a) Mandatory b) Directory c) Discretion of the Police d) In directory 137. A person is detained under Preventive Detention Law when a) He has committed offence against the public b) He is likely to cause harm to the public c) He is about escape from India d) He has violated law made by the Central Government 13 138. When a person detained under special law a)An advisory board has to be constituted within 3months b) A charge sheet must be filed within 3 months before Magistrate c) He should be produced within 3 months before magistrate d) He should be released within 3 months RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION: ART.23 & 24 139. Rights against exploitation seeks to protect the weaker sections of the society by (2016, 2014) a) Giving equal pay for equal work for men and women b) Prohibiting human trafficking and Begar c) Providing compulsory education for children below the age of 14 years d) None of the above 140. Which FR granted by the Constitution prohibits traffic in Human beings a) Right to Equality b) Right to speech c) Right to freedom d) Right against exploitation 141. Traffic in human being means a) Transporting human beings b) Traffic in places having dense population c) Illegal sale of human organs d) Selling and purchasing men & women 142. Right against exploitation prohibits a) Traffic in human beings b) women working at nights in working place c) Marriage of minor girls d) Lending money at highest interest 143. Constitution grants right against exploitation to “(C)Children/ (W) Women/(D) Dalits/(T) Tribles” a) C & W b) C & T c) C,W& T d) C, T & D 144. Exploitation of any sort is prohibited under the Article a) 19 b) 22 c) 23 d) 20 145. A laborer is entitled to get at least minimum wages, otherwise violation of Article a) 19 b) 22 c) 23 d) 20 146. A laborer is entitled to get at least minimum wages, otherwise violation of Article a) 19 b) 22 c) 23 d) 20 147. Child labour is prohibited under Article a) 19 b) 23 c) 24 d) 20 14 RIGHT TO FREEDOM OF RELIGION: ART.25 TO ART.28 148. India has recognized a)No religion as national religion b) only one religion as national religion c) Three religions as national religion d) five religions as national religion 149. Freedom of religion guaranteed under Art.25 is applicable to a) Persons residing within India b)all persons c) Citizens only d) Persons of Indian Origin 150. The secular provisions under Indian Constitution provided under Article a) 23 b) 24 c) 25 d) 26 151. Art.25 guarantees freedom of religion, but subject to restriction on the grounds of a) Morality b) Public order c) Health d) allof these 152. Right to religion is not subjectto (2015) a)Publicorder b) publicmorality c)publicwelfare d) publichealth CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS: ART.29 TO ARTICLE 30 153. Minority may be(2015, 2014) a) Regional and National b) Linguistic and Religious c) National and Racial d) Racial and Regional 154. The Constitution does not protect the right of Minority with regard to a) Culture b) Language c) Script d) Cult 155. Right to Cultural and educational Rights implies (2016) a) Provision of free and compulsory education b) Special assistance to backward classes to educate them c) Provision of religious and cultural instructions in schools run by the government d) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice 156. Which among the following article guarantees the right of the minorities to establish and administer the educational institution? a) 30 b) 29 c) 27 d) 28 157. The Right to establish educational institutions under Art.30 is applicable to a) Only Religious minorities b) Both Linguistic and Religious c) Only Linguistic minorities d) None of the above 15 158. The main objective of the Cultural and educational right of the citizen to a) Help minorities to conserve their culture b) Evolve single and integrated Indian culture c) To preserve the rich cultural heritage of India d) all of these 159. Right to cultural and educational rightsimplies (2016) a) Provision of free and compulsoryeducation b) Special assistance to backward classes to educatethem c) Provision of religious and cultural instructions in schools run by thegovernment d) Rightofminoritiestoestablishandadministereducationalinstitutionsof theirchoice RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDY: ART.32-35 160. WhichoneofthefollowingArticleisknownasheart andsouloftheconstitution? (2016) a) Article-19 b) Article-32 c) Article-21 d)Article-22 161. Dr.Ambedkar describe one of the following FR as Heart & Soul of Indian Constitution a) Right to Property b) Right to Constitutional remedies c) Right to Religion d) Right to Freedom of speech 162. Which of the following right conferred by Indian Constitution is also available to non-citizens a) Right to Constitutional Remedies b) Freedom to acquire property c) Freedom to move and settle in any part of India d) Freedom of speech, assembly and association 163. Right to Constitutional remedies are a) Fundamental Rights b) Legal Rights c) Constitutional Rights d) Natural Rights 164. Constitutional remedies can be suspended by a) Supreme Court b) President during National Emergency c) Prime Minister d) Parliament 165. The Constitution of India confers a special authority for the enforcement of FRs on the a) Parliament b) Supreme Court of India c) President d) Prime Minister 166. writs is an order issued by HC or SC for the ________ of our Fundamental Rights (2016) a) Encroachment b) Enforcement c) endangering d) Dissolving 167. The FRs of Indian Citizen in our Constitution are contained in ORFRs guaranteed under________of the Indian Constitution a) Part-I b) Part-II c) Part-III d) Part-IV 16 168. Which of the following writs issued by the Supreme Court if it send an order to restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled? (2015) a) Certiorari b) Habeas corpus c) Quo warranto d) Prohibition 169. Which writ give the meaning ‘we command’ in letters (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition (c) Quo Warranto (d) Mandamus 170. Which of the following writs issued by to public corporations, public authorities or inferior courts directing them to perform their public duty? a) Mandamus b) Habeas corpus c) Quo warranto d) Prohibition 171. Which one of the following writs were issued by the court in case of an illegal detention of a person (2016, 2014) (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition (c) Quo Warranto (d) Mandamus 172. Writs can be issued for the