Comprehensive Test Questions PUP 5045 PDF

You may wish to watch (optional): https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HWqv6RH-3WE Chapter 1: The Foundation Multiple Choice 1. Intended and unintended consequences of U.S. public policy affect whom? A. largely minorities B. everyone in the United States C. primarily wealthy taxpayers and corporations. D. individuals on public assistance 2. A political action committee (PAC) performs what function? A. It recruits voters to register and vote in local, state, and federal elections. B. It wrestles through the appropriate language used in a specific legislative or regulatory endeavor to capture the intent most accurately. C. It allows corporations to directly fund candidates for public office. D. It aggregates individual contributions to funnel them to influence policymakers’ actions. 3. The statement by Laswell in 1958 of “who gets what, when and how” most directly describes which of the following? A. power B. politics C. distributive property D. policy 4. The concept that we all have the same access to influence policymaking in the United States is called ______. A. pluralism B. elitism C. foundational doctrine D. egalitarianism 5. U.S. Public Policy is developed within a federalist system in which power is ______. A. concentrated within the federal government B. wielded by special interest groups that determine policy C. divided between the national government and the states D. held by the people 6. Public policy in which private student loans are forgiven for certain college students is an example of ______ policy. A. statutory B. regulatory C. distributive D. redistributive 7. The Clean Air Act is an example of policy that is ______. A. confiscatory B. regulatory C. distributive D. redistributive 8. The public policymaking process has been coined the ______. A. policy roadmap B. grand public negotiation C. stages heuristic approach D. policy phases model 9. Once a problem has been identified and defined, the next stage of the process is ______. A. policy legitimation B. policy formulation C. agenda setting D. policy validation 10. In policymaking terms, as Patrick Kennedy championed mental health parity with physical health benefits in Congress, he was acting as a ______. A. policy adjutant B. subject matter expert C. power broker D. policy entrepreneur 11. Which of the following terms best describes the agenda setting stage? A. prioritization of available policy options B. identification of policy needs C. researching implications of available policies D. extensive constituent issue polling activity 12. The pros and cons of a particular policy across various constituencies are most directly evaluated during which stage of policymaking? A. policy legitimation B. policy formulation C. agenda setting D. policy validation 13. The percentage of bills introduced in Congress each year that become law is typically ______. A. between 30% and 50% B. between 20% and 30% C. between 10% and 20% D. less than 5% 14. Who has responsibility in Congress for determining whether a given bill should come to the floor for a vote? A. the Speaker of the House B. the policy adjutant C. the assigned committee D. the Majority Whip 15. Which entity(s) is/are most directly responsible for federal policy implementation? A. administration agencies B. the Congress C. the Supreme Court D. caucuses 16. The entity that is considered reactive to the policymaking process is ______? A. administrative agencies B. the Supreme Court C. the Congress D. the President 17. In 2020, nearly what percentage of the members of the U.S. Congress were women? A. 15% B. 25% C. 35% D. 40% 18. Supreme Court Justice are appointed for life by ______ and confirmed by ______. A. the House of Representatives; the Senate B. the House of Representatives; the President C. the Senate; the President D. the President; the Senate 19. Which organization carries out legislation on a daily basis by implementing policy? A. corporations B. the executive branch C. bureaucracies D. the Congress 20. What is the conceptual tool the media uses to shape public perception of an issue? A. framing B. slander C. person-on-the-street interviews D. sensationalism 21. An individual hired by an organization to meet with congressional representatives to persuade them to pass policies to benefit their interests is called a(n) ______. A. attorney B. delegate C. advocate D. lobbyist 22. What is one of the most important aspects of policy analysis? A. formal training in economics, math, statistics, or law B. a value-neutral commitment C. a journalistic background to appropriately frame the analysis D. experience in other stages of the policymaking process 23. What do the National Academy of Sciences and the U.S. Government Accountability Office have in common? A. They are commonly thought of as unbiased and accurate sources of policy analysis. B. They were both chartered by congress in the same year. C. All major policy analysis is undertaken by one of the two of them. D. They both assess policies in terms of a retrospective cost–benefit framework. 24. In 2012, Stone called a group of people who live under the same rules and structure of governance a(n) ______. A. enclave B. political community C. cultural community D. community of choice 25. Which of the following elements is expected to bring balance to the policymaking process? A. competing special interests cancel out each other’s influence over time B. the arguments for and against special interest positions expose weaknesses that tend to illuminate the best alternative C. participation by broad segments of the population D. the system moves slowly by design to allow for significant debate and discovery before a given solution is implemented True/False 1. Public policy can be defined as the relatively stable, purposive course of action pursued by the public in dealing with some problem or matter of concern. 2. An individual’s experience often illuminates the desire for public policy or a policy change. 3. The problem identification and definition stage of policy development is commonly agreed to be the easiest and most straightforward of the stages. 4. Policy formulation is inherently connected to values, purposes, and interests. 5. The entry point for all federal criminal cases is the U.S. district court. 6. The Supreme Court historically hears about 7%–10% of the cases appealed to it. 7. Organized groups of individuals who fight for a cause are called interest groups. 8. Policy analysis can be thought of as deconstructing an object of study to understand it better. 9. The process of policy evaluation varies little across professional policy evaluators. 10. Agencies have very little interpretive leeway in implementing laws. Chapter 2: The Policy Process and Policy Theories Multiple Choice 1. The perception of public problems creates a ______ that we call public policy. A. discussion B. course of action C. debate D. call for new elected officials 2. Significant episodes or experiences that catapult issues to prominence in the public’s attention are called ______. A. sentinel events B. blowups C. watershed moments D. focusing events 3. Policy analysts have noted a strong correlation between economic health of the nation and competing policy priorities, such that when the economy is troubled, ______. A. policy tends to focus on the environment instead B. policy tends to focus on “fixing” the economy C. the policy discourse tends to shift blame to external sources such as trade partners, geopolitics, or incidents of military aggression D. other policy priorities rise to take its place so politicians can avoid the subject 4. The primary reason that an attempt to force all American drivers to drive Priuses to reduce emissions into the environment would likely fail is that ______. A. policy is deeply grounded in the social and cultural values of each society, one of which is freedom of choice B. Toyota is not an American company so this would not directly benefit the U.S. economy C. policy tends to provide broad solutions because policymakers could never agree on a single, focused solution like this D. special interests, such as other automakers would staunchly oppose it and derail the effort 5. Today’s political environment can easily be characterized as polarized. How does this affect policymaking? A. The situation reduces focus on the political environment relative to the economy. B. The situation brings policymaking nearly to a halt. C. The situation elevates the impact of the political environment relative to other environments. D. The situation encourages single-party agendas and eliminates cooperation. 6. What is one of the primary ways that election cycles affect policymaking? A. Elected officials take months off from policymaking to campaign in their home states. B. Elected officials tend to aggressively push even controversial agendas near reelection to deliver memorable value to voters and the perception of action. C. Newly elected officials are eager to pass new legislation to validate their election and will therefore compromise more readily. D. Elected officials are less likely to embrace controversial positions leading up to their reelection vote. 7. Why was the implementation of the Accountable Care Act’s marketplace website such a disaster from a policy standpoint? A. The legislation preceded the technology to execute the marketplace effectively. B. The administrative or implementational environment was not clear and succinct. C. The website was a last minute addition to the law that required clarification to several other components of the roll-out, significantly delaying its implementation. D. States were not adequately consulted, and many chose not to participate. 