CompTIA.220-1101 Master (1).pdf

CompTIA.220-1101.vApr-2024.by.Yasin.168q Number: 220-1101 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120...

CompTIA.220-1101.vApr-2024.by.Yasin.168q Number: 220-1101 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 File Version: 31.0 Exam Code: 220-1101 Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Exam A QUESTION 1 A home user has purchased a subscription for a service that blocks malicious sites by preventing them from resolving correctly. Which of the following settings MOST likely needs to be changed on the user's router to enable this functionally? A. DNS server B. Port forwarding C. Perimeter network D. Universal PnP E. DHCP server Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses. By blocking malicious sites from resolving correctly, the DNS server is able to prevent the user fromaccessing those sites. Therefore, the DNS server setting on the user’s router needs to be changed to enable this functionality123. QUESTION 2 Which of the following is the MAXIMUM power PoE+ provides? A. 15.4W B. 30W C. 60W D. 95W Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The earliest PoE switches from a few years ago generated 15 Watts per port (IEEE 802.3af). Today, most use the PoE+ standard (IEEE 802.3at), which generates up to 30 Watts per port. That's plenty for most devices that people want to connect QUESTION 3 A technician is preparing to set up a gaming computer with the following components: A technician is preparing to set up a gaming computer with the following components: Discrete, high-end graphics card Video capture card High-end processor Multiple hard drives USB 3.0 hub Sound card Which of the following options is the MOST important for the technician to consider before building the gaming computer? A. Redundant power supply B. Modular power supply IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com C. 20-pin vs. 24-pin power adapter D. Power supply wattage rating Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: This is because high-end graphics cards, processors, and multiple hard drives require a significant amount of power to operate. A power supply with insufficient wattage could cause stability issues or even damage the components.The CompTIA A+ Core1 certification guide emphasizes the importance of selecting an appropriate power supply for a computer build. In addition to wattage, other factors to consider when selecting a power supply include efficiency, modularity, and the number and type of connectors required to power the components. However, of the options listed, the wattage rating is the most critical consideration. QUESTION 4 Which of the following cloud models maintains access, even when a local internet outage occurs? A. Private B. SaaS C. Community D. Public Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: In a private cloud model, the cloud infrastructure is maintained within a company's own data center and is used exclusively by that company. Private clouds offer the advantage of maintaining access even when a local internet outage occurs, since the cloud infrastructure is not dependent on a publinetwork connection. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud model in which software applications are hosted by a thirdparty provider and made available to customers over the internet. SaaS is not designed to maintain access in the event of a local internet outage. A community cloud is a shared infrastructure that is used by multiple organizations, typically from the same industry or with similar requirements. Community clouds are not designed to maintain access in the event of a local internet outage. A public cloud is a cloud infrastructure that is maintained by a third-party provider and is made available to the public over the internet. Public clouds are not designed to maintain access in the event of a local internet outage. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 258. QUESTION 5 A user is researching hard drives to upgrade a PC and has decided to purchase a NVMe drive. Which of the following Should the user confirm are available on the PC before making the purchase? (Select TWO). A. SATA B. M.2 C. PCIe D. SAS E. SCSI F. DRAM Correct Answer: B, C Section: Explanation: NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives are high-speed solid-state drives that utilize the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) interface to connect to the motherboard. Before purchasing an NVMe drive, the user should confirm that the PC has an available M.2 slot for the drive and that the PC has a PCIe interface for the M.2 slot. SATA (Serial ATA) is an older interface for hard drives and is not compatible with NVMe drives. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a newer interface for hard drives and is typically used for enterprise-level storage systems. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a parallel interface for hard drives that is primarily used in high-end workstations and servers. DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a type of memory commonly used in computers, but IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com it is not relevant to the storage of data on a hard drive. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 267. QUESTION 6 The Wi-Fi network in the office is experiencing slow connection speeds. Which of the following should the technician check first on the access point? A. Transmit power settings B. Security settings C. Firmware version D. Location Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The transmit power settings of the access point determine how strong the Wi-Fi signal is. If the transmit power is too low, the Wi-Fi network will have slow connection speeds and poor coverage. If the transmit power is too high, the Wi-Fi network will interfere with other nearby networks and devices, causing congestion and performance issues. Therefore, the technician should check the transmit power settings first and adjust them to an optimal level for the office environment. Reference: 8 Reasons Why Your Internet is Slow (and How to Fix It), section "You have weak Wi-Fi signals". 6 Things Slowing Down Your Wi-Fi (And What to Do About Them) - How-To Geek, section "Channel Congestion Dings Wi-Fi Performance". QUESTION 7 A user frequently edits large files and saves them locally on a laptop_ The user has recently begun experiencing performance issues and needs a cost-effective hardware upgrade. Which of the following is the best way to meet the user's requirements? A. Upgrade the memory B. Upgrade to a larger GPU. C. Upgrade to an SSD. D. Upgrade to a faster CPU. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Upgrading to an SSD (Solid State Drive) is the best way to meet the user's requirements because it will improve the performance and storage capacity of the laptop. SSDs are faster than HDDs (Hard Disk Drives) because they have no moving parts and can access data more quickly. SSDs also have lower power consumption, lower heat generation, and higher reliability than HDDs. Therefore, upgrading to an SSD will make the laptop more responsive, boot faster, and handle large files better. According to some web sources, SSDs are the best hard drives for video editing because they can streamline the workflow and store masses of footage in one easy-to-access place1. SSDs are also one of the most common PC upgrades that can make a dramatic difference, especially for aging systems2. Additionally, Adobe recommends using SSDs for Premiere Pro and After Effects because they can handle large media files and cache data more efficiently3. Reference: The best hard drives for video editing in 2023, section "Best SSD overall". The Five Best PC Upgrades to Improve Performance, section "Add a Solid-State Drive". Hardware recommendations for Premiere Pro and After Effects, section "Storage". QUESTION 8 Which of the following is the best example of when to use virtualization? A. To manage shared folders by user accounts IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com B. To deploy software updates to user machines C. To enhance security by centralizing all user desktops D. To prevent users from circumventing password policies Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: One of the benefits of virtualization is that it allows you to create and manage multiple virtual machines (VMs) on a single physical computer. This can be used to enhance security by centralizing all user desktops on a server, rather than storing them on individual user machines. This way, the user desktops can be isolated from each other and from the host machine, preventing malware infections, data breaches, and unauthorized access. Additionally, the user desktops can be easily backed up, restored, updated, and monitored by the administrator, reducing the risk of data loss and downtime. This type of virtualization is called desktop virtualization, and it separates the desktop environment from the physical hardware the user interacts with1. The user can access their virtual desktop from any device, such as a laptop, tablet, or smartphone, using a remote display protocol. The user experience is similar to using a local desktop, but with improved security and manageability. Reference: What Is Virtualization, and Why Should You Use it?, section "Desktop Virtualization". QUESTION 9 A technician is installing the RAM for a graphs workstation. Which of the following is special purpose memory used by graphic controllers? A. SRAM B. MicroDlMM C. VRAM D. Unbuffered DIMM Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: VRAM (Video Random Access Memory) is a special-purpose memory type used by graphics controllers to store image data that is displayed on the screen. VRAM is faster and more expensive than regular RAM, and it allows the graphics controller to access the image data directly without involving the CPU or the system memory. VRAM can improve the performance and quality of graphics-intensive applications, such as video editing, gaming, and 3D rendering. Reference: Ram Flashcards | Quizlet, question "Which of the following is a special-purpose memory type used by graphics controllers?". Nvidia Unveils Big Accelerator Memory: Solid-State Storage for GPUs, paragraph 4. US5801706A - Special purpose memory for graphics and display apparatus …, abstract. QUESTION 10 A team is having Issues With paper jams on a printer that the team shares With other teams. The team that IS having Issues prints legal-sized documents, and the other teams print letter-sized documents. Which of the following is most likely the issue? A. Worn rollers B. Page orientation C. Tray settings D. Multipage misfeed Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The most likely issue is C. Tray settings. Tray settings are the configuration options that tell the printer what type and size of paper is loaded in each tray. If the tray settings do not match the actual paper loaded, it can cause paper jams, misalignment, or incorrect IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com printing. For example, if the printer expects letter-sized paper (8.5 x 11 inches) but the tray contains legal-sized paper (8.5 x 14 inches), the printer may try to pull more paper than it needs, resulting in a jam. To fix this issue, the team should check and adjust the tray settings according to the paper they are using. They should also make sure that the paper is loaded correctly and not overfilled or mixed with different sizes or types of paper. Some printers have a manual feed option that allows users to select the paper size and type before printing, which can prevent paper jams from occurring. Reference: Fix Paper Jam Errors | HP® Support, section "Paper jams". Common Causes of Paper Jams and How to Fix Them - 1ink.com, section "Make Sure You're Loading the Paper Correctly". How to Fix a Paper Jam in a Printer - Computer Hope, section "Paper tray is overloaded or not loaded correctly". QUESTION 11 A network technician has been tasked with creating a patch cable. The RJ45 connectors will not slay attached to the cable. Which of the following tools Is needed to fix this Issue? A. Cable tester B. Crimper C. Punchdown tool D. Loopback plug Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: A crimper is a tool that is used to crimp (attach) an RJ45 connector onto the end of a patch cable. The crimper applies pressure to the connector to make a permanent connection between the connector and the cable, ensuring that the connector will stay attached to the cable. A cable tester is used to test the connectivity of a network cable. A punchdown tool is used to terminate network cables in a patch panel or keystone jack. A loopback plug is a diagnostic tool that is used to test network interfaces by simulating network traffic. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 92. QUESTION 12 Which of the following allows a switch to be divided into separate logical networks? A. VLAN B. SSL VPN C. NAT D. RADIUS Answer: A Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a network topology that allows a switch to be divided into separate logical networks. This allows for the creation of multiple broadcast domains within a single physical network, improving network segmentation and security. With VLANs, you can segment your network so that different departments, applications, or users are isolated from each other, improving network security and performance. QUESTION 13 The IT department issued a corporate smartphone to a user, but the user returned the device stating it had connectivity Issues. The user claimed the device functioned on WI-FI but all connectivity to cloud services was lost as soon as the device was taken off site. Which of the following issues was MOST likely affecting the device? A. MDM was never properly set up on the device. B. S/MIME certificates were corrupted and needed to be reloaded. C. Bluetooth on the device was disabled by mistake. D. The device never had a proper SIM card installed. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: A SIM card is needed for the device to use cellular network services, so without it, the device will be unable to connect to the cloud services when taken off site. MDM (Mobile Device Management) can be used to manage settings and access on a device, but it is not necessary for the device to be able to use cloud services. S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) certificates are used to encrypt and digitally sign emails, and are not related to device connectivity. Bluetooth can be used to connect devices together, but it is not necessary for the device to be able to use cloud services. QUESTION 14 A technician is troubleshooting a smartphone that has a large dark area on the screen. The screen has no damage to Indicate that It is cracked. Which of the following BEST describes why a blot Is on the screen? A. Digitizer damage B. Improper charging C. Ambient light sensor damage D. Liquid damage Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A blot on the screen of a smartphone is most likely caused by damage to the digitizer, which is the part of the device responsible for interpreting touch input. Improper charging is unlikely to cause a blot on the screen, as is damage to the ambient light sensor. Liquid damage is a possibility, but it is more likely to cause discoloration or other physical damage to the screen. QUESTION 15 A network administrator was notified that laptop users are unable to access or ping any network resources on the corporate network. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST? A. DHCP B. AAA C. DNS D. ARP Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Domain Name System (DNS) is an Internet service that translates domain names (e.g., its.umich.edu) into IP addresses. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a protocol for automatically assigning IP addresses and other configurations to devices when they connect to a network. QUESTION 16 Recently, an organization received a number of spam emails that passed through the spam gateway. The emails contained generally the same information, but the sending domains were different. Which of the following solutions would BEST help mitigate the issue? A. Updating the keyword filtering B. Editing the sender policy framework C. Contacting the gateway vendor D. Verifying DMARC is enabled Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) is an email authentication protocol. It is designed to give email domain owners the ability to protect their domain from unauthorized use, IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com commonly known as email spoofing. QUESTION 17 A technician is monitoring all outbound traffic in a SOHO. Which of the following is the MOST costeffective solution to monitor the traffic? A. Spectrum analyzer B. Network tap C. Lookback plug D. Toner probe Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: A network tap is used to intercept the signals passing over a cable and send them to a packet or protocol analyzer. Taps are either powered or unpowered: QUESTION 18 While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is externally polluted with various RF signals. Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution. Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue? A. The channel is reserved for licensed band use. B. The channel selection is defective, contact the manufacturer. C. The channel must be unblocked by the vendor. D. The device requires a firmware update to unlock the channel. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The 2. band is subdivided into up to 14 channels, spaced at 5 MHz intervals from 2412 MHz up to 2484 MHz. Wi-Fi requires bandwidth of approximately 20 MHz, not 5 MHz. Consequently, a site designer needs to choose the channels that do not overlap. On a WLAN where only the first 11 channels are available, channels 1, 6, and 11 can be selected as non-overlapping. Note: In the Americas, regulations permit the use of channels 1-11 only, while in Europe, channels 1-13 are permitted. In Japan, all 14 channels are permitted QUESTION 19 A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transport the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? A. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues. B. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint. C. The phone’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port. D. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charring. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The symptoms suggest that the charging cable falls out of the phone, indicating that the charge port may contain foreign objects such as lint, which can interfere with the connection between the charging cable and the phone. QUESTION 20 A user is trying to play a DVD on a projector. The user can hear the audio; however, the projector is showing an error message that states: IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com HDMI Blocked due to Copy Protection Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? A. The HDMI cannot carry the signal from the DVD to the projector. B. The user needs to switch from HDMI to a cable standard such as DisplayPort. C. The projector does not support the necessary HDCP protocol. D. The user needs to enable cony-protected sources in the projector's settings. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The Official CompTIA® A+® Core 1 and Core 2 Student Guide (Exams 220-1001 and 220-1002) | 193 Protected content. If you encounter an error that indicates unauthorized content or an HDCP error: DVI, HDMI, DisplayPort, and Thunderbolt all provide support for the Digital Rights Management (DRM) mechanism High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection (HDCP). HDCP allows a content source (such as a Blu-ray disc) to disable itself if the display adapter and monitor and/or speaker system do not support HDCP and fail to authenticate themselves with the playback source. There have been various iterations of HDCP (at time of writing the current version is 2.2) and backward-compatibility can be problematic as authentication may fail between devices that support different versions of the standard. QUESTION 21 A technician is troubleshooting an old desktop system that randomly shows a Windows BSOD or powers off unexpectedly. All system temperatures are within normal limits. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Visually inspect the motherboard capacitors. B. Verify all case fans are operational. C. Check that the BIOS version supports the installed CPU. D. Compare the software requirements with the installed RAM. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: BSoDs can be caused by poorly written device drivers or malfunctioning hardware, such as faulty memory, power supply issues, overheating of components, or hardware running beyond its specification limits. In the Windows 9x era, incompatible DLLs or bugs in the operating system kernel could also cause BSoDs. QUESTION 22 A technician is investigating the output shown on a monitor. The output is clear, but it has a pink hue. The technician has replaced the video card and updated the graphics drivers. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause? A. Physical cabling issues B. Burned-out bulb C. Display burn-in D. Incorrect data source Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The pink hue is most likely caused by physical cabling issuesthe output on a monitor is clear but has a pink hue, it could be due to an issue with the physical cabling connecting the monitor to the computer. The video signal may be degraded or distorted due to a damaged or loose cable. The technician should check and replace the cable if necessary to resolve the issue. QUESTION 23 A company needs to support a 10Gbps throughput. Which of the following is the MINIMUM cable category that could be used? IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A. Cat 5 B. Cat 5e C. Cat 6 D. Cat 6a Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The minimum cable category that could be used to support a 10Gbps throughput is Cat 6a. Cat 6a cable is required with 10 Gigabit Ethernet for reliable performance with cable lengths up to 100metres. However, lower- specification cables can often be successfully used, particularly with the shorter cable lengths required in a typical home123. QUESTION 24 A new employee has been issued a company laptop. The employee requests an accessory with a single power source that has wired network connectivity and supports a keyboard, mouse, speakers, and dual monitors. Which of the following accessories should the systems administrator deploy to BEST meet the new user's needs? A. PoE switch B. USB-C hub with power delivery C. Docking station with DisplayPort D. KVM switch with audio Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: A docking station is a hardware accessory that allows laptops to connect to multiple peripherals and devices with a single connection. A docking station with DisplayPort would provide the necessary connectivity for the dual monitors, and it can also support the required peripherals such as the keyboard, mouse, and speakers. In addition, it will provide a wired network connectivity for faster and more reliable network access. QUESTION 25 A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is not completing POST and gets stuck at the manufacturer logo screen. All internal, removable parts have been disconnected and only the minimum parts necessary to POST were reconnected. However, the symptoms remain the same. Which of the following should the technician try NEXT? A. Test the RAM in different slots, one at a time. B. Remove and test the power supply. C. Replace the motherboard. D. Change the CMOS battery. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: QUESTION 26 A technician is replacing the RAM on an entry-level server with hot-swappabte components. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Replace the RAM while the server is at a cool temperature B. Replace the RAM while the server is running IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com C. Power down the server completely and then replace the RAM D. Verify that the OS supports hot swapping the RAM Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Verify that the OS supports hot swapping the RAM. Before replacing the RAM on an entry-level server with hot-swappable components, the technician should verify that the operating system supports hot swapping of RAM. QUESTION 27 A user who works with sensitive data has a computer configured with hard drive encryption The TPM is active and hosting the encrypted key. After an upgrade to the motherboard. RAM and video card the hard drive is not booting and data cannot be accessed from the hard drive. Which of the following should the technician do to enable the system to boot again and get access to the stored data? A. Use data recovery software to find and recover the hard drive information B. Access the BIOS and select to rebuild the degraded RAID array C. Boot into the BIOS and enable the TPM on the new motherboard. D. Return the replaced motherboard back to the computer Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The technician should boot into the BIOS and enable the TPM on the new motherboard to enable the system to boot again and get access to the stored data1.Boot into the BIOS and enable the TPM on the new motherboard. After upgrading the motherboard, the TPM may need to be enabled in the BIOS in order to access the encrypted key and boot the system. Enabling the TPM on the new motherboard should allow the system to boot and provide access to the encrypted data. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, 220-1001, Chapter 13 QUESTION 28 Which of the following wireless technologies has the MOST range and wireless throughput? A. 802.11ac B. 802.11ax C. 802. 11b/gin D. 802.11g Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: 802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6, has the longest range and the highest wireless throughput of all the wireless technologies listed. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, 220-1001, Chapter 3 QUESTION 29 A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Digitizer issues B. Overheating C. Broken screen D. Malware Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Dropping a smartphone can damage the digitizer, which is the component responsible for sensing touch input. This can cause issues with tapping and swiping on the screen, as well as other touchscreen-related issues. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues QUESTION 30 While using a popular videoconferencing program, the user selects a webcam, but the software is unable to open the webcam. The webcam was working the previous day. Which of the following should be done to address this issue? A. Close other video software and retry. B. Adjust the conference software to a compatible resolution. C. Switch the video from the webcam to "conference" mode. D. Reseat or replace the webcam. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: One possible solution to address the issue of a webcam not working with a videoconferencing program is to close other video software and retry (option A). It’s possible that another video software program is currently using the webcam and preventing the videoconferencing program from accessing it. By closing any other video software that may be running on the computer, the user can ensure that the webcam is available for use by the videoconferencing program. QUESTION 31 A small office has a wireless network with several access points for roaming laptop use. Users occasionally report that the wireless connection drops or becomes very slow. Users have confirmed that this issue only happens when connected to the office wireless network. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause? A. Hidden SSID B. Device interference C. Ethernet port flapping D. High ISP latency Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Device interference is the most likely cause of the wireless connection dropping or becoming slow.Interference can come from other wireless devices, microwave ovens, or physical barriers like walls and metal objects. Hidden SSID, Ethernet port flapping, and high ISP latency are not likely to cause this issue.Wireless interference from other devices can cause a drop in wireless connection speed and stability.In a small office environment, there may be several wireless devices competing for the same bandwidth, causing the issues described. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.7 Given a scenario, troubleshoot wired and wireless networks with appropriate tools QUESTION 32 A developer is requesting permission to utilize client-side visualization. The developer would like to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid negative impacts of experimental code. Which of the following provides the BEST solution for the developer? A. Cross-platform functionality B. Software compatibility C. Test case development D. Sandbox environment Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A sandbox environment is an isolated testing environment where code can be written and tested without impacting other infrastructure. This provides a safe and controlled environment for experimentation and development. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Exam Objectives - 5.5 Compare and contrast common workstation security best practices QUESTION 33 A laptop PC user is reporting issues with the hard drive. A filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean. After the check, the PC still issues a hard drive error message. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? A. S.M.A.R.T failure B. IOPS failure C. DIMM failure D. RAID failure Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: If the filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean, but a hard drive error message persists, it's possible that the hard drive is experiencing S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) failure. This is a warning system built into hard drives to alert users of potential issues before they become critical. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues QUESTION 34 A user takes a tablet to a technician because the cursor on it keeps drifting. The technician notices the screen does not appear to be damaged. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the cursor issue? A. The screen is physically damaged. B. The screen rotation is incorrect. C. The touch-pen battery is depleted. D. The screen needs to be recalibrated. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The most likely cause of the cursor issue is that the screen needs to be recalibrated. This can happen when the tablet is used for a long time or when the tablet is dropped or bumped. Recalibrating thescreen will help the tablet recognize the touch input more accurately12. QUESTION 35 A laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video. Which of the following should a technician perform FIRST? A. Research new webcam firmware. B. Restart the computer and run system diagnostics. C. Reseat the webcam. D. Reinstall the webcam software and drivers. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: https://www.lifewire.com/fix-it-when-webcam-is-not-working-4588517If a laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video, the first step the technician should perform is to reseat the webcam. Reseating the webcam involves disconnecting it from the motherboard and then reconnecting it. If this doesn't work, the technician should then check the webcam drivers or software. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 502) IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com QUESTION 36 Which of the following describes the main difference between T568Aand T568B cabling standards? A. The T568B data transfer rate is higher than T568A. B. The green and the orange cables are interchanged. C. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables. D. The standards use different cable connectors. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards is that the green and orange cables are interchanged12. T568A is designed for backward compatibility with older telephone wires, while T568B is designed for better signal isolation and noise protection for newer networking systems and products3. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables1. The standards use the same cable connectors3. QUESTION 37 A user reboots a machine. On rebooting, the user hears one beep, and then an error message is displayed. Which of the following are MOST likely causing this issue? (Select TWO). A. RAM module B. Graphics card C. CPU D. Boot order E. USB flash drive F. Power supply Correct Answer: A, D Section: Explanation: When a user hears one beep on rebooting a machine, and then an error message is displayed, it could indicate that there is a problem with the RAM module or the boot order. The beep sound indicates that the POST process was successful, and the error message indicates that the boot process was unsuccessful. The boot order determines the sequence in which the computer looks for bootable devices. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in- One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 693 QUESTION 38 Which of the following describes metered utilization of cloud resources? A. Resources provisioned instantly B. Payments made only for resources that are used C. Resources pooled to increase computing power D. Implementation of rapid elasticity Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Metered utilization of cloud resources refers to payments made only for resources that are used.Cloud providers offer a pay-as-you-go model where customers are charged based on their usage of resources. Customers can easily scale up or down their usage of resources as per their needs and only pay for what they use. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 642) QUESTION 39 A technician is receiving reports that the entire office sporadically loses network connectivity throughout the day. The technician determines the root cause to be EMI. Which of the cable mediums would be the MOST cost IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com effective without sacrificing system performance? A. Coaxial B. Shielded Cat 6 C. Plenum Cat 5e D. Multimode fiber Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Electromagnetic interference (EMI) is unwanted noise or interference in an electrical path or circuit caused by an outside source. Hence shielded Cat 6 is better If a technician determines that the root cause of sporadic network connectivity issues is EMI, the most cost-effective cable medium that can be used without sacrificing system performance is shielded Cat 6 cable. Shielded cables protect against electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 548) QUESTION 40 A user reports that a PC occasionally falls to boot. The user reboots the PC. but the performance is degrading. The technician hears a strange, repetitive, ticking noise coming from the PC. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. Try to extract data. B. Reseat the RAM modules. C. Inspect the fan. D. Check the CD tray. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: This is a safe and sensible option if you value your data more than anything else. You don’t want to risk losing your data by trying other methods that may worsen the situation. You can use a software tool or a service provider to recover your data before attempting any repairs. QUESTION 41 A technician is setting up a device to use two-factor authentication. Which of the following meets this requirement? A. Thumbprint/retinal scan B. Password/password C. Password/thumbprint D. Password/PIN Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a security process that requires users to provide two different authentication factors to verify their identity. This means that in addition to providing something they know (such as a password or PIN), they must also provide something they have (such as a smart card or token) or something they are (such as a fingerprint or retinal scan).In this case, the correct answer would be C. Password/thumbprint. This option meets the requirement for two-factor authentication because it combines two different types of authentication factors: something the user knows (the password) and something the user is (the thumbprint). The other options do not meet the requirement for 2FA because they either use only one type of authentication factor (A and D) or use two instances of the same type of factor (B). QUESTION 42 A laptop has been returned for a screen repair. The owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop. Which of the following steps should the repair technician take FIRST? IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A. Replace the graphics card. B. Replace the screen, as the customer insists. C. Recommend the usage of an external display instead. D. Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: If a laptop has been returned for a screen repair and the owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop, the first step the repair technician should take is to ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. If the backlight is faulty, the screen may appear to be broken, but it may only be dim or too dark to be visible QUESTION 43 An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so peak is over. Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing? A. Rapid elasticity B. Metered utilization C. Shared resources D. High availability Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the Qthe online retailer wants to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wants it to be removed "automatically" when the peak is over. QUESTION 44 A colleague has a laptop that has been working as expected for several years wall outlet. The MOST likely component that needs to be replaced is the: A. power adapter. B. battery. C. system fan. D. hard drive. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: QUESTION 45 A technician is commissioning a workstation that is required to have mirrored storage, utilizing two 4TB drives that support one failure. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: RAID 1 is a mirrored configuration that utilizes two drives and provides redundancy by allowing one drive to fail without data loss. This configuration meets the requirement of mirrored storage with two 4TB drives that support one failure. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 8 QUESTION 46 A technician is tasked with installing additional RAM in a desktop computer. Which of the following types of RAM is MOST likely to be used? A. SODIMM B. DDR3 C. ECC D. VRAM Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: DDR3 is the most commonly used RAM type in modern desktop computers. It is faster and more energy efficient than its predecessors, and offers larger capacity modules. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 5 QUESTION 47 A technician is upgrading a faulty motherboard that was ordered by an end user for an old, high-end desktop computer. However, the technician is unable to install the CPU into the socket. Upon closer inspection, the technician notices the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket. Which of the following would be the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT? A. Try to set as many pins as possible. B. Install an adaptor to create a universal socket. C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer. D. Find a compatible motherboard for the CPU. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: In this situation, the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT would be C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer. If the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket on the motherboard, it is likely that there is a compatibility issue between the two components. The technician should verify that the socket type and manufacturer of the motherboard match those of the CPU to ensure that they are compatible. QUESTION 48 Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point. She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible. Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks. She requests that the default settings be changed to the following. Wireless Name: HomeWiFi Shared Key: CompTIA Router Password: Secure$1 Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network. Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100 Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54 Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101 Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11 INSTRUCTIONS Configure Laura’s wireless network using the network adapter window. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All button. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Answer: A Explanation: solution as IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com QUESTION 49 A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network. The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone. INSTRUCTIONS Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A. Answer of both steps below Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Answer of both steps below. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com QUESTION 50 Which of the following would MOST likely be used to obtain electronic images of a large number of printed documents? A. NFC device B. ADF/flatbed scanner C. Camera/webcam D. QR scanner Correct Answer: B Section: IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Explanation: Explanation: ADF/flatbed scanner would most likely be used to obtain electronic images of a large number of printed documents. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 351 QUESTION 51 A technician is upgrading a legacy wireless router for a home user. After installing the new router and configuring the SSID to be the same, none of the devices will connect to the network. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT? A. OHCP pool configuration B. MAC filtering list C. Wireless protocol settings D. ONS servers Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The technician should check the MAC filtering list next as the new router may have a different MAC address than the old router. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 332 QUESTION 52 DRAG DROP An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging when they are handled, and. recently, whenever the manager tries to print oversized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it. Select and Place: Correct Answer: IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Section: Explanation: QUESTION 53 Which of the following concepts would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times? A. Community cloud B. Rapid elasticity C. High availability D. Metered service Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Rapid elasticity would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 405 QUESTION 54 A company has a dot matrix printer that uses carbon paper. The company reports that the first page is printing too light, although the following pages are still legible. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be fixed? A. The print drum is worn and loose causing the printing to be light in places B. The ribbon is low on ink or missing and must be replaced to get proper output C. The heating element has failed, and a new one needs to be installed for proper transfer D. The wrong type of filement is loaded, preventing it from sticking correctly E. The fuser assembly is not calibrated properly, causing it to impact the paper too hard Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Dot Matrix printers do not use heat, they use a pin striking an inked ribbon (for the first copy, the subsequent copies are handled by the carbon paper) The ribbon is low on ink or missing and must be replaced to get proper output in a dot matrix printer that uses carbon paper. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 361 QUESTION 55 A technician needs to install a cost-effective storage device into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host. This storage will be used for all VMs that run from the server. Which of the following should be used? A. Optical disk drive B. eMMC storage device C. 15,000rpm drive D. RAID 10 array Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: RAID 10 array is often used for server virtualization as it provides both redundancy and performance benefits. It uses a combination of mirroring and striping to provide both fault tolerance and improved I/O performance. An optical disk drive or eMMC storage device would not provide enough storage or performance for a VM host server, while a 15,000rpm drive may provide good performance but would not provide redundancy for fault tolerance. Therefore, a RAID 10 array is the best option for cost-effective storage that will be used for all VMs that run from the server. QUESTION 56 A technician installed new firmware on the company's laser printers and has since been receiving multiple calls that information is garbled and looks like code. Only printers with the new firmware are having this issue. Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT? A. Change the language settings on the printers B. Reboot all the machines having the issues C. Reboot all the printers. D. Install an updated printer driver on the print server Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The MOST efficient next step the technician should complete is to install an updated printer driver on the print server12. The issue of information being garbled and looking like code could be related to a compatibility issue with the new firmware and the existing printer driver1. The printer driver is responsible for converting the print job data into a format that the printer can understand and print2. QUESTION 57 Which of the following describes the operational difference between hubs and switches when transmitting data to a specific computer inside the network? A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network. B. Switches compress data while hubs send uncompressed data C. Switches receive data and route it to all computers inside the network while hubs receive data and do not route D. Switches scramble data, while hubs send data in the original form. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 323 QUESTION 58 A user working in the field reported the GPS stopped working on a phone. The user’s older, in-car GPS continued to function. Later, the user reported that the phone’s GPS started working again. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Which of the following MOST likely caused the phone’s GPS to fail? A. The cell phone was in conservation mode B. The cell phone had lost service to the earner C. The eel phone received a firmware update D. The cell phone had overheated Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The phone's GPS may fail due to a loss of service from the carrier, which provides the phone with GPS location data. The fact that the in-car GPS continued to function suggests that the issue was related to the phone, not the GPS satellites. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 372 QUESTION 59 A system administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system’s host-based firewall. Which of the following ports should the administrator enabled? A. 23 B. 25 C. 80 D. 161 Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) uses port 25 to send email messages between servers12.SMTP uses port 25 to send email messages between mail servers. Therefore, the system administrator should enable port 25 to allow SMTP traffic through the host-based firewall. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 282 QUESTION 60 A Wi-Fi mesh network has been optimized to eliminate poor coverage areas, yet users still experience decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues. Which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT? A. Relocate any large, dense, solid, and metal objects, such as mirrors and file cabinets, in the mesh network coverage area to the perimeter so that wireless reflections, absorptions, and occlusions are minimized. B. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance. C. Use the signal strength indicator on a mobile device to roam the coverage area and generate a heat map to isolate zones with weak signals. D. Turn off broadcasting of the SSID on the mesh network so that other networks cannot see it. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: If users are experiencing decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues in a Wi-Fi mesh network, the technician should use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 308 QUESTION 61 A technician logs on to a PC and inserts an encrypted USB drive. When opening File Explorer, the technician cannot see the USB drive. Which of the following tools should the technician use to see all drives? A. DiskPart B. Diskmgml C. Disk Cleanup IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com D. BitLocker Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: he tool that the technician should use to see all drives is Diskmgmt. Diskmgmt is a Windows utility that allows you to manage disk drives and partitions on your computer. It can be used to view alldrives, including USB drives, that are connected to the computer12. QUESTION 62 A computer that contains critical data has not been backed up and will not boot past a S. M.A.R. T, error that indicates imminent hard disk failure. Which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST? A. Run diagnostics on the faulty hard drive using a boot disk B. immediately replace the hard drive generating the SMART error C. Turn off S. M. A. R. T, monitoring in the computer's BIOS settings D. Attempt to boot the operating system in safe mode Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The technician should run diagnostics on the faulty hard drive using a boot disk first when a computer that contains critical data has not been backed up and will not boot past a S.M.A.R.T. error that indicates imminent hard disk failure. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 376 QUESTION 63 A technician receives several error alerts on a server after an unexpected reboot. A message states that one or more disks are in a degraded state. When the technician advances to the next error message, it indicates the OS is missing. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of these errors? (Choose two.) A. Missing drives in the OS B. RAID failure C. Bootable device not found D. Data loss E. Controller failure F. CMOS corruption G. TPM malfunction Correct Answer: B, C Section: Explanation: The message stating that one or more disks are in a degraded state is a clear indication of a RAID failure. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, and it is a technology used to provide fault tolerance and improve performance by combining multiple hard drives into a single logical unit.The message indicating that the OS is missing is most likely caused by a bootable device not found.This means that the server is unable to boot from the designated boot device, which could be the hard drive, a CD/DVD drive, or a USB flash drive. This could be caused by a faulty boot device, a loose cable, or a misconfiguration in the BIOS or UEFI settings. QUESTION 64 A technician is receiving reports that the entire office sporadically loses network connectivity throughout the day. The technician determines the root cause to be EMI. Which of the following cable mediums would be the MOST cost effective without sacrificing system performance? A. Coaxial IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com B. Shielded Cat 6 C. Plenum Cat 5e D. Multimode fiber Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: In this situation, the MOST cost-effective cable medium that would not sacrifice system performance would be B. Shielded Cat 6. Electromagnetic interference (EMI) can disrupt network connectivity by interfering with the signals transmitted over network cables. Shielded Cat 6 cables are designed to provide protection against EMI by incorporating a layer of shielding material around the cable’s conductors. This shielding helps to prevent EMI from interfering with the signals transmitted over the cable. QUESTION 65 Which of the following would be BEST reason to use a virtual machine as a sandbox? A. To test new software in a safe environment B. To increase the efficient use of computing resources C. To run multiple machines on the same hardware D. To have dedicated hardware for a single system Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The main reason to use a virtual machine as a sandbox is to test new software in a safe environment without risking the integrity of the host operating system. Using a virtual machine enables the testing of software and allows for the isolation of the software from the host system. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 409 QUESTION 66 A user visits the desk to report that a smartphone takes more than a day to fully charge. The user has already tested multiple wall outlets and swapped the charging cable, but the results are the same. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. Verify the power rating of the charger. B. Ensure all unnecessary connectivity features are disabled. C. Check that all missing smartphone OS updates are applied. D. Complete a factory reset of the phone Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A smartphone that takes more than a day to fully charge may be due to a charger that is not powerfulenough. The technician should verify that the charger is rated for the smartphone’s battery capacity and that it is providing the correct voltage and amperage123. QUESTION 67 In which of the following places is a laptop's wireless antenna MOST likely located? A. Near the network interface card B. Underneath the battery C. Integrated into the motherboard D. In the bezel of the lid IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: According to Dell Community, the Wi-Fi antenna is located in the top of the LCD display housing. It consists of two elements, fed by two cables, a white main designated on the Wi-Fi card by a white triangle, and a black auxiliary designated on the Wi-Fi card by a black triangle1. QUESTION 68 Vertical streaks are appearing on the output of a laser printer. Which of the following items is the MOST likely cause? A. Roller B. Drum C. Transfer belt D. Ribbon Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Vertical or horizontal lines—Marks that appear in the same place (referred to as repetitive defects) are often due to dirty feed rollers (note that there are rollers in the toner cartridge and fuser unit too) or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum. too) or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum.Vertical streaks on a laser printer output are usually caused by a damaged or worn-out drum, which is responsible for transferring toner to the paper. If the drum is damaged, toner may accumulate on certain parts of the drum, leading to streaks on the printed output. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 15 QUESTION 69 A university student was able to boot from a live Linux CD on a computer in a shared space on campus. Which of the following will BEST prevent this type of action from occurring in the future? A. Require TPM security features. B. Set a boot password. C. Disable all media options. D. Enable secure boot. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Enabling secure boot will verify the digital signature of the bootloader and operating system, ensuring that the system only boots from trusted and authorised sources. This can prevent booting from an unauthorised live CD or other external media.The best way to prevent booting from a live Linux CD on a computer in a shared space on campus is to enable secure boot. Secure boot is a feature that ensures that the system only runs software that is signed by an authorized party. This means that the system will not boot from any unauthorized media, including live Linux CDs.Secure Boot is a feature that ensures that the system only runs software that is signed by an authorized party. This means that the system will not boot from any unauthorized media, includinglive Linux CDs. Secure Boot is an important security feature designed to prevent malicious software from loading when your PC starts up (boots)1.Booting from a live Linux CD is a process that allows you to run a Linux operating system from a CD or DVD without installing it on your hard drive. This can be useful for testing or troubleshooting purposes. To boot from a live Linux CD, you need to insert the CD or DVD into your computer’sCD/DVD drive and restart your computer. Most systems are set up to automatically boot from the CD/DVD drive, but if your system is not set up this way, you may need to change a system setting to boot from a Linux CD/DVD23. QUESTION 70 A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing. The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT? A. Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents. B. Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com C. Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type. D. Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process: 1. Identify the problem. 2. Establish a theory of probably cause. (Qthe obvious) 3. Test the theory to determine cause. 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. 5. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures. 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Writing a knowledge base article in the ticketing software would help document the root cause of the application error and the steps taken to resolve it, which can help other technicians resolve similar issues in the future. This is an example of knowledge management best practices. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 6 QUESTION 71 A thermal punier that is used 10 print order buckets in a factory has been experiencing Issues following the failure of the alt conditioner during the summer. Each ticket has blank spots or is missing text. Which of the following would MOST likely solve these Issues? A. Restore function to the air conditioner. B. Clean the heating element. C. Replace the paper rolls. D. Install new toner. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: it appears that option A, restoring function to the air conditioner, would most likely solve the thermal printer issue in the described scenario. The failure of the air conditioner during the summer could likely have caused high humidity or heat in the factory, which can affect the printing quality of thermal printers by causing blank spots or missing text. By restoring function to the air conditioner, the temperature and humidity in the factory can be controlled, which can help eliminate these printing issues. However, it is still possible that any of the other options listed could also potentially solve the issue, so it is best to assess the situation further and try different solutions if necessary. QUESTION 72 A technician is troubleshooting a projector that will not display any Images. The technician has verified the computer output and cable are providing a good video signal. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Calibrate the image. B. Replace the bulb. C. Test the output resolution. D. Clean the fans. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The MOST efficient next step the technician should do is to test the output resolution1. The issue of a projector that will not display any images could be related to the output resolution1. If the output resolution is not compatible with the projector, the projector will not display any images1. Calibrating the image, replacing the bulb, or cleaning the fans may not be effective1.If a projector is not displaying any images despite verifying that the computer output and cable are providing a good video signal, the technician should test the output resolution. The output resolution of the computer may not be compatible with the projector, which can cause the projector to not display any images. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com QUESTION 73 A technician installed a new router at a small office. After the Installation, the technician notices that all devices have a I69.254.x.x IP address. Printers and fileshares are still working, but PCs cannot access the Internet. Which of the following should the technician configure on the router to enable devices to connect to the internet? A. APIPA B. DNS C. DHCP D. SMB Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: o enable devices to connect to the internet after installing a new router at a small office, the technician should configure DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) on the router. DHCP is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. By configuring DHCP on the router, the technician can ensure that all devices on the network are assigned a valid IP address that allows them to connect to the internet.If all devices have a 169.254.x.x IP address, this suggests that the router is not assigning IP addresses to the devices using DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). Configuring the DHCP settings on the router can enable the devices to receive IP addresses automatically and access the internet.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 14 QUESTION 74 A technician is installing new power supplies for the application engineering team's workstations. The management team has not yet made a decision about installing dual graphics cards, but they want to proceed with the project anyway. Which of the following power supplies would provide the BEST solution? A. 1000W 24-pin modular power supply B. 220VAC 9000J surge protector C. 500W redundant power supply D. 2000VA uninterruptible power supply Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A 1000W 24-pin modular power supply provides enough power to support a dual graphics card configuration, which requires a significant amount of power. A modular power supply allows the technician to connect only the cables that are necessary for the current configuration, reducing cable clutter and improving airflow inside the case. This makes it easier to install and maintain the power supply. QUESTION 75 The help desk received a ticket regarding Issues with a laser printer. The printer has had repairs previously for scanning Issues. Currently, the printed text is not adhering properly to the paper. Which of the following should be replaced lo resolve this Issue? A. Fuser B. Waste container C. Roller D. Toner Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: If the printed text is not adhering properly to the paper on a laser printer that has had repairs previously for scanning issues, the fuser should be replaced to resolve this issue. The fuser is a component of the printer that uses heat and pressure to fuse the toner onto the paper. If the fuser is not functioning properly, the toner may not adhere properly to the paper. QUESTION 76 IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A help desk technician thinks a desktop PC has failed due to a defective power supply. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT? A. Inquire about environmental or infrastructure changes. B. Conduct external or internal research based on symptoms. C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. D. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Once the technician has determined that the power supply is likely to be defective, they should establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This may include replacing the power supply or further testing to confirm that it is indeed defective. After establishing a plan of action, the technician should implement the solution and verify that it has resolved the issue. QUESTION 77 A salesperson is using a weather application on a mobile device. The application appears to be draining the device's battery very quickly. Which of the following is the BEST action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while travelling? A. Enable the GPS service to ensure accurate location detection. B. Manually enter office locations in the weather application. C. Configure less frequent location checks using cellular location services. D. Use the offices' Wi-Fi IP addresses as the geolocation mechanism. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Reducing the frequency of location checks using cellular location services will consume less battery power while still allowing the user to view weather forecasts while travelling. The other options may not solve the battery drain issue while using the weather application. Configuring less frequent location checks using cellular location services is the best option for the salesperson to view weather forecasts while traveling without draining the battery too quickly.Reference: https://www.makeuseof.com/tag/5-ways-improve-battery-life-android-phone/ QUESTION 78 Which of the following is a method that can be used to securely connect a remote user's laptop to a corporate server? A. WAN B. VPN C. SSL D. DHCP Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure method for connecting a remote user's laptop to a corporate server. VPNs use encryption to protect data transmitted over the internet. QUESTION 79 A user creates a support ticket to report a conference room projector that does not work. The user says that even though the provided cables are being used, the projector screen shows the following error message: No signal input.Which of the following describes the FIRST action that should be taken? A. Verify that the projector is turned on. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com B. Verify that the user is using an approved OS. C. Replace the projector bulb. D. Check the video cable and replace it if necessary. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The most common reasons you may be seeing the "No Signal" message: The projector and the source device are not connected correctly. The first action should be to check the video cable and replace it if necessary, as the error message suggests that the projector is not receiving a signal from the laptop. Verifying that the projector is turned on and checking the bulb would come after verifying the video cable. QUESTION 80 Which of the following is the PRIMARY security concern with virtual machine escape? A. Cross-site scripting B. Compromising the hypervisor C. Overutilization of resources D. Rogue virtual machines installed on the hypervisor Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The primary security concern with virtual machine escape is compromising the hypervisor, which can allow attackers to gain access to other virtual machines or the host system. Virtual machine escape refers to an attack that allows a guest virtual machine to break out of its isolated environment and access other parts of the system. QUESTION 81 Which of the following network services allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device's MAC address? A. DHCP B. LDAP C. UTM D. DNS Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device's MAC address. DHCP can also assign other network configuration settings to devices automatically. QUESTION 82 A startup is looking to immediately expand its data center but does not have the personnel or space to manage everything internally. The organization has multiple small offices and remote users with large computational and storage- solution requirements. Funding is not an issue for the company. Which of the following can BEST accomplish the company's goals? A. SaaS B. laaS C. ISP D. SON IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: IaaS is a cloud computing model where a third-party provider hosts infrastructure components such as servers, storage, and networking on behalf of customers. This allows the startup to immediately expand its data center without the need for additional personnel or space to manage everything internally. Additionally, IaaS allows remote users to easily access the required computational and storage resources from multiple small offices.Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) can provide the startup with the necessary computational and storage solutions without the need for internal management. laaS allows organizations to rent computing resources from a third-party provider instead of owning and maintaining them in-house. QUESTION 83 A technician is replacing a ribbon on a printer that produces faded text and Images when priming. Which of the following types of primers is the technician working on? A. Impact B. Inkjet C. Laser D. Thermal Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: An impact printer is a type of printer that uses a ribbon to produce text and images on paper. If an impact printer is producing faded text and images when printing, it could be due to a worn-out ribbon that needs to be replaced. The technician would need to replace the ribbon on the impact printer to resolve the issue.A ribbon is a consumable component used in impact printers that uses a cloth or plastic strip coated with ink to produce text and images on paper. Examples of impact printers include dot matrix printers and line printers. Reference: Study Guide Section 4.6 - Printer technologies QUESTION 84 A user that works is sales is reporting that the output on each page printed from a laser has duplicate images. Which of the following should be performed FIRST to eliminate the ghost images? A. Change the paper weight setting. B. Replace the printer's fuser. C. Upgrade the printer firmware. D. Clean the toner drums and rollers Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: If a laser printer is producing output with duplicate images (also known as ghost images), it could be due to an issue with the toner drums and rollers. The first step to eliminate the ghost images would be to clean the toner drums and rollers to remove any excess toner that may be causing the issue.Ghost images are a common issue in laser printers where an image or text from a previous page appears faintly on subsequent pages. The cause of this issue is usually due to toner residue on the drum or rollers, which can be removed by cleaning the toner drums and rollers. Reference: Study Guide Section 4.6 - Printer technologies QUESTION 85 Which of the following is used to implement network security polices for an environment? A. Managed switch B. Repeater C. Firewall D. Gateway IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: It is designed to protect an organization's network infrastructure and data from unauthorized access, while allowing legitimate traffic to pass through. Firewalls can be configured to enforce security policies that block certain types of traffic, limit access to specific network resources, and prevent attacks such as malware and phishing.A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet. Firewalls are used to implement network security policies for an environment by controlling access to the network and protecting it from unauthorized access.A firewall is used to implement network security policies. It monitors incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules and can block traffic that does not meet the defined criteria.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Chapter 6, page 243) QUESTION 86 A technician is troubleshooting a point-of-sale primer that Is printing blank receipts. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the Issue? A. Verify the correct type of paper is loaded. B. Install the latest print driver. C. Check to see if the default printer has been changed. D. Ensure the printer is connected to power. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Verifying the correct type of paper is loaded is the best solution for resolving the issue of blank receipts being printed by a point-of-sale printer. Some receipt printers require a specific type of paper, and using the wrong type can result in blank receipts. Reference:https://www.techwalla.com/articles/what-are-the-causes-of-blank-receipts-from-a-printer Top of Form Verify the correct type of paper is loaded. If a point-of-sale printer is printing blank receipts, one possible cause could be that the wrong type of paper is loaded in the printer. Thermal printers require thermal paper to print properly. If regular paper is loaded instead of thermal paper, the printer will not be able to produce an image on the paper and will print blank receipts. QUESTION 87 A technician wants to deploy a.msl package lo a corporate network. The technician needs to verily the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users' computers. Which of the following would the technician consider the MOST appropriate for this situation? A. Virtual network B. Application virtualization C. Cross-platform virtualization D. Virtual sandbox E. Virtual desktop Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The most appropriate solution for the technician to consider in this situation is Application virtualization. Application virtualization is a technology that allows applications to run in a virtual environment, which isolates them from the underlying operating system and other applications. Thisensures that the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users’ computers1. QUESTION 88 A technician receives a ticket that states a mobile payment device is having Issues with Its contactless payment feature. The device is not detecting payment options. Which of the following Is the MOST likely cause of the Issue? A. NFC B. Bluetooth C. Wi-Fi IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com D. Lightning adapter Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: NFC (Near Field Communication) is the technology used for contactless payment features on mobile payment devices. If a mobile payment device is having issues with its contactless payment feature and is not detecting payment options, it is most likely due to an issue with the NFC functionality of the device.The contactless payment feature on a mobile payment device uses NFC (Near Field Communication) to detect payment options. If the device is not detecting payment options, the issue may be related to a problem with the NFC feature. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31790/near- field-communication-nfc QUESTION 89 A user is unable to access the internet on a PC. A technician examines the PC and runs the following commands: Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting process does this series of commands represent? A. Establish a theory. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Establish a plan of action. D. Identify the problem. Correct Answer: B Section: QUESTION 90 A client wants to connect an external keyboard to an Android tablet. Which of the following connection types are appropriate for this task? (Select TWO). A. DVI B. Infrared C. Lightning D. USB-C E. PS/2 F. Bluetooth Correct Answer: D, F Section: Explanation: The appropriate connection types for connecting an external keyboard to an Android tablet are USB- C and Bluetooth123 QUESTION 91 A technician needs to install a printer on the network. Which of the following must the technician configure? (Select THREE). A. PCL B. Dots per inch C. Gateway D. Subnet mask E. MAC address IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com F. MB G. IP address H. Drivers Correct Answer: C, D, G Section: Explanation: When installing a printer on a network, the technician needs to configure the network settings, which include the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway. These settings are used to ensure that the printer can communicate with other devices on the network.When installing a printer on a network, the technician must configure the network settings of the printer to ensure that it can communicate with other devices on the network. This includes configuring the gateway, subnet mask and IP address of the printer.The gateway is the device that connects the local network to other networks or the Internet. The subnet mask is used to determine which part of an IP address represents the network and which part represents individual hosts on that network. The IP address is a unique identifier for each device on a network. QUESTION 92 A technician is adding one more line at the demarcation point. Which of the following tools would be MOST useful to accomplish this task? A. Toner B. Punchdown C. Network tap D. Crimper Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Punchdown tools are used to make connections between wires in a 66/110 block at the demarcation point. The tool is used to insert the wire into the appropriate holes in the block, and it can be used to add additional lines to the demarcation point. The other options are not the correct tools for adding lines to the demarcation point. A toner is used to identify cable pairs, a network tap is used to monitor network traffic, and a crimper is used to terminate cables. QUESTION 93 Which of the following network devices would an administrator use to distribute traffic evenly throughout multiple nodes? A. Load balancer B. Bridge C. Proxy server D. Switch E. Firewall Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A load balancer is a network device that distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure that no single server bears too much of the load. Load balancing helps to improve application availability, increase scalability, and optimize resource utilization. A bridge is used to connect two different networks, often to divide a larger network into smaller segments. A proxy server is used to forward client requests to other servers, and can also be used to cache frequently requested data. A switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network and to control the flow of network traffic. A firewall is used to secure a network by controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on defined security rules. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 244. QUESTION 94 A technician is working on a help desk ticket for a user who wants the filament replaced in a 3-D printer. Which of the following should the technician do to remove the old filament and load the new one? IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A. Preheat the nozzle to melting temperature. B. Cut a sharp angle on the end of the strand. C. Push the filament along until resistance is felt. D. Withdraw the filament and remove the spool. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A technician is working on a help desk ticket for a user who wants the filament replaced in a 3-D printer. To remove the old filament and load the new one, the technician should preheat the nozzle to melting temperature. After the nozzle is heated, the technician should withdraw the filament and remove the spool. Then, cut a sharp angle on the end of the new strand, and push it along until resistance is felt. QUESTION 95 A user is unable to plug a USB 3.0 device into a USB port. Upon inspection, a technician notices the USB 3.0 port appears to be slightly smaller than the other connections. Which of the following Is the MOST likely cause? A. A foreign object Is stuck Inside the port B. The cable connection utilized the wrong orientation. C. The USB cable is physically damaged. D. The USB port belongs to a different form factor. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: USB 3.0 ports are slightly smaller than other USB connections, so if the port appears to be the wrong size, it is likely that the port belongs to a different form factor. This can be caused by a number of factors, such as the device being too old to support USB 3.0, or the device not having a USB 3.0 port in the first place. QUESTION 96 A technician has set up a new conference room with a TV and a video soundbar. The technician wants to test the system with a conference call. During the test, the TV speaker produces sound, but the soundbar does not. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? A. The volume on the TV needs to be turned up. B. The conference call needs to be unmuted for audio. C. An incorrect HDMI cable is being used. D. The TV's HDMI-ARC port is not being used. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: HDMI-ARC (Audio Return Channel) is an HDMI connection that allows audio to be sent from the TV to an external sound system, such as a soundbar. If the TV's HDMI-ARC port is not being used, then the soundbar will not receive any audio from the TV and thus will not produce any sound. To resolve the issue, the technician should ensure that the TV's HDMI-ARC port is being used to connect the TV to the soundbar. QUESTION 97 A technician is setting up a new laptop for a user who wants to be able to quickly pack up the laptop and leave if needed. The user has the following accessories: USB badge reader USB badge printer USB signature pad 3.5mm headset HDMI external monitor IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com  Mouse Which of the following is the best way to meet the user's requirement? A. Directly connect all accessories to the laptop. B. Provide the user with a second laptop. C. Connect everything to a compatible docking station. D. Provide the user with a USB hub. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The best way to meet the user's requirement is C. Connect everything to a compatible docking station. A docking station is a device that allows a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals and accessories with a single connection. A docking station usually has ports for USB, HDMI, audio, Ethernet, and power, as well as slots for expansion cards. A docking station can enhance the functionality and convenience of a laptop by providing a desktop-like experience1. A compatible docking station is one that matches the laptop's model, brand, and connector type2. A port replicator is a simpler device that only replicates the ports of the laptop, such as USB and HDMI, without providing additional features or power. A port replicator can also allow a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals and accessories with a single connection, but it does not offer the same benefits as a docking station1. Directly connecting all accessories to the laptop would not meet the user's requirement, as it would be cumbersome and time-consuming to pack up and leave if needed. The user would have to disconnect and reconnect multiple cables every time they want to use or move the laptop. This option would also limit the number of accessories that can be connected, as the laptop may not have enough ports for all of them. Providing the user with a second laptop would not meet the user's requirement, as it would be expensive and impractical. The user would have to transfer data and settings between the two laptops, and keep them both updated and secure. This option would also create confusion and redundancy, as the user would have two identical devices. Providing the user with a USB hub would not meet the user's requirement, as it would only allow the user to connect more USB devices to the laptop. A USB hub is a device that splits one USB port into multiple ports, but it does not support other types of connections, such as HDMI or audio. A USB hub would also require an external power source or drain the laptop's battery faster. This option would not help the user connect the HDMI external monitor or the 3.5mm headset. QUESTION 98 Which of the following cloud models allows an organization to retain data on site as well as in the cloud? A. Public B. Community C. Hybrid D. Private Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The correct answer is C. Hybrid. A hybrid cloud model is a combination of two or more different cloud models, such as public, private, community, or on-premises. A hybrid cloud model allows an organization to retain data on site as well as in the cloud, depending on the security and performance requirements of the data. A hybrid cloud model can also provide flexibility, scalability, and cost-efficiency for the organization12. A public cloud model is a cloud service that is available to anyone over the internet. A public cloud model does not allow an organization to retain data on site, as the data is stored and managed by a third-party provider. A public cloud model can offer lower costs, higher availability, and easier access, but it may have less security and control over the data12. A community cloud model is a cloud service that is shared by a group of organizations that have similar needs or goals. A community cloud model does not allow an organization to retain data on site, as the data is stored and managed by a third-party provider or one of the participating organizations. A community cloud model can offer higher security, privacy, and compliance, but it may have higher costs and lower availability than a public cloud model12. A private cloud model is a cloud service that is exclusively used by a single organization. A private cloud model can allow an organization to retain data on site or in the cloud, depending on the configuration of the private cloud. A private cloud model can offer higher security, control, and customization, but it may have higher costs and lower scalability than a public cloud model12. QUESTION 99 Isolating email attachments in a safe place until the attachments can be scanned for malware is defined as: IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com A. an approve listing. B. a screened subnet. C. cross-platform virtualization. D. sandboxing. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The correct answer is D. Sandboxing. Sandboxing is a security technique that isolates email attachments in a safe place until the attachments can be scanned for malware. A sandbox is a virtual environment that mimics the operating system and applications of the user, but prevents any changes or damage to the actual system. A sandbox can also monitor the behavior and activity of the attachments and detect any malicious code or actions12. An approve listing is a security technique that allows only trusted or authorized email senders or domains to be received by the user. An approve listing can help reduce spam and phishing emails, but it does not scan or isolate email attachments for malware3. A screened subnet is a security technique that creates a buffer zone between the internal network and the internet. A screened subnet uses firewalls and routers to filter and control the traffic that enters and exits the network. A screened subnet can help protect the network from external attacks, but it does not scan or isolate email attachments for malware. Cross-platform virtualization is a technology that allows running multiple operating systems and applications on the same physical machine. Cross-platform virtualization can help improve efficiency, flexibility, and compatibility, but it does not scan or isolate email attachments for malware. QUESTION 100 A user calls the help desk about a 4K monitor that will not output an image from a desktop. The monitor was working previously but now shows a black screen with a message stating a signal is not detected. The desktop is connected via HDMI, and the monitor has an empty DVI port. Which of the following steps should the technician perform first? (Select two). A. Check the version of the HDMI cable. B. Check the input source. C. Set up the desktop for DVI. D. Replace the HDMI cable. E. Install OS updates. F. Initiate a system restore. Correct Answer: A, B Section: Explanation: The first steps that the technician should perform are A. Check the version of the HDMI cable and B. Check the input source. A possible cause of the problem is that the HDMI cable is not compatible with the 4K resolution of the monitor. HDMI cables have different versions that support different features and bandwidths. For example, HDMI 1.4 supports up to 4K at 30 Hz, while HDMI 2.0 supports up to 4K at 60 Hz1. The technician should check the version of the HDMI cable and make sure it matches the specifications of the monitor and the desktop. Another possible cause of the problem is that the monitor is not set to the correct input source. The input source is the option that allows the monitor to switch between different video signals from different ports, such as HDMI, DVI, VGA, or DisplayPort2. The technician should check the input source and make sure it is set to HDMI, since that is how the desktop is connected to the monitor. The input source can usually be changed using the buttons or menu on the monitor itself2. QUESTION 101 A technician installed a Cat 5 UTP cable approximately 275ft (84m) from a network switch in an office to a workstation located on a factory floor. The technician sees both a flashing green LED and a flashing orange LED on the workstation's NIC. Which of the following should the technician do first? A. Check for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical damage. B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cable run. IT Certification Exams - Questions & Answers | Vdumps.com C. Replace the entire run of Cat 5 UTP cable with Cat 5 STP cable. D. Upgrade the entire cable run to multimode fiber. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The correct answer is B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cable run. The problem is most likely caused by the excessive length of the Cat 5 UTP cable, which exceeds the maximum limit of 100 meters (328 feet) for Ethernet over twisted pair12. This can result in signal degradation, interference, and packet loss, which can affect the network performance and connectivity. The flashing green LED indicates that the NIC is receiving data, while the flashing orange LED indicates that the NIC is sending data3. However, these LEDs do not indicate the quality or speed of the data transmission, which may be poor due to the long cable run. The best solution is to install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cable run. A powered hub is a device that can amplify and regenerate the signal, as well as provide additional ports for connecting more devices. A powered hub can extend the effective range of the cable and improve the network performance and connectivity1. The other options are not the best solutions for this problem. Checking for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical damage is a good troubleshooting step, but it is unlikely to solve the problem if the cable is too long. Replacing the entire run of Cat 5 UTP cable with Cat 5 STP cable may reduce some interference, but it will not solve the problem of signal degradation due to the length. Upgrading the entire cable run to multimode fiber may provide better performance and range, but it will also re