enforcement of FRs by a) Supreme Court b) President c) Prime Minister d) Parliament 173. Which is not a writ a) Writ of Mandamus b) Writ of Habeas corpus c) Writ of Certiorari d)writ of prevention 174. How many types of writs are there a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 175. Writ can be directly filed in a) District & Session court b) Magistrate court c) Civil Court d)Supreme court 176. Writ of Habeas Corpus is issued a)In the form of an order calling upon a person who has detained another person to bring the person before the court and show authority for such detention b) By a superior court to the lower court directing it to transfer the record of proceedings in case for its review c) By a superior court to a subordinate court to do something in the nature of its allotted duty d) In the form of an order to stop proceedings in a certain case 177. Writ of habeas corpus means a) Produce the Person before thecourt b) we Command c) To quash the order of lower court d) all of these 178. Which one of the following writ is a bulwark/Safeguard of personal freedom? a) Mandamus b) Habeas corpus c) Quo warranto d) Certiorari 17 179. Which writ of the following literally means ‘you may have the body” a) Mandamus b) Habeas corpus c) Quo warranto d) Certiorari 180. The writ of mandamus is issued by superior court to a) To command a person or public authority to do something in the nature of publicduty b) c) d) 181. Writ of Mandamus can be issued on the ground of a) Non-performance of public duties b) Un lawful detention c) To quash the order of lower court d) all of these 182. The writ of Prohibition is issued by superior court to a) Prohibits lower court exceeding its jurisdiction and acting contrary to the rule of principles of natural justice b) c) d) 183. The writ of certiorari is issued by superior court to a) To an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review and acts in excess of its jurisdiction b) c) d) 184. The writ in the form of order which removes a suit from an inferior court to superior court to prevent an excess of jurisdiction is known as a) Mandamus b) Habeas corpus c) Quo warranto d) Certiorari 185. The writ of quo warranto is an order from a superior court a) Whereby it can all upon a person to show under what authority he is holding the office b) c) d) 186. Writ of Quo-Warranto can be issued on the ground of a) Nonperformance of public duties b) Un lawful detention c) To quash the order of lower court d) Unlawful occupation of Public office 18 CHAPTER 5 : DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLE OF STATE POLICY (PART IV) 187. The concept of DPSP borrowed from the Constitution of a) Ireland b) USSR c) Japan d) USA 188. DPSP under Indian Constitution are guaranteed under a) Part I b) Part II c) Part II d) Part IV 189. Who describe the DPSP as the “novel features” of the Indian Constitution a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad b) Jawaralal Nehru c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar d) Dr.K.M.Munshi 190. Who amongst the following wanted the DPSP to be the basis all future legislation a) Dr.Ambedkar b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad d) Mahatma Gandhi 191. The DPSP aims at a) Establishing a welfare state b) Communist state in our country c) Capitalist State in our country d) None of the above 192. The DPSP are a) Social Rights b) Fundamental rights c) Constitutional rights d) Directive principle of state 193. The main purpose of including DPSP in the Indian Constitution is a) To check arbitrary action of the Government b) To establish secular State c) To provide opportunities for the development d) Toestablish a welfare state 194. The main objective of DPSP are a) To establish political democracy in the country b) To establish secular State c) To raise the moral and ethical standard of people d) Toestablish social and economic democracy in the country 195. The DPSP aims at a) Providing a social and economic base for a genuine democracy in the country b) Ensuring strengthening of the country’s independence c) Ensuring individual liberty d) none of the above 196. The DPSP are a) Positive instructions to government to work for the attainment of set of objectives b) Negative injections to the government to refrain from encroaching on freedom of people c) Directives to the State to enhance the international prestige of the country d) Directives to the government to ensure individual liberty 19 197. DPSP are in the nature of a) Obligation of the State b) Limitation on the state c)Guidelines to the State d) None of the above 198. The Constitution assures economic justice to the Indian citizens through a) DPSP b) FRs c) FD’s d) All of the above 199. DPSP included in our constitution from articles a) 38 to 51 b)36 to 51 c) 37 to 51 d) 36 to 51 A 200. All of the following Articles Deals with DPSP except a) 43 b) 48 c) 32 d) 51 201. DPSP are a) Non-Justiceable b) Justiceable c) Sometime Justiceable d) always Justiceable 202. The DPSP a) Can be enforced in Supreme Court b) can be enforced in High Court c) Cannot be enforced in any court d) Can be enforced relating to SC & ST only 203. By whom the DPSP can be amendable a) Parliament supported by more than 50% of the States b) by MP’s of LS and RS c) by MLA’s d) None of the above 204. Planning in India derives its objectives from the a) DPSP b) FRs c) FD’s d) All of the above 205. The DPSP can be classified in to a) Communist, Gandhian and liberals b) Socialists, Gandhians and liberals c) Capitalist, Socialist and liberals d) None of the above 206. Which one of the following is a DPSP a) Giving equal rights to all b) Rising the standard of living of the people c) Giving freedom to all d) Giving political rights to all 207. Which Article provides for uniform civil code to all citizens in India a) 42 b) 43 c)44 d) 45 208. Uniform Civil code means a)Codified Civil law applicable to all persons of India irrespective of their religion/community b) a code related to individual’s public life c) A code exclusively for Hindus only d) None of the above 20 209. Uniform Civil code means a) Common civil law applicable to all irrespective of their religion b) Civil law applicable to only Muslims and Christians c) Common civil code applicable to common man d) Common civil procedure code 210. Which among the following DPSP not implemented so far a)Uniform Civil Code b) Promotion of International peace c) Separation of judiciary from executive d) Organization of village