8. The policy debate about improving education in the United States illustrates the importance of the discussion around not just what should be done, but ______. A. how soon it should be done B. why it should be done C. which level of government should take action D. how government responsibilities should be redesigned 9. An early hope of policy theories as it relates to policy timing is to ______. A. better anticipate the outcome of policies prior to implementation B. tighten the turnaround time of policy evaluation once enacted C. explain the timeline of policy enactment D. untangle intertwined policies and quickly and accurately isolate each one’s impact 10. The quest for comprehensive policy theory in an arena like healthcare with many policies and laws enacted over great amounts of time is most directly grounded in understanding ______. A. which laws could be repealed without major incident B. the impact of each policy if the confounding impact of the others were removed C. how each of the distinct policies could be improved D. how these policies fit and work together with the others 11. If you and your roommate arrive at differing definitions of the public problem at the root of sugary drinks, it is because defining a public problem is often a(n) ______. A. social construction B. absolute exercise C. personal reality D. group dynamic issue 12. Which stage of the policymaking process is the one that most policy options will not progress beyond? A. Stage 3 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 4 D. Stage 5 13. The agenda level that consists of policy initiatives that reasonably stand a chance of action in the stages heuristic model is called the ______. A. decision agenda B. systemic universe C. policy universe D. institutional agenda 14. Which policy tool would be a leading contender to discourage or reduce consumption of a given food or beverage? A. money B. services C. taxes D. suasion 15. The heavy lifting during the legitimation stage of the policymaking process is most accurately done by ______? A. congressional committees B. administrative agencies C. both houses of Congress D. caucuses 16. Who would you expect would be most strongly oppose legislation being proposed to increase taxes on sodas to limit consumption? A. trucking companies B. convenience stores C. recycling companies D. the American Medical Association 17. Which stage in the process is the one that usually loses the attention of the media, even in policy that initially received widespread public and media attention? A. Stage 3: Formulation B. Stage 5: Implementation C. Stage 6: Evaluation D. Stage 4: Legitimation 18. Risk assessment is typically an important and formal part of which stage of policymaking? A. Stage 2 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 5 D. Stage 6 19. Criticisms that have been leveled at the stages model of policy theory is that ______. A. it doesn’t adequately account for bad actors or corruption B. it is too simplistic and linear C. it has too many stages D. it overemphasizes the role of government agencies 20. The most widely utilized policy model is called the ______. A. Stages Heuristic Model B. Multiple Streams Model C. Punctuated Equilibrium Theory D. Linear Model of Policymaking 21. Which policy theory primarily attempts to account for the messiness of policymaking and emphasizes its lack of order? A. Stages Heuristic Model B. Punctuated Equilibrium Theory C. Linear Model of Policymaking D. Multiple Streams Model 22. A criticism shared by both the Stages and the Multiple Streams models is that ______. A. they both overcomplicate the number of steps B. neither explains nor predicts when a policymaking window may open C. neither appropriately accounts for bad actors D. they both give the impression of equal and consistent steps to a defined process 23. In which policy theory do the concepts of incrementalism and nonincrementalism compete to explain the underpinnings of policymaking? A. Stages Heuristic Model B. Punctuated Equilibrium Theory C. Linear Model of Policymaking D. Multiple Streams Model 24. Which of the following would we refer to as unofficial actors? A. governors B. lobbyists C. executive agencies D. the courts 25. Policy theorists believe that ______ adequately accounts for the role of actors in the policy process. A. the Narrative Policy Model B. the Punctuated Equilibrium Model C. no current model D. the Stages Heuristic Model True/False 1. Policy is best characterized as a binary choice between two opposing courses of action. 2. The chapter suggests that policy theory should help us understand and anticipate the impact of various actors on policy? 3. The chapter provides a particularly clear definition of the issue of sugary soda’s driving obesity rates such that this connection should compel policy action for public safety. 4. Policy formulation is often, once defined, identifying the best technical solution to a given problem. 5. The Policy Implementation stage is straightforward and does not call for term or concept definition to be made since that effort occurred at earlier stages of policy development. 6. The first five stages of the policymaking process formulate a consensus of what will make a given policy successful and therefore set the evaluation parameters. 7. Elected officials are often our best sources for policy evaluation because they are close to both the original intention of the policy and the evaluation process that assesses it. 8. According to Baumgartner and Jones, periods of equilibrium account for much longer time cycles than periods of disequilibrium. 9. The language, definitions, and conceptual steps are all part of the framework for understanding that policy theorists seek to provide through comprehensive theories. 10. Single agencies are usually given responsibility to implement a given law to maximize efficiency and accountability. Chapter 3: Federalism and Intergovernmental Relations Multiple Choice 1. A citizen’s use of marijuana is one of the areas that particularly clearly demonstrates ______ between state and federal laws and the resulting enforcement practices. A. tight, overlapping cooperation across agencies B. a schism where laws do not agree so enforcement cannot agree C. separate but overlapping responsibilities since policies are in alignment D. loose cooperation with overlapping jurisdiction 2. The Articles of Confederation are known for concentrating power in ______. A. the federal government B. the national Congress C. state militias D. state governments 3. The net effect of the constitutional convention that drafted our current constitution in 1787 was a ______? A. dramatic increase in state power B. dramatic increase in federal power C. significant shuffling of responsibilities but with a notable strengthening of the federal government D. significant increase in both federal and local powers at the expense of state rights 4. The “national supremacy clause” stipulates that ______. A. federal law supersedes state law when legitimate and operating within the scope of constitutional authority B. federal law always supersedes state law C. federal constitutional law supersedes state law D. federal law only supersedes state law if state law is silent on the subject 5. Article IV of the Constitution provides for ______, as in the case of one state recognizing another state’s driver’s license as valid in their state. A. cross-state validity B. state reciprocity C. horizontal federalism D. constitutional parity 6. Sovereignty of the ______ is reserved by the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution? A. court B. national government C. individual D. state 7. Which level of government is most responsible for police, fire, building codes, zoning codes, and parks? A. federal B. local C. state D. regional 8. The goal of the framers of the Constitution was clearly a(n) ______ government. A. efficient B. strong C. limited D. comprehensive 9. What was the catalyst that began to change the relationship between the federal government and state and local governments? A. Prohibition B. World War I C. the Great Depression D. World War II 10. How does fiscal federalism work? A. States apply to the federal government to fund specific objectives of state government. B. The federal government issues large block grants to be used the way state and local governments see fit. C. Funding responsibility for federal programs is increasingly shifted to states. D. The federal government gives grants to states or local governments to implement federal policies. 