panchayath 211. DPSP to be followed by the State for securing economic justice does not include a) To protect health and strength of workers b) Equal pay for equal work c) Equal right of men & women to adequate means of livelihood d) To secure uniform civil code 212. Right to adequate means of livelihood is to be provided by the State under the Article a) 37 b) 38 c) 39 d) 40 213. Article 51 mandates Indians Foreign Policy to a) all of these b) Maintain just and good relation between nations c) Promote international peace and security d) Encourage settlement of international dispute by arbitration 214. The phrase Economic justice found in (2015) a) Preamble and FRs b) Preamble and FDs c) Preamble and DPSP d) None of the above 215. Article 45 mandates the State to provides for a) Early child hood care and education for all children up to the age of 6 years b)Free and compulsory education c) Free and compulsory education for all children up to 14 years of age d) Free and compulsory education for all children up to 18 years of age 216. It is the obligation of the state to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest and of national importance under the Article a) 49 b) 51 c) 50 d) 48 217. DPSP seeks a) To make the constitution an instrument of social change b) To strengthen judiciary c) To curb the authoritative Rule d) to establish supremacy of constitution 218. In which part of the constitution does the concept of welfare finds elaboration? a) DPSP b) FDs c) Preamble d) FRs 21 219. If India has to provide Socio-economic welfare to its citizen, it should give enforceability to a) DPSP b) FDs c) Preamble d) FRs 220. The state imposing tax on capital and wealth according to taxation laws is protected under Artcle a) 37 b) 38 c) 39 d) 40 221. Which article provide for separation of judiciary form executive a) 50 b) 51 c) 51A d) 49 222. State is obligated to protect and improve the environment and safeguarding the forests and wildlife of the country under the Article a) 48 b) 48 A c) 51 d) 51 A 223. Which one of the following is DPSP a) Abolition of untouchability b) State shall not discriminate against any person on ground of religion, race, caste & sex c) State shall not deny to any citizen equality before law d) The state to endeavor to protect and improve the environment 224. The 42nd Amendment Act made additions to DPSP with regard to the following 3 matters 1) Participation of workers in the management of the industry 2) Minimizing inequality in income and status 3) Protection of environment 4) Free legal aid to the poor: Select the answer from the codes given below a) 1, 2 & 3 b) 1, 2 & 4 c) 1,3 & 4 d) 2. 3 & 4 225. Which one of the following DPSP is based on Gandhian Principles 1)Organization of village panchayath 2) Compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14 years 3)Prohibition on the use of intoxication drinks except for medical purpose 4) Protection of environment Select the answer from the codes given below a) 1& 3 b) 1, 2 & 4 c) 1, 3 & 4 d) 2. 3 & 4 226. Which of the following factors responsible for the slow implementation of DPSP a)All of these b) vastness of country c) Lack of political will d) lack of resources with government 22 227. Which of the following characteristics of the DPSP is incorrect a) Not enforceable by any court b) Fundamental in the governance of the country c) No law can be passed by legislature which is not in conformity with DPSP principles d) Moral guidelines for the governors of the country 228. Which one of the following reflects the socialist ideology a) all of these b) To provide adequate means of livelihood c) To prevent concentration of wealth d) To ensure decent standard of living and leisure for all workers 229. Which one of the following is not listed under liberal principles a) Separation of executive and judiciary b) To secure uniform civil code c) Protection of monuments and places of artistic and historical importance d) None of the above 230. Free legal aid for poor (article 39A) inserted under Indian Constitution by way of ______Amendment. a) 41 b) 42 c) 43 d) 44 231. Village panchayath are best example for India’s_______ form of Government a) Sovereign b) Democratic c) Secular d) Republic 232. Indian Constitution is silent as to which of the following DPSP a) Free legal aid to poor b) equal pay for equal work c) Adult education d) improving standard of living of the people 233. Which one of the following is not a DPSP a) Prohibition of Slaughter of Cows b) Maternity relief c) Improvement of public health d) none of the above 23 CHAPTER 6 : FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ART.51A(PART IV-A) 234. Which committee recommended for inclusion of FDs in to Constitution of India? a) Ashok Mehta committee b)SaradarVallababai Patel committee c) SardarSwaran Sing Committee d) Charan Sing Committee 235. FDs of Indian constitution are a)Inserted by 42nd amendment of constitution b)Part of original constitution c)Incorporated by an order of Supreme Court d) none of the above 236. FDs were incorporated in Part_______ of Indian Constitution a) III b)IV c) IV- A d)V 237. Which of the following are included in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution a) DPSP b) FRs c) FDs d) Local Self Government 238. FDs enshrined under Article a) 51 b) 51-A c) 52 d) none of the above 239. FDs applicable to all a) States b) persons c) Foreigners d) Citizens 240. FDs incorporated in the Indian Constitution in a) 1949 b) 1950 c) 1979 d) 1976 241. FD demands to a) Work sincerely b) abide by the constitution c) Avoid corruption d) abide by moral rules 242. This is not an FD a) To develop scientific temper b) to protect and improve natural environment c) Not to indulge in corruption d) to abide by the constitution 243. For the breach of FD, an action a) Can be initiated in Magistrate court b)Cannot not be initiated in any court c) Can be initiated in High Court only d) Can be initiated in Supreme Court only 244. To respect the National Flag and National Anthem is a) FDs of all citizens b) FRs of every citizens c) Directive principles to state d) none of these 245. The protection & improvement of environment including forest and wild life is enshrined in a) FRs b) FDs c) DPSP d)both answer in b & c 246. The protection & improvement of environment including forest and wild life is enshrined in a) Article 51-A (g) b) Article 51-A (f) c) Article 51-A (e) d) Article 51-A (h) 247. Which of the following is a FD of an Indian Citizen a)To develop