11. Which chronology of the evolution of federalism is most correct? A. dual, cooperative, and then creative federalism B. creative, dual, and then cooperative federalism C. dual, creative, and then cooperative federalism D. cooperative, dual, and then creative federalism 12. Which president presided over the most expansive social spending policy since the New Deal? A. President Roosevelt B. President Johnson C. President Hoover D. President Obama 13. Who are the key actors in “vertical functional autocracies?” A. private sector subject matter experts B. political appointees C. state government private contractors D. government agency personnel 14. One of the major results of picket fence federalism is that a state worker ______. A. may feel resentment at coercion driven from their federal counterparts “over the fence” B. may look for ways to get money “through the fence” and use it for unintended purposes in other state programs C. who is a functional specialist may feel a stronger link to federal specialists in the same area than to other workers in their state government D. often ignores improvement, developments, or innovations that are not directly within their program but could be applicable 15. Over the last four decades, state and local governments have ______ effectively develop, implement, and maintain the policies and programs that serve its citizens. A. increased capacity to B. maintained capacity to C. decreased capacity to D. transferred responsibilities and resources to federal agencies that 16. Opinion polls consistently rank ______ highest in terms of trust and problem-solving in their sphere of influence. A. Congress B. local government C. state government D. the President 17. What is the percentage of our delegable national environmental programs that are overseen by state agencies and resources? A. under 15% B. over 95% C. between 20% and 50% D. between 50% and 75% 18. Which part of government is generally considered to be the most innovative in the policy realm? A. the Executive Branch B. Congress C. local government D. state government 19. Based on what you know about state cultures and preferences, which state would be most likely to support a policy allowing noncitizens to vote in state and local elections. A. Texas B. California C. Kansas D. Georgia 20. Which level of government delivers most services to individual citizens on a daily basis? A. local and state B. city and county C. state and county D. national and county 21. The constitutionality of fiscal federalism was upheld by the Supreme Court based on the test issue related to ______. A. civil rights B. air pollution C. clean water D. highway funding 22. Which 3-year period saw the government funding devoted to the needs of the poor doubled? A. 1932–1935 B. 1965–1968 C. 1980–1983 D. 2013–2016 23. As of 2019, the size of federal government grants to state and local governments to fund a wide range of public policies was ______? A. $100 billion B. $750 billion C. $3 trillion D. $900 million 24. Which level(s) of government does our system of federalism consider sovereign? A. state only B. state and national C. local and state D. national only 25. As the nation evolved from early forms of federalism to later versions, how did the federal government’s purview change? A. It lost power to the states as the states took on more federal responsibilities. B. It became more limited as the federal government increasingly outsourced growth and implementation to state and local governments. C. Fiscal federalism, offering a choice, allowed the federal government to legislate outside of its original constitutionally specific areas of mandate. D. The federal government began to focus more on international endeavors, leaving the domestic agenda to states to administer. True/False 1. School districts are a key part of local governments. 2. Congress passed legislation in 1987 that was signed into law the next year and made 21 the nationwide minimum drinking age. 3. The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act prohibited Congress from imposing unfunded mandates on state and local governments. 4. Today, states play the major role in public education and higher education. 5. Block grants were designed to give more flexibility to recipients across more broadly defined policy areas than previous categorical grants. 6. In 2020, 23 states had Republican legislatures and governors in office, called a “trifecta.” 7. Access to elected officials at the state level is much greater than at the national level, which reinforces greater responsiveness at the state level. 8. Policy trial and error can be more efficient at the state level than the national level. 9. Most federal policies are implemented exclusively at the national level without assistance from state or local governments. 10. “Creative” federalism has also been called “coercive” federalism. Chapter 4: Rulemaking and Regulations Multiple Choice 1. Which opinion is shared by most Americans? A. There is too little regulation on business and industry. B. There is too much regulation on business and industry. C. There is the right amount of regulation on business and industry, but enforcement is too lax. D. There is the right amount of regulation on business and industry, but enforcement is too strict. 2. The U.S. Department of Transportation proposed three options for rules related to peanuts on airplanes. This demonstrates the need to ______. A. consider the financial costs of its regulations B. balance the rights of airline employees and customers C. consider growing concerns about nutrition and public health D. balance the rights of businesses and public safety concerns 3. How are government regulations about whether to allow peanuts and e-cigarettes on a plane similar? A. They both involve the same federal agency. B. They both follow the same rulemaking process. C. They both have been declared unconstitutional. D. They both are decided by laws passed by Congress. 4. Rules banning the use of e-cigarettes on planes are intended to achieve which regulatory goal? A. promoting public interest B. ensuring competition in business C. compensating for market failures D. responding to demands of elected officials 5. What is statutory law? A. the enforcement of agency rules and regulations B. a law that has been vetoed by the executive branch C. the outcome of the congressional lawmaking process D. a law that has been passed by the state level of government 6. The Every Student Succeeds Act and the Affordable Care Act are examples of ______. A. regulations B. common law C. agency rules D. statutory law 7. What is the main purpose of the Food and Drug Administration? A. to promote agriculture production B. to protect against illegal drug trafficking C. to ensure what Americans consume is safe D. to ensure Americans have access to food and drugs 8. Rulemaking is defined as the process by which ______. A. an agency or congressional committee involves the public B. a legislature overturns the regulations of a government agency C. an agency creates regulations to implement congressional statutes D. a congressional committee makes decisions about proposed legislation 9. Delegation of authority describes when Congress ______. A. assigns a bill to committee B. overrules a presidential veto C. grants policymaking power to agencies D. overturns an agency rule 10. Congress has passed a controversial health care law. The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to develop regulations to implement the law. Many people are upset about the new regulations. They complain about HHS and circulate a petition to have the regulations revoked. What aspect of the policymaking process is illustrated in this example? A. judicial review B. regulatory recall C. separation of power D. shift of responsibility 11. What is the main concern related to the delegation of policymaking authority to agencies? A. Agency bureaucrats lack expertise. B. Agencies have competing agendas. C. Agency bureaucrats are not elected officials. D. Agencies can overrule congressional decisions. 12. What impact did the Administrative Procedure Act of 1946 have on the policymaking process? A. It established rules for how a bill becomes a law. B. It created the legislative committee structure. C. It established administrative rulemaking guidelines. D. It created permanent agencies of the executive branch. 13. The review of the Office of Management and Budget’s Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) represents a check of ______. A. Congress on the President B. the President on Congress C. Congress on federal agencies D. the President on federal agencies 14. What is the main role of OIRA review? A. to ensure that regulations do not contradict one another B. to ensure that regulations do not contradict federal or state laws C. to ensure that regulations will not have an undue impact on business. D. to ensure that regulations will not have an undue impact on government. ANOTHER OPTION: To ensure that regulations are enforced uniformly. 15. Federal agencies are required to publish a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in ______. A. the Federal Register B. the Washington Post C. the Congressional Digest D. White House briefings 16. Why is it difficult for researchers to determine the influence of businesses on the rules created by an agency? A. The language of the final rules is different from what is proposed during Stage 1. B. Participants are not forthcoming about the exchanges that happen during Stage 1. C. Confidentiality rules apply to public comments made during Stage 2. D. Business groups often use litigation to achieve their desired outcomes after Stage 3. 17. What is the main reason regulators conduct site visits? A. to get input into new laws and regulations B. to ensure that a company is in compliance with the law C. to establish public–private partnerships for the public good D. to understand business challenges in adhering to a new regulation 18. What is the main criticism of an intention-based regulatory enforcement style? A. It focuses on results rather than deterrence. B. It creates an adversarial relationship with businesses. C. The government will lose revenue from fines and fees. D. Business owners may be able to get away with noncompliance. 19. Which statement best describes the trend in regulation, based on recent research? A. Regulators are becoming stricter in demanding compliance. B. Regulators are shifting toward collaborative relationships to achieve compliance. C. Regulators are shifting their responsibilities to professional associations and third parties. D. Regulators are assuming greater responsibility for creating rules that address concerns of businesses. 20. How did the regulatory environment change during the Trump administration? A. There were fewer civil servants to ensure compliance. B. There were fewer rules but stricter enforcement measures. C. Businesses found it difficult to keep pace with the influx of new rules. D. Regulators became more concerned about consistency in enforcement. 21. A regulator who works for a state agency makes a site visit to a plant that makes potato chips. He sees that the plant has had few issues in the past, but it has been several years since the last site visit. He notes that there are several pieces of new equipment on the floor, and he asks the operators a few questions. After his tour, he writes up a series of minor offenses and gives the report to the owner, along with a fine for noncompliance with one rule that has been recently passed by EPA. Which term describes the regulator’s approach? A. cooperative B. delegated C. intention-based D. precision-based 22. During which stage of the rulemaking process is the public invited to comment? A. the prerule stage B. the notice of proposed rulemaking stage C. the final rule stage D. the implementation stage 23. How often does the Federal Register update the rulemaking activities of federal agencies? A. daily B. weekly C. monthly D. on an as-needed basis 24. What is the purpose of www.regulations.gov? A. to allow the public to view how rules will be enforced B. to allow the public to view and comment on proposed rules C. to give businesses input on proposed rules and compliance D. to give businesses access to reports on site visits and compliance issues 25. Which sector of the community are least likely to have influence in the policymaking process? A. urban residents B. environmentalists C. low-income families D. small business owners True/False 1. With a few exceptions, all states have the same agencies. 2. Both Congress and federal agencies create public policy. 3. A rule created by an agency has the same legal force as a law. 4. Congress has the power to appoint the directors of federal agencies. 5. A rule cannot move forward until it is approved by OIRA. 6. The Supreme Court lacks the authority to overturn policies established by federal agencies. 7. All states follow the same rulemaking process. 8. President Trump added thousands of workers to federal agencies. 9. A rule passed by a federal agency takes effect when it is passed as law by Congress. 10. If Congress does not approve of an agency’s rules, it can cut the agency’s budget. Chapter 5: Economic Policy and Government Budgeting Multiple Choice 1. Why does our government shutdown periodically? A. Overspending from the previous year requires the government to shut down for a period to offset the previous overspending. B. Due to a disagreement between parties on priorities that results in them not passing a budget for the next year before the year begins. C. There is an unfunded number of days or weeks in the budget process every year, but some are more publicized than others. D. Republicans tend to shut down the government when in power to reduce spending. 2. What is the government role in a command or centrally planned economy? A. The government is a bystander in this type of economy, leaving the production to private sector experts. B. The government sets the rules of production by regionally dispersing production responsibilities and enforces contracts to improve economic fairness across the country. C. The military controls production and owns assets that they subcontract to experts to produce so that military consumption needs always top the priority list. D. The government owns all assets and controls all aspects of the economy, including what is produced, how much is produced, and how much it is sold for. 3. The broad decisions the government makes about taxation, government spending, and various subsidies for industry sectors is generally referred to as ______. A. economic theory B. economic policy C. fiscal policy D. budgetary policy 4. Of the several economic theories, which is the most supportive of government intervention playing a key role in growth? A. Keynesian B. Trickle-down C. Classical D. Supply-side 5. What does GDP (Gross Domestic Product) measure about an economy? A. unfinished goods produced by an economy within a year for export B. goods and services made and consumed by an economy each year C. total goods and services produced in a year by the economy D. the 10-year average of consumption of goods and services by an economy 6. Three of the primary measures of economic health as presented are ______. A. unemployment rate, inflation rate, and consumer confidence B. growth rate, consumer confidence, and GDP C. GDP, trade deficit/surplus, and growth rate D. GDP, unemployment rate, and inflation rate 7. Which of the following best represents the scale of the drop in GDP between April and June 2020 during the early stages of COVID-19? A. >20% B. >30% C. >50% D. >85% 8. If the Treasury printed and released new dollars into circulation, you would expect the value of the dollars you already hold to ______. A. be unaffected as these are new dollars being released B. increase, since the demand for more dollars makes them more valuable C. decrease, meaning the new dollars would make goods more expensive in dollars D. inflate so your dollars could buy more 9. The most vulnerable part of a budget process timeline has historically been ______. A. agency submission B. Office of Management and Budget informational requests and revisions C. congressional approvals D. presidential request submission 10. The top revenue source for the $3.5 trillion the U.S. government raised in 2019 was ______. A. excise taxes B. corporate income taxes C. payroll taxes D. individual income taxes 11. When elected officials are debating federal expenditure reductions, their focus is generally on which area of the budget because it has the most flexibility? A. the discretionary, nondefense category B. the discretionary, defense category C. the nondiscretionary category D. the mandatory spending categories 12. What effect has government decisions related to COVID-19 had on national debt levels? A. Both borrowing and revenues increased at similar rates, leaving debt levels essentially unchanged. B. Revenues decreased and borrowing increased to greatly increase debt levels. C. Revenues increased and borrowing decreased to greatly decrease debt levels. D. Revenues and borrowing both decreased such that debt climbed only slightly. 13. How quickly did the New Deal stimulus projects show tangible economic recovery? A. It happened within a matter of months. B. The consensus estimates are between 2 and 3 years. C. There was immediate improvement, but true recovery took 3–5 years. D. Even with massive spending, the U.S. economy did not recover until after entering World War II. 14. The New Deal and World War II were periods of massive spending. How would you characterize government spending from the point of the end of World War II to today? A. Spending generally settled back to prewar levels as we began attempting to retire national debt and war bonds. B. Some administrations spent more than others, but generally spending levels stayed near revenue levels from that point forward. C. Spending levels never returned to prewar levels and even continued to accelerate. D. Spending levels accelerated in the 1960s, but then decreased through the 2000s, only recently to reach new levels of spending above revenues with 2007s Great Recession. 