scientific temper b) to cast his vote c) To work for removal of literacy d) to respect the elected leaders 24 248. Which of the following is/are FD of an Indian Citizen a) To safeguard public property b) To abjure violence c) To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women d) all of these 249. This is not a fundamental Duty a) Renounce the practices insulting to the dignity pf women b) Respect elders and teachers c) To follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom d) To defend country and render national service 250. By what amendment and with year ‘child education is compulsory between the ages of 6 to 14 years’? a) 86th Amendment Act and 2002 b) 86th Amendment Act and 2004 c) 42nd Amendment Act and 2002 d) 68th Amendment Act and 2002 251. The original text of the constitution doesn’t include FDs, however it is inserted by way of a) 86th Amendment Act in 2002 b) 86th Amendment Act in 1976 c) 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 d) 42nd Amendment Act in 2002 252. The 42nd amendment act introduced a) FDs b) FRs c) DPSP d) None of the above 253. The 11thFDs. Article 51-A (k) was inserted by _______Amendment Act, 2002 a)86th b) 42ndc) 84th d) 56th 254. This is not a fundamental Duty enshrined under Article 51-A a) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom c) To renounce the practices derogatory to the dignity of women d) To respect our political leaders, our teachers and parents 25 CHAPTER 7- PRESIDENT (ARTICLES 52-78) PART-V 255. The president of India has similar constitutional authority as the a) President of USA b) President of USSR c)British Monarch d) President of EGYPT 256. Which of the following is not one of the organ of the Union /State a) Judiciary b) Legislature c) Executive d)Press 257. The organ of the State which make law a) Judiciary b) Legislature c) Executive d) none of the above 258. The organ of the State which implement the law is known as a) Judiciary b) Legislature c) Executive d) none of the above 259. Who represent the nation but does not rule the nation a) Parliament b) President c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS 260. India is known as a Parliamentary democracy because the a)Executives is responsible to the Parliament b) MP’s are directly elected by the people c) President is not a MP d) Powers has been clearly distributed among the center and states 261. Parliamentary form of government the council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the a)Parliament b) President c) Prime Minister d) Supreme Court 262. The President of India is integral Part of the a) Lokasabha b) Rajyasabha c) Union Cabinet d) Parliament 263. All the Executive powers and the Defence forces of the union shall be vested with a)Parliament b) President c) Prime Minister d) Supreme Court 264. When can President can refer a matter to the Supreme Court for its opinion? a) When a matter is of public importance b) When emergency promulgated c) When cabinet is not functioning properly d) whenever President feels 265. The President of India is a) Appointed b) Elected c) Selected d) Nominated 266. The President of India is a) Appointed by union cabinet b) Elected indirectly by the people c) By the Vice President d) Nominated by Chief justice of India 26 267. Who elects President of India? a) By the Electoral College b) By Prime Minister c) By Supreme court d) By Vice President 268. The President is elected indirectly by the electoral college consisting a) Members of Lokasabha b) Members of Rajyasabha c) Members of state Legislative assemblies d) All of the above 269. The president of India is elected indirectly by the Electoral College. Which of the following is not included in the Electoral College? a) Nominated members of LS, RS &assemblies of the union territories b) Elected members of Lokasabha c) Elected members of Rajyasabha d) Elected members of state legislative assembly 304. Which one of the following does not take part in the election of the President? a) Members of Lokasabha b) Members of Rajyasabha c) Members of Legislative assembly d) Members of Legislative Council 270. No person shall be eligible for the election as President of India unless he is a a) A member of RS b) Qualified to contest the Lokasabha c) A member of LS d) Qualified to contest Rajyasabha 305. To be eligible (age in years) for appointment as President of India, a candidate must be a) Over 50 b) Age limit is not prescribed in Constitution c) Over 35 d) over 30 271. The election of the office of the President is conducted by a) Chief justice of India b) Election Commission c) Prime Minister d) Parliament 272. Oath to the President is administered by a) Chief justice of India b) Chief Election Commissioner c) Prime Minister d) Speaker 273. How many times the President can seek re-election to his post a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d) Infinite time 274. What is the eligibility, age and tenure of office of the President and vice-President? a) 40 and 5 b) 35 and 6 c) 35 and 5 d) 40 and 6 275. What is the maximum age for election to the office of President a) 75 b) 85 c) 95 d) No age limit 276. The dispute regarding the election of President and Vice President is decided by a) Supreme Court b) Election Commission c) High Court d) Parliament 27 277. President can tender his resignation to a) Prime Minister b) Vice President c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Election Commissioner 278. A bill for the purpose of re-organization of States shall be introduced in either of House of the Parliament with the prior approval of a) Vice-President b) President c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS 279. Who is the commander-in-chief of all the armed forces a) Vice-President b) President c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS 280. How many Anglo Indians and other members can be nominated by the President to the LS & RS? a) 2 and 22 b) 2 and 12 c) 12 and 22 d) 1 and 12 281. The President will decide the question as to disqualification of the MPs in consultation with a)Vice-President b) Election Commissioner c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS 282. Which article empowers the President to give assent to Bills a) 100 b)111 c) 52 d) 123 283. Which article empowers the President to seek an advice from Supreme Court? a) 143 b) 111 c) 52 d) 123 284. The President of India may a) Dissolve LS b) Dissolve RS c) Adjourn LS d) Adjourn RS 285. The President is immune from the following during the term of Office a) The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of his duty of his office b) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted c) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President shall be issued from any court d) all of the above 286. An ordinance promulgated by the President when Parliament is not in session is a) Invalid b)Valid c) Unlawful d) Illegal 287. The Ordinance making power of the president is subjected to the control of the a) Supreme Court b) Vice President c) Prime Minister d)Parliament 288. The Indian President can be impeached by the Parliament if a) He refuses to sign bill passed by the Parliament b) Unable to discharge hi duties due to old age c) Failure to follow the advice given by the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers d)He is charged with the violation of theConstitution 28 289. Impeachment proceeding of the President shall be initiated in a) Either House of Parliament b) Only in Lokasabha c) Only in Rajyasabha d) in Supreme Court of India 290. The system of impeachment of President is borrowed from the constitution of a) USA b) USSR c) China d) Britain 291. Till now any President has been removed under the motion of Impeachment a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d)No 292. Final authority to make a proclamation of Emergency rests with a)Chief justice of India b) President c) Prime Minister d) Speaker 293. President can grant pardon in a)All cases involving death sentence b) All cases of Punishment by court martial c) An offence against law in union and concurrent list d) All of the above 294. The President of India is not having a) Legislative & Executive Power b) Financial and Judicial Power c) Military and Diplomatic power d)Power to control Judiciary 295. Financial powers of the President involves a)To appoints finance Commission b) Obligation of president to see that the annual income-Expenditure statement (Budget) is placed before the Parliament for approval c) Money bill can be introduced after the prior approval of the President d) All of the above 296. This is not the legislative power of the President a) To Assent legisalation b) To summon each of the house c)To grant Pardon d) Tonominate 12 members to RS 297. Who is the Ex-officio chairman of the Rajyasabha a) Vice-President b) President c) Prime Minister d) Speaker of LS 298. When the office of the president is vacant, the same must be filled within a) 4 months b) 8 months c) 6 months d) 12 months 299. In the event of death or resignation of President who discharge the duties of President? a) Prime Minister b) Vice President c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Election Commissioner 300. Who discharge the duties of President if both President and Vice President seat are vacant? a) Prime Minister b) Vice President c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Election Commissioner 29 301. Who discharge the duties of President if President, Vice President & Chief Justice of India are not available or vacant? a) Prime Minister b) Next Senior Most Judge of Supreme Court c) Speaker d) Chief Election Commissioner 302. Who is legally competent to declare war and peace? a) Prime Minister b) Vice President c) Chief Justice of India d)President 303. After a bill passed by the Parliament and sent to the President for his assent a) He can sent it back for reconsideration b) He can withhold the bill c) He cannot refuse his assent to money bill d) all of the above 304. The President has the power to appoint a) Supreme Court and High court Judges b) Members of UPSC and Finance commission c) Attorney general, and Comptroller and Auditor general of India d)all of the above 305. President can dismiss a member of the Union Council of minister a) On recommendation of Prime Minister b) with the consent of speaker c) At his desecration ` d) he can’t dismiss 306. President rule can be imposed in the states a) During national emergency b)On failure of constitutional machinery in a state c) During general elections d)During communal clashes 307. Which of the following is not done by President a) Prorogation of house of Parliament b) Summoning the house of Parliament c)Adjournment of the house of parliament d)dissolving the Lokasabha 308. The President has power to issue ordinance when a) There is national emergency b) The Lokasabha has dissolved c) The Parliament not in session d) Government wants immediate Legislation 309. A bill presented in the Parliament becomes an Act after a) It is passed by both houses b) Prime Minister signed to it c) The President has given assentto it d)After signed by Speaker 310. Executive power of the union is vested with a) The Prime Minister b)The President c) The Parliament d)The Chief Justice of India 311. The President of India a) Can address either house of Parliament b) Can dissolve LS c) Can promulgate ordinance during the recess of Parliament d)all of the above 312. Who will preside over the joint session of Parliament a) The Prime Minister b) The President c) The Speaker d) The Chief Justice of India 30 313. Who is the Constitutional head of the state a) The Prime Minister b) The President c) The Speaker d) The Chief Justice of India 306. The Custody of the contingency fund of India is with a) The Prime Minister b) The President c) The finance minister d) The Chief Justice of India 307. Who is having the power to summon and dissolve the House of LS ? a) The Prime Minister b) The President c) The Speaker d) The Chief Justice of India 308. A bill presented in parliament after its pass in the parliament becomes an Act after a) The President has given assent to it b) Prime minister sign to it c) it passed by both the houses d) the court decision 309. Veto power is the power of ____ ________ to withhold or refuse to assent a legislation a) The Prime Minister b) The President c) The Speaker d) The Chief Justice of India 310. Veto power is the power of ____ ________ to withhold or refuse to assent a legislation a) Executive b) Legislature c) Judiciary d) all of the above 311. Who has the power to pardon in case of capital punishment? a) The Prime Minister b) The President c) The Home Minister d) The Chief Justice of India 312. Which Artcle empower the President to grant pardon? a) 70 b) 71 c) 72 d) 73 313. Pardoning power exercises by President on the advice of a) Union Home Minister b) Vice-President c) Chief Justice of India d) Speaker of Lok-sabha 314. Which of the following constitutional post is