15. The federal government response to the Great Recession, beginning in 2007 was to ______. A. bail out major corporations, such as Citigroup, JPMorgan Chase, and Chrysler B. underwrite state government loans to allow states to borrow beyond typical limits C. temporarily increase unemployment payments to help displaced workers D. invest directly in the stock market to support share prices and financial viability of its listed companies 16. The primary aim of the Dodd-Frank Act, passed in the first term of the Obama administration was to ______. A. increase public works spending for new roads and bridges to stimulate the economy B. increase oversight and tighten regulations on the financial industry to avoid repeating previous excesses C. recapitalize Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac D. provide for the slow sell-off of stock market assets now owned by the federal government as the stock market recovered 17. The steepest single quarterly drop in GDP ever recorded for the U.S. economy occurred because of which event? A. Great Recession B. COVID-19 C. Great Depression D. World War I 18. Which Act established the Congressional Budget Office and the budget process that stands today around an October 1 fiscal year? A. Federal Reserve Act of 1913 B. Budget and Accounting Act of 1921 C. Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001 D. Congressional Budget and Impoundment Act of 1974 19. The primary actor that is responsible for creating wide-ranging economic, tax, subsidy, and other legislative economic policy is ______. A. the President B. congress C. the Supreme Court D. the House of Representatives 20. The primary agency responsible for protecting consumers from illegal trusts and preventing market collusion is the ______. A. Federal Trade Commission B. Securities and Exchange Commission C. Council of Economic Advisors D. Federal Bureau of Investigation 21. In the United States, currency is printed by the ______. A. Secret Service B. Internal Revenue Service C. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation D. Department of the Treasury 22. Republicans are more likely than Democrats to believe that ______. A. economic opportunities should be provided for all by the federal government B. the states are the best providers of services so delegation to them is more appropriate than federal service delivery C. national government is a service–delivery entity that citizens should be willing to pay a fee to access quality opportunities D. government should be efficient, but not necessarily small so they should tax to provide greater services 23. Which of the following was a major trade agreement that was renegotiated early in the Trump presidency to create an updated and more balanced trade environment for American companies, workers, and consumers? A. Central American Free Trade Agreement B. North American Free Trade Agreement C. the Americas Economic Partnership D. the U.S.–China Enhanced Trade Agreement 24. When government expenditures exceed government revenues, it is called ______. A. a surplus B. a deficit C. a debt D. underconsumption 25. Which of the following is most likely to decrease in the future as a spending category? A. interest on the national debt B. health social spending on Medicare and Medicaid C. discretionary spending D. social security True/False 1. The economy of California is larger than the economy of many entire countries. 2. Economies seek equilibrium between supply and demand of goods and services to operate optimally. 3. A budget is a document that essentially expresses the priorities of a government or an individual. 4. As of 2020, nearly 30% of the federal budget is required to be spent by mandate, law, or other obligation. 5. Although significant, the financial impact of COVID-19 is well quantified as of the end of 2021 without further consequences expected. 6. The single largest economic stimulus bill ever passed, called the CARES Act, was signed by President Trump in 2020 to ease the catastrophic effects of the Coronavirus pandemic. 7. The Congressional Budget Office is known as a highly respected nonpartisan entity that scores various policy proposals and assesses their budget impact. 8. The president relies on the Congressional Budget Office to put together the first draft of the federal budget submission each year. 9. The Internal Revenue System is a bureau under the broader Federal Reserve System. 10. At a fundamental level, one of the starkest differences between Democrats and Republicans is their philosophy of how to prioritize choices and spend money. Chapter 6: Crime and Public Policy Multiple Choice 1. Most gun violence deaths each year in the United States are a result of ______. A. armed robbery B. suicide C. mass shooting D. gang violence 2. Crimes are ______ that are prohibited by federal and/or state governments because they are deemed to be harmful to society. A. thoughts B. beliefs C. intentions D. actions 3. The most serious types of crimes are called ______ and are punishable by more than 1 year in prison. A. misdemeanors B. felonies C. infractions D. indictments 4. The key difference between criminal and civil law is that ______ A. criminal law requires that the case against a defendant is brought by the government and must be proven “beyond a reasonable doubt.” B. civil law requires that the case against a defendant is brought by the government and must be proven “beyond a reasonable doubt.” C. the penalties for civil law violations are only restitution. D. the burden of proof in civil law is higher than criminal law. 5. Robbery, larceny, burglary, and auto theft are examples of ______. A. personal crimes B. misdemeanors C. property crimes D. federal crimes 6. Over 90% of cases in the United States are heard in ______ courts and ______ of those are civil cases. A. district; 25% B. federal; 50% C. state; 0% D. state; 20% 7. The U.S. violent crime rate has ______ over the last three decades. A. increased by a third B. dropped by half C. stayed about the same D. decreased by about 10% 8. The National Crime Victimization Survey collects data on who has been victimized by crime by doing which of the following? A. conducting 50,000 surveys to understand how many crimes went unreported to supplement reported crime trends B. matching census data with crime data to develop victim profiles by age, sex, race, and so on C. surveying 90,000 households each year, asking if any have been crime victims D. aggregating police reports from across the country 9. Which type of crime has risen tenfold over the last 20 years? A. drug possession B. tax evasion C. fraud and identity theft D. grand larceny 10. One study by the Brennan Center for Justice found that ______ was a factor in the decreased overall crime rate beginning in the 1990s. A. increased community watch campaigns B. increased community liaisons C. increased sentencing minimums D. increased numbers of police 11. When several states reduced their prison populations by nonviolent offenders, the state’s crime rates ______. A. continued the decreasing trend B. increased dramatically C. decreased dramatically D. increased somewhat, but not significantly 12. The optimal timeframe for setting public policy is ______. A. year-over-year so the information is fresh and relevant B. long-term to smooth out short-term fluctuations within single years C. intermediate term, as in 2- to 3-year time horizons D. intermediate term, as in 3- to 5-year time horizons 13. In a study of the 30 largest cities in the United States, half of the increase in crime was attributed to just three cities. They are Washington D.C., ______ and ______. A. Chicago; Los Angeles B. Atlanta; Philadelphia C. Houston; Seattle D. Chicago; Baltimore 14. There are more than 2.3 million people in prison in the United States, which represents an increase of ______ over the last 40 years. A. 100% B. 250% C. 500% D. 750% 15. The current trends in prison healthcare are expected to ______. A. increase the costs of housing the prison population dramatically as large populations age B. decrease dramatically as hundreds of thousands were released early to avoid COVID exposure C. remain about the same as major policies have not changed that would increase or decrease prison populations significantly D. decrease mildly as individual states begin to lighten sentencing requirements for nonviolent drug offenders, especially related to marijuana possession 16. Criminalizing conduct under federal law when state laws would suffice is shown to ______. A. have a dampening effect on the targeted crime rates immediately through the legislation B. be popular with the public, but has no appreciable impact on violent crime C. worsen the problem as federal and state law enforcement agencies must become better at coordinating activities and jurisdictions D. take longer to obtain traction, but over the long-term is more effective than state law enforcement 17. The number one way that people in the United States come to understand criminal behavior and the U.S. justice system is through ______. A. an incarcerated family member or neighbor B. the media C. law enforcement D. direct or indirect exposure to criminal elements in their communities 18. Most state attorneys general serve to enforce state laws and achieve this position by ______. A. being appointed by the governor B. being appointed by the state Senate C. being appointed by a vote of the state’s legislature D. being voted into the position by state voters 19. What is the primary goal of probation and parole officers that is common to both roles? A. monitor the individual to ensure compliance with probation or release requirements B. rehabilitate the individual and encourage their reclamation as a productive member of society C. find work for the individual D. act as a social worker to counsel individuals to avoid substance abuse 20. The truth in sentencing approach varies by state, but was designed to reduce uncertainty around time to be served by the convicted, which in most states meant ______. A. requiring 85% of the sentence to be served B. eliminating the potential for parole before 75% of the sentence had been served C. decreasing judge latitude in sentencing by prescribing specific sentences by offense D. formally informing the defendant pre-trial of how individual offenses would add up if convicted on multiple counts as charged 21. What is the three strikes rule, in place federally and in 26 states? A. It imposes 25-year sentences for each violent felony conviction, past plus current, or 75 years as the minimum sentence with the third conviction or “strike.” B. It mandates life in prison for defendants convicted of three violent crimes. C. It imposes the death penalty for defendants convicted of three violent crimes. D. It imposes mandatory sentencing of 25 year to life for defendants convicted of three serious felonies. 