enjoyed for a fixed term? a)The President b) Prime Minister c) Governor d) all of the above 315. The President can nominate two members to LS to give representation to a) SC & ST community b) Backaward Class c) Anglo-Indians d) Muslim community 316. The President, the head of the State under Parliamentary system in India enjoys a) Only nominal Power b) No power c) Absolute power d) Real Power 31 317. When President has discretionary power in appointing the Prime Minister? a) When LS is Dissolved b) when no political party enjoys majority inLS c) Never d) When Prime minister Joins another Party 318. The ordinance pronounce by the President usually remain in force for a) six weeks after the commencement of next session of Parliament b) Six weeks from the date of issue c) six months from the date of issue d) six months after the commencement of next session of Parliament 319. Maximum life of the ordinance pronounce by the President a) six years b) Six weeks c) six months and Six weeks d) six months 320. The President address is prepared by a) Special secretary of the President b) Parliamentary affairs Ministry c) Prime Minister and his cabinet d) a cabinet Minister of President’s Choice 321. Who will appoint attorney general of India? a) President b) Chief Justice of India c) Prime Minister d) Law minister 322. Vice President of Indic can be removed from office before expiry of his/her term by a)Two houses of Parliament b) President at his discretion c) RS with two-third majority d) President with the consent of majority of state MLAs 323. Who will elect vice president of India? a) MPs both RS & LS b) MPs only LS c) MPs only RS d) President 324. The Vice-President of India is ex-officio chairman of a) Loksabha b) Rajyasabha c) National development Council d) Planning commission 325. Who decides disputes regarding the election of Vice-President? a) Speaker b)Supreme Court c) Prime Minister d) President 314. The Vice-President of India is elected a) By the people b) By the members of LS c) By the MLAs d) By members of both the houses of the Parliament 315. Who is ex-officio chairman of Rajyasabha a) President b) Vice-President c) Speaker d) Governor 316. The Vice-President a) Right to preside over RS b) Executive power c) Legislative power d) Pardoning power 32 CHAPTER 8: PRIME MINISTER & UNION COUNCIL OF MINISTERS 326. Which Article provide that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister? a) 71 b) 72 c) 73 d) 74 327. The phrase under the Article 74 that there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister is a) Mandatory b) Directory c) Discretion of President d) Discretion of LS 328. The Prime Minister is a) Head of the State b) Head of the Government c) Constitutional Head d) All of the above 329. The Office of the Prime Minister is a) Is based on conventions b) created by the Constitution c) Created by a Statute/law d) all of the above 330. The Prime Minister is a) Elected by the RS b) Elected by the LS c) Appointed by President d) Elected by both the houses in joint sitting 331. Who is the real executive under Indian Constitution? a) President b) Prime Minister c) Chief Election Commissioner d) Chief Justice 332. Who is chief spoke person of the union Government? a) President b) Prime Minister c) Speaker d) Home Minister 333. Who is the chairman of the Planning Commission and National Development Council? a) President b) Prime Minister c) Chief Election Commissioner d) Chief Justice 334. The Minister of the Union Cabinet are responsible/answerable to a) The Prime Minister b) The Lokasabha c) The Speaker d) The President 335. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible/answerable to a) The Prime Minister b) Parliament c) The People d) The President 336. Collective responsible of the cabinet means all ministers are collectively responsible to a) The Prime Minister b) The Lokasabha c) The Speaker d) The President 337. The union ministers hold during the pleasure of President which in fact means during the pleasure of a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India c) The Speaker d) None of the above 338. A Member of Council of Union Ministers can be dismissed by President a) On recommendation of the Prime Minister b) On advice of Chief Justice of India c) On the recommendation of the Speaker d) On his Own 33 339. Sole channel to communicate the President and his council of Ministers is a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India c) The Speaker d) Vice-President 340. A person to be appointed as Prime Minister a) Should become member of Lokasabha or Rajyasabha within 6 Months b) Should be a post graduate c) Should be a Chief Minister of State d) Should be a Law Graduate 341. Generally the Prime Minster is a) Leader of the Majority Party in LS b) Senior Most MP c) A Close Friend of President d) Not a MP 342. Prime Minister hold office a) As long as he enjoys the confidence of President b) As long as he enjoys the confidence of Council of Ministers c) For a fixed term of 5 years d)As long as he enjoys the confidence of Parliament 343. Who announces the government policies on the floor of the House? a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India c) The Speaker d) Vice-President 344. Who recommend the dissolution of Lok Sabha to the President? a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India c) The Speaker d) Vice-President 345. Who preside over the meeting of the Council of Minister a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India c) The Speaker d) Vice-President 346. The Members of Council of Union Ministers are appointed by a) The President on the advice/recommendation of Prime Minister b) The President on recommendation of Parliament c) The Speaker on recommendation of Parliament d) The Prime Minister on recommendation of his party 347. Who allocate portfolios among the Council of Union Ministers a) The President on the advice/recommendation of Prime Minister b) The President on recommendation of Parliament c) The Speaker on recommendation of Parliament d) The President of ruling Party 348. A person can be a Prime Minister or Union Minister without being member of Parliament for a maximum period of a) 4 months b)6 months c) 5 Years d) 1 years 349. Indian Constitution is silent on the concept of a) Deputy Prime Minister b) Deputy Speaker c) Deputy Chairman d) None of the above 34 350. The Prime Minister of India a)Has full desecration to choose the member of Union Council of Minister b) is free to choose his minister only from among the members of LS or RS c) is free to choose his minister after consultation of the President d) Has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues/minister 351. The number of Minsters in the Union Cabinet is fixed by the a) The Prime Minister b) Parliament c) The People d) The President 352. Who will determine the rank of different Ministers in Union and State council of Ministers? a) The Prime Minister & Chief Minister b) Parliament and Assembly c) The People d) The President and Governor 353. Who will allocate the portfolio to the Minsters in the Union Cabinet a) The Prime Minister b) Parliament c) The People d) The President 354. Who is regarded as ‘Key stone of the Indian Constitution or cabinet arch’? a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India c) President d) Home Minister 355. Who said that ‘Prime Minister is the Key stone of the Indian Constitution ’? a) Jennings b) Lord Morey c) Munro d) H.J.Laski 356. Who acts as a channel between Parliament and President of India? a) The Prime Minister b) The Chief Justice of India c) The Speaker d) Vice-President 357. The office of the deputy Prime Minister a) Created by original Constitution b) Extra Constitutional Growth c) Created by 86th Amendment Act d) all of the above 358. Salary of which one of the following is not charged on consolidate fund of India? a) President b) Chief Justice of India c) Comptroller & Auditor general of India d)Prime Minister 359. Generally a union Minister should be a member of a) Judiciary b) Union territory c) Parliament d) none of the above 360. A prime minister acts as a medium of communication between a) LS & RS b) Ministry & President c) Speaker & Deputy Speaker d)President & Vice-President 35 CHAPTER 9 : PARLIAMENT/UNION LEGISLATURE 361. Legislate means a) Make Constitutional amendment b)Make Law c) Form Government d) Put administration authority in to action 362. The word Parliament is derived from the French word “PARLER’ which means a) To vote b) To pass bill c) To talk d) To assemble 363. The Parliament of India is composed of a) LS and RS b) LS and President c) RS and President d) President, LS and RS 364. The Parliament may confer by law any functions on the authorities concerned except a) Prime Minister b) Council of Ministers c) Attorney General d) President 365. The first session of the Parliament after the general election is a) Mandatory b) discretionary c) Directory d) No such Rule 366. The first session in every year of the Parliament is called as a)Budget session b) Winter session c) Monsoon session d) Primary session 367. Usually general budget is presented in the Parliament a) Last day of March b) Last day of February c) First day of March d) First day of February 368. The first session in every year of the Parliament is commence with the address of a) President b) Prime Minister c) Opposition Leader d) Speaker 369. The first Hour of the every sitting in both houses of the Parliament is devoted to a) Zero Hour b) Question hour c) one Hour d) none of the above 370. The Zero Hour of the Parliament is a) An hour when money bill is introduced b) A period exclusively reserved for introduction of private member c) The period of recess intervening between the two bills sessions of the Parliament d) The period immediately following the question hour when the members voice their concerns on various matters of public importance 371. The immediate hour of the question hour is a) Zero Hour b) Special hour c) Answer hour d) second hour 372. Which one of the following is not done by President? a) Dissolving of LS b) Prorogation of Parliament c) Summoning of Parliament d) Adjournment of the houses of Parliament 36 373. The Parliament of India Consists of a) LS & RS b) LS, Speaker and Prime minister c) President & Prime Minister d) President, LS & RS 374. To contest for the election of LS, the person a) Should be a Citizen of India b) Must not hold office of profit c) Must not less than 25 years of age d) all of the above 375. To contest for the election of LS, the person should be a) Citizen of India b) Resident of India for at least 10 years c) Resident of India for at least 12 years d) Resident of India for at least 05 years 376. LS is superior to RS because a) Its members directly elected by the peoples b) It can oust the council of minister through a vote of no-confidence c) It alone controls the purse d)all of the above 377. The other name of Lok-sabha(LS) is a) Lower House/House of state b) Upper House/House of state c) Upper House/House of People d) Lower House/House of people 378. Which one among the following is identified as the ‘democratic chamber’ a)LS b) RS c) Both LS & RS d) none of the above 379. Members of LS are a) Indirectly elected by state Legislatures b) Nominated by President c) Directly elected by the people d) None of these 380. How many seats are reserved for the Union territories in the LS? a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30 381. How many members are representing states in India in the LS? a) 530 b) 500 c) 510 d) 550 382. Seats are allocated to the states in the LS on the basis of a) Their Population b) their Size c) Their Size & Resources d) Their Size, Resources and Population 383. Which state send maximum representative to LS? a) Karnataka b) Madhya Pradesh c) Rajasthan d) Uttar Pradesh 384. The other name of Rajya sabha (RS) is a) Lower House/House of state b) Upper House/House of state c) Upper House/House of People d) Lower House/House of people 385. Which one among the following is identified as the ‘Knowledge House’ a) LS b) RS c) Both LS & RS d) none of the above 37 386. To contest for the election of RS, the person a) Should be a Citizen of India b) Must not hold office of profit c) Must not less than 30 years of age d) all of the above 387. In the RS, the States have been provided representation on the basis of a) Their Population b) their Size c) Their Size & Resources d) Their Size, Resources and Population 388. Which state send maximum representative to RS? a) Karnataka b) Madhya Pradesh c) Rajasthan d) Uttar Pradesh 389. The members of RS Shall be elected by a) MLAs b) MPs and MLA’s c) Members of LS d) Peoples 390. The RS is a Permanent House but a) 1/3 of its members retire every year b) 1/3 of its members retire in two years c) 1/3 of its members retire in three years d) 1/3 of its members retire in four years 391. One third of members of RS retire every_____ year. a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five 392. Who among the following may belong to RS but can speak in both the Houses? a) Ministers b) Nominated MPs of RS c) Leader of the House of RS d) Deputy Chairman of RS 393. Which of the following powers vested exclusively in the RS? a) To initiate impeachment proceedings b) To remove vice-President c) To recommend creation of new all India services d) All of the above 394. What is the minimum age in years to contest to the LS and RS? a) 18 & 21 b) 25 & 30 c) 25 & 35 d) 30 & 35 395. Which one of the following is presided over by non-member? a) LS b) RS c) Vidhana Sabha d) VidhanaParishad 396. Who decides dispute regarding the disqualification of MPs? a) Presidentin consultation with the election commission b) Election commission c) The President d) concerned House 397. Who decides dispute regarding the disqualification of MPs under DEFECTION LAW? a) The Speaker b) Election commission c) The President d) concerned House 398. The Speech made by the MP on the floor of the house a) Can be questioned in any court b) Cannot be questioned in any court c) Can be questioned in Supreme Court d) Can be questioned in High Court 399. A MP enjoys immunity from prosecution for having said anything a) In the Parliament b) Anywhere during the session of Parliament c) At a Press Conference d) Anywhere at any time 38 400. The Parliament or State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission for _________days. a) 30 b) 60 c) 90 d) 120 401. No confidence motion against council of ministers can be introduced in a) LS b) RS c) both in LS & RS d) None of the above 402. Law made by the Parliament on any subject is a) Uniformly applicable to all states b) desecration of state Govt. c) Applicable to only those state which give consent d) none of the above 403. Law made by the Parliament a) Can be declared as extra territorial b) cannot be declared as extra territorial c) Can be declared as extra territorial only by Supreme Court d) none of the above 404. Which of the following shall not be introduced in RS? a) Ordinary Bill b) Finance Bill c) Money Bill d) None of the above 405. A money bill can be originated/initiated a) Only in RS b) Only in LS c) In either house of Parliament d) Only in Joint sitting of LS & RS 406. Which of the following bill shall be introduced in LS only with prior approval of President? a) Ordinary Bill b) Finance Bill c) Money Bill d) None of the above 407. Which of the following bill the President bound to give his assent without sending it back for fresh consideration? a) Ordinary Bill b) Finance Bill c) Money Bill d) None of the above 408. A money bill passed by the LS can be delayed by the RS for a maximum period of a) one month b) 3 months c) 14 days d) 6 months 409. Who decides/certify that a bill is Money bill and his decision is final? a) Speaker b) President c) Prime Minister d) Vice-President 410. Which of the following bill the President can send it back for fresh consideration? a) Ordinary Bill b) Finance Bill c) Money Bill d) None of the above 411. How many times the President can send back non-money bill for fresh consideration? a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d) Any Number of 412. Who among the following can initiate amendment to the Constitution? a) Legislative Assemblies of State b)Either House of the Parliament c) President d)None of the above 39 413. Which of the following bill must be passed by each house of Parliament separately by special majority? a) Ordinary Bill b) Finance Bill c) Money Bill d) Constitution amendment bill 414. The term of LS can be extended beyond its normal term of 5 years by a)President during only National Emergency b) President during all type of Emergency c) President on recommendation of Election commission d) President at his desecration 415. The continuation of National Emergency beyond the period of 6 months is possible only with the approval by a)Parliament with special majority b) Parliament with simple majority c) Supreme Court d) Both Supreme Court & High Court 416. What is the maximum gap in months permissible between 2 sessions of Parliament? a) 3 b)6 c) 9 d) 12 417. Who can dissolve Lokasabha before the expiry of its term of 5 years? a) President at his desecration b) President on recommendation of the Prime Minister c) None of the these d)President on recommendation of the Speaker 418. The RS can be dissolved by a) The President b) The Speaker c) The Chairman of RS d) cannot be dissolved 419. Which of the following statement correctly describes a ‘Hung Parliament’? a) The Prime Minister resigned but the Parliament is not dissolved b) The Parliament lacks quorum to conduct its business c) A Parliament in which no Party has a clear majority d) all of the above 420. Who reserve the right to convene the joint sessions of LS and RS? a) The President b) The Speaker c) The Chairman of RS d) Prime Minister 421. The President can call a joint session of the both the house of Parliament a) If a bill passed by the one House is rejected by the other house b) If the amendment proposed to a bill by one house is not acceptable to other house c) If the house does not take any decision for 6 months on a bill remitted by the other d) All of the above 422. The differences between the two houses of can be resolved through a) A joint session of both the houses b) Calling joint committee c) A mediator d) Mediation by parliamentary Minister 423. Who presides over the joint session of Parliament? a) President b) Vice-President c) Speaker d) Prime-Minister 40 424. Quorum i.e., the minimum Number of Members required to be present in the either house of LS or RS to transact any business is ____ of total strength a) One-Tenth b) One -third c) One-Fifth d) One- Twentieth 425. Special Majority means more than a) 1/3 majority b) 2/3 majority c) 1/2 majority d) 1/4 majority 426. The House of People (LS) can be adjourned sine-die by the a) President b) Vice-President c) Speaker d) Prime-Minister 427. Who preside over LS if the Speaker&Deputy Speaker is vacant? a) A senior most member of LS b) Deputy Chairman of RS c) A member chosen by Council of Ministers d) A Member appointed by President 428. Which assembly presided by non-member? a) LS b)RS c) Stare assembly d) All of the above 429. The speaker of the LS uses his power of casting of vote only a) To save the existing Government b) In case of Emergency c) In case of tie (when votes equal) d) In case of Constitutional amendments 430. LS Secretariat works under the direct supervision of t