22. Hooley found that the most important determinant of whether an individual released from prison will reoffend is ______. A. whether the individual finds a job that covers expenses in the first 6 months of release B. the individual’s peer group following release C. whether the individual secures housing and a job within the first 3 months after release D. individuals who undergo recidivism counseling and job training are half as likely to reoffend. 23. Nellis found that states in which African Americans are incarcerated at 10 times the rate of whites include ______. A. Louisiana, Alabama, and Arkansas B. Wisconsin, Vermont, and Minnesota C. New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Kansas D. Florida, Illinois, and New York 24. The effect of stiffer drug sentencing trends and focus on street crime enforcement along race and gender lines has been to increase arrest and incarceration rates for ______. A. Native American males B. young Black males C. white males under 40 D. Asian and white females at dramatic rates not seen before 25. The national rate at which juveniles are tried as adults is down over the last couple of decades, but what is the effect on recidivism rates for juveniles who are convicted as adults? A. Recidivism rates are about the same for juveniles with adult convictions as they are for juveniles with juvenile convictions. B. Juveniles with adult convictions have much lower recidivism rates than juveniles sent to juvenile facilities. C. Recidivism rates are higher for juveniles with adult convictions than they are for juveniles with juvenile convictions. D. Juveniles convicted as adults are slightly less likely than juveniles convicted as juveniles to reoffend. True/False 1. Inchoate crimes are one of the four broad categories of crime. 2. The burden of proof for prosecutors is higher in civil cases than it is in criminal cases. 3. The most serious crimes are tried in federal courts. 4. The majority of cases in our justice system each year, 10s of millions of them, involve traffic violations. 5. Many states spend as much on incarceration as they do on higher education. 6. The best way to understand relative crime rates is at the city level, rather than at the state or community level. 7. Ten times more people were incarcerated for drug offenses in 2017, than were in 1980, making that number nearly half a million people today. 8. In nationwide polls, most people believe crime is a problem and on the rise nationally, but few see it as an issue in their own communities. 9. The primary argument put forth for the death penalty is that it is a necessary social deterrent to crime. 10. Political ideology affects opinion on capital punishment as roughly two third of conservatives support it, but just over one third of liberals do. Chapter 7: Education Policy Multiple Choice 1. Over the last decade, enrollment in teacher education programs across the United States have ______. A. held close to record highs B. experienced steady decline C. climbed steadily D. achieved historic lows 2. According to an Education Week poll, the pandemic effect on teachers has been that ______. A. the disruption has caused most to recommit to their mission of education even more strongly than before B. 25% now indicate that a significant raise is the only thing that might convince them to stay in teaching C. 25% are considering taking at least a year off D. nearly one third of teachers nationally reported that they were now likely to leave their jobs, despite feeling otherwise before the pandemic 3. The federal government’s role in U.S. education is primarily focused in three broad areas: policies related to education funding, collection of data and research, and ______. A. determining busing standards and protocols B. enforcement of discrimination laws C. setting the rules for charter schools and special school districts D. confirming licensure for schools, teachers, and staff 4. The federal government on average provides ______ of the financial support for state education. A. 10% B. 20% C. 35% D. 55% 5. One of the primary comparison points across state K–12 education programs is ______. A. breadth of diverse athletic and music programs B. presence of guidance counselors C. money spent per student D. breadth of courses offered 6. The anticipated estimates of school funding shortfalls across the country (all 50 states) due to expensive COVID protocols and operational changes is______. A. $50–$100 billion B. $675–900 million C. $25–$50 billion D. $200–$300 billion 7. Horace Mann advocated for a public school system that would provide free education for all; his vision began to gain momentum in ______. A. colonial times B. the early 1800s C. the mid-1800s D. late 1800 8. What was the catalyst that led to greater focus on higher education in the United States, as evidenced by the first land grant colleges? A. westward expansion B. the focus on improving job skills following the great depression C. the macro shift in the U.S. economy from agrarian to industrial in the 19th century D. the effort to rebuild after the Civil War 9. What did the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 introduce to the school system of its time? A. massive school building programs to reduce class size and desegregate B. it introduced minimum statutory funding mandates to states, as well as some funding to support these mandate C. new grants to districts serving low-income students for textbooks, library books, funding for special education centers, and scholarships for low-income college students D. new grants to facilitate holistic education by introducing music and athletic programs in addition to textbooks and guidance counselors 10. President George Bush’s No Child Left Behind Act of 2002 instituted ______. A. longer schooldays and shorter vacation breaks to counter increasing review time following long breaks B. a national center for literacy for students with disabilities and dyslexia C. free school lunches and extended lunch time in low-income districts D. standardized annual testing in reading and math for Grades 3–8 11. Since implementation of standardized testing to track, normalize, and spur achievement across the nation, test scores have ______. A. shown reductions in scores B. shown consistent year-over-year improvements C. resulted in somewhat puzzling, inconsistent results with some years showing improvements and others, retrenchments D. increased scores somewhat, but not significantly 12. The program we have today (school choice) that allows children attending underperforming schools that desire to go to a better performing one has its roots in ______. A. 1965 with the passage of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act B. 2002 with the passage of the No Child Left Behind Act C. 1994 with the Improving America’s Schools Act D. 2015 with the Every Student Succeeds Act 13. According to long-term Gallup polls, Americans’ confidence in the public school system from 1973 to 2012 ______. A. Has increased by almost 10 percentage points over the nearly four decades B. Has declined slightly over the nearly four decades C. Has held steady at about 50% of the population having high or fairly high confidence D. Has experienced nearly a 50% drop 14. Which act importantly ensured that all Americans, specifically those with disabilities, mobility problems, learning difficulties, or who live in poverty may access education? A. Educate America Act B. Morrill Act C. Elementary and Secondary Education Act D. Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act 15. Which act was focused on increasing high school graduation rates, knowledge in STEM topics, and the social and emotional aspects of a child’s growth and provided a framework to quantify student progress? A. Educate America Act B. Every Student Succeeds Act C. Elementary and Secondary Education Act D. Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act 16. Congress’s role in education policy can best be described as setting national education policy to be implemented by the states, which often focuses Congress on major initiatives such as ______. A. ensuring equal access for all, and overseeing consistent school governance and curriculum across states B. ensuring equal access for all, improving education standards, and developing consistent norms across states C. ensuring equal access for all through civil rights legislation and funding, and developing new educational models D. ensuring equal access for all, improving education standards, and increasing teacher training and licensure requirements 17. One particular topic that has dominated discourse within the halls of Congress since the early 2000s is the issue of ______. A. national testing and the competitiveness of U.S. students in international rankings B. school choice C. Science, Technology, Engineering and Math (STEM) program enhancement D. new micro-school models 18. Which entity(s) is/are most directly responsible for determining how to implement educational standards? A. Department of Education B. Congress C. teacher’s unions D. state legislatures and governors 19. A governor’s annual budget submission to the legislature as it relates to their signature educational initiatives and policy is often guided by ______. A. teacher’s unions B. gubernatorial educational policy advisors C. parental advocacy groups D. state legislative mandates 20. Celebrated for exceptional performance as a superintendent, Matt Utterback was named National Superintendent of the year in 2017. One primary outcome that was a part of the success story was ______. A. raising graduation rates from 69% to 83% in just 4 years B. raising the district’s Science, Technology, Engineering and Math aptitude scores by 10 points in 4 years C. increasing literacy rates by third grade from 42% to 67% in 4 years D. placing libraries in every school and raising college attendance rates from 15% to 41% 21. Accessibility to technology and training for educators to best use technology in the classroom are two of the documented disparities playing out as mentioned most plainly ______. A. between colleges that emphasize a “technology-first” approach and those that do not B. between the United States and other countries that heavily emphasize technology- based learning C. as most schools are moving to fully online delivery of curriculum D. between rural and urban communities with urban communities often enjoying significant advantages 22. Students who have experienced at least partially technology-based learning in K–12 are often surprised as they enter college because ______. A. professors are using technology at a level that even many tech-savvy recent high school graduates are not comfortable meeting B. many professors at public universities do not leverage technology to the same degree that they have been C. navigating just the administrative elements of class sign-up, dorm selection, and guidance is challenging because these processes are all new and have moved completely online without much in-person support available D. the professors at public universities tend to leverage technology in the classroom, but the university infrastructure is still challenged by old paradigm computer labs, physical libraries, in-person attendance requirements and “sign-up sheets” and so on 23. What key factor is mentioned as primarily responsible for the 2021 teachers’ shortage? A. teachers being recruited into other higher-paying service roles B. years of declines in new teachers graduating from education programs C. massive teacher retirement related to COVID disruptions D. many, unable to support themselves through low pay have chosen new careers or moved into higher education 24. What has been one of the major criticisms of national standardized testing? A. The tests are too easy to be valuable and show real differentiation. B. The number of tests create significant stress on students to perform. C. States where people are allowed to opt out invalidate the sampling process. D. The testing environments are very unequal between schools, which can impact performance. 25. The educational interest group with particularly wide-ranging policy influences topics from education policy and implementation to child labor laws to juvenile justice reform is ______. A. National School Boards Association (NSBA) B. National Education Association (NEA) C. National Parent Teacher Association (PTA) D. American Federation of Teachers (AFT) True/False 1. The percentage allocated to education out of the total average state budget varies from 30% to 45% across the country. 2. Title IX legislation exclusively applies to nondiscrimination based on one’s sex in sports and therefore ensures that there are the same number of female sports teams are available as male teams. 3. Wyoming was the first state to appoint a director of distance learning. 4. National education policy is part of each president’s platform and often engenders focused support from the First Lady. 5. One of the major responsibilities of the Department of Education is to collect and disseminate research on schools. 6. Eighty percent of states and two territories have their own Department of Education to oversee standards, curriculum, and other aspects of educational operations and reporting. 7. Out of the 3.7 million teachers in K-12 education, less than 40% of teachers surveyed nationwide report satisfaction with their job. 8. What is the potential impact of “teaching to the test” in relation to national standardized testing? 9. One effort to improve student educational performance has involved tying teacher pay to student test scores and progress on those tests. 10. State legislatures and governors do not have the authority to determine individual curriculum items such as whether a certain book may be used in classrooms and available in school libraries. Chapter 8: Civil Rights and Immigration Policy Multiple Choice 1. What was the suffragist movement attempting to secure? A. equal rights for nonproperty owners B. the right for women to vote C. the right for African Americans to vote D. freedom for enslaved people 2. American Indians, much earlier inhabitants of North America than Europeans, secured U.S. citizenship in ______. A. 1787 B. 1819 C. 1965 D. 1924 3. A major concern for American Indians who inhabited lands near natural resources was ______ by the U.S. government. A. enslavement to work the resource B. territorial dispossession C. land use agreements negotiated on their behalf D. the building of dams or mines without their say to harvest those resources 4. The landmark Supreme Court decision in Brown v. Board of Education ruled ______. A. segregated schools were unequal B. American Indians were citizens of the United States with full rights thereof C. curriculum had to be consistent for all students D. all students must be allowed to participate in sports on an equal selection footing, regardless of race 5. Which policy or initiative brought many Irish Catholics to America in the 1800s and triggered religious discrimination against them as their numbers increased? A. Britain’s policy that laid claim to Ireland caused many to flee Ireland’s shores. B. Irish fighters were brought in as mercenaries to fight for the U.S. government in the U.S. Civil War. C. European Immigration was encouraged as labor to industrialize America. D. Land grants were offered to Europeans who would come directly work the plots as the U.S. expanded westward. 6. Why did Mexican Americans initially view the border between the United States and Mexico as an artificial one? A. Many of the inhabitants of the Southern United States were of nomadic ancestry that did not believe they should be made to choose citizenship that restricted their movement. B. The Mexican–American war was perceived as contrived by the U.S. government and therefore an illegitimate seizure of territory. C. It was fluid as multiple treaties redrew it as the United States expanded westward. D. The 1848 Treaty following the Mexican–American war gave them the right to choose Mexican or American citizenship by whether they chose to stay in U.S. territory. 7. What catalyst caused U.S. citizens to begin to view Mexicans as migrant workers who should return home? A. southern-leaning sentiments of Mexicans during the Civil War B. competition for jobs during the Great Depression C. several high-profile crimes committed by Mexicans D. Seasonal work patterns: Many Mexicans had established a pattern of spending a portion of the year in the United States around harvest time and a portion of the year in Mexico. 8. Longitudinal immigration trends show that now ______ of foreign-born immigrants are ______. A. 35%; Middle Eastern or African B. 50%; Asian C. 50%; Latin American D. 65%; Latin American or Asian 9. One of our first immigration policies as a nation was the Alien and Sedition Act. The intent of it was to ______. A. increase immigration from “friendly” countries and decrease immigration from “unfriendly” countries B. deport British spies who were hoping to retake the colonies by subterfuge C. guard against French immigrants being able to vote against America’s interests in the event of war with France D. discourage all immigration 10. Which immigration trend prompted the Chinese Exclusion Act of 1882? A. A small number of Chinese immigrants brought polio to the United States. B. Huge numbers of Chinese immigrants in Alaska created concern that the state may not join the United States if the numbers continued to increase. C. Significant numbers of Chinese immigrants fleeing communist takeover but taxing local community services. D. Chinese were drawn to the western United States by the Gold Rush and citizens were concerned that they would be economically displaced. 11. Estimates are that from 1900 to 1915, as many as ______ individuals per day arrived at Ellis Island. A. 5,000 B. 10,000 C. 15,000 D. 25,000 12. Which specific requirement was instituted for admittance to the country because of the 1917 Immigration Act? A. no admittance without proper documentation B. literacy test must be successfully completed C. passing medical examination required D. must be able to sign one’s name to match to stated name on documentation 13. What did the Immigrant Quota Act do? A. It set in place an active policy to draw immigrants from certain countries, based on their U.S. underrepresentation in a base year. B. It offered financial and land incentives for immigrants to the western United States. C. It attempted to balance immigration demographics by encouraging migration from some countries and discouraging it from others. D. It limited immigration from higher volume countries, based on their representation in a base year. 14. 1965s Immigration Act encouraged family reunification and ______? A. fast-tracked immigrants who had family members already in the country who would vouch for them B. attainment of immigrants with certain desirable skills C. abolished both the national origin quota system and the Asian exclusion laws D. provided straightforward paths to citizenship 15. Undocumented immigrants began to surface as a concern with an estimated 3–5 million living in the country without a likely path to citizenship during the ______. A. 1980s B. 1990s C. 1970s D. 2000s 16. The 1885 Contract Labor Law banned importation of contract labor because ______. A. contract labor was primarily coming from countries where the government did not want additional immigrants B. contract labor was generally cheaper than domestic wages and would undercut jobs for citizens C. contract labor was largely unskilled at the time and the United States was attempting to encourage higher-wage, higher skill workers D. the act closed a loophole where employers were generally lax in worker documentation 17. Key aspects of this act required an immigrant to speak English to acquire citizenship and moved the office of immigration from Treasury to Commerce and Labor. A. 1917 Immigration Act B. 1906 Naturalization Act C. Alien Registration Act of 1940 D. Chinese Labor Exclusion Act of 1882 18. Which Department was created by Congress in 2002 to secure the nation from the “many threats we face” with responsibilities ranging from aviation to border security? A. Bureau of Citizenship and Immigration Services B. Bureau of Population, Refugees, and Migration C. U.S. Customs and Border Protection D. Department of Homeland Security 19. Which organization determines whether a challenged immigration policy will be implemented or discarded? A. the President B. Supreme Court C. Department of Homeland Security D. the United Nations 20. What is the function of the E-Verify system being implemented in multiple states? A. Employers can confirm legal status of employees and prevents employers from hiring undocumented immigrants. B. It verifies voter social security numbers on-site. C. It validates where an individual is in their naturalization process. D. It confirms Visa documents from foreign governments required for immigrant entry are valid. 21. What is the name of one of the organizations particularly concerned that after 9/11, the United States may be sacrificing civil liberties for security? A. Supreme Court B. United Constitutional Patriots C. Immigration Posse D. American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) 22. Sanctuary cities are generally not well defined, but one thing these localities share is ______. A. they are large cities with significant undocumented immigrant populations already B. they agree not to ask someone to document their legal status because they view the practice as discriminatory C. they rely on labor forces that tend to consist of significant numbers of undocumented workers D. republican mayors 23. The point of view put forth by states that provide health care for undocumented immigrants is ______. A. they want to keep them off the Medicaid rolls B. proactive care will cost less than care accessed through emergency rooms and late- stage treatments C. it provides a way to quantify the number of undocumented individuals and families in the state D. it provides a way to understand the general health level of this population and their potential future use of health services 24. Which of the following unofficial actors seeks to attract highly educated professionals to the United States by providing employment-based immigration assistance? A. American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) B. Council for Global Immigration C. U.S. Immigration Reform PAC D. Urban Institute 25. The Lau v. Nichols decision by the Supreme Court set policy that ______. A. invalidated the Chinese Exclusion Act B. reversed Trump executive orders that then allowed the State of Washington to set its own policy on hiring immigrants C. allowed American Indians to receive an education in their native language D. invalidated Trump executive orders banning Muslim immigrants from certain countries True/False 1. Women have achieved pay within 5% of male counterparts in the latest nationwide study. 2. The number of immigrants living in the United States has increased by 18 million since 1960. 3. Opinion polls since 2001 indicate that Americans believe immigration is a good thing for our country today. 4. More than 40% of Americans can trace their family lineage to Ellis Island. 5. National Origin Quotas continued through the 1970s. 6. The Immigration and Nationality Act of 1952 included a provision to deny entry to those seen as a threat to U.S. democracy or associated with communism. 7. The size of the U.S. Border Patrol was doubled in 1996 and penalties were increased for those found smuggling people across the border. 8. President Obama issued more executive orders than President Trump. 9. Undocumented immigrants are a significant source of increasing crime in the United States. 10. As of December 2020, The E-Verify system is now online in 40 states. Chapter 9: Social Welfare and Health Care Policy Multiple Choice 1. An estimated 10% of the world’s population lives in extreme poverty and that number is expected to grow in the near term by at least ______ people. A. 20 million B. 150 million C. 200 million D. 350 million 2. Even in the United States, the number of individuals living in extreme poverty, under $2/day, is ______ as of 2018. A. 16 million B. 5.3 million C. 40 million D. 18.5 million 3. Veterans are not immune from poverty conditions when they return from duty. As of 2019, at least ______ were estimated to be homeless. A. 5,000 B. 37,000 C. 83,000 D. 212,000 4. Poverty thresholds are adjusted annually by the U.S. Census Bureau to account for changes in the ______. A. Consumer Price Index B. Producer Price Index C. number of people in poverty D. unemployment rate 5. The Supplemental Poverty Measure was developed because a single, national poverty rate is suboptimal due to the fact that ______. A. states have their own poverty thresholds that conflict with the national number B. it assumes all transactions are monetary C. it fails to account for regional cost of living differences D. it does not account for regional unemployment rates 6. When the Supplemental Poverty Measure is compared to the traditional measure, it generally reveals ______. A. a lower poverty rate B. no significant difference in the rates C. about the same average rate but with sometimes significant regional differences both above and below the average D. a higher poverty rate 7. The poverty guidelines issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services are ______ the threshold issued by the Census Bureau? A. a more generous version of B. a simplified version of C. an alternative, more widely used version of D. explanatory guidelines for adjustments that can be made to 8. The primary tangible use for poverty measures in the United States is to ______. A. research and compare countries by poverty levels B. design social welfare programs C. determine financial eligibility for many social welfare programs D. exempt low-income individuals from filing taxes 9. As of 2021, the poverty level for an individual in the contiguous 48 states was ______. A. $31,020 B. $ 8,000 C. $12,880 D. $21,440 10. Rates of poverty can vary across age, education, race, or ethnicity, and so on, as evidenced by the 2019 rate among African Americans being ______ the rate of white Americans. A. 75% of B. three times C. 150% D. twice 11. Location has been shown to impact the likelihood of poverty such that some regions have higher poverty rates than other regions. Which region of the country experiences the highest poverty rate? A. South B. West C. Midwest D. Northeast 12. Two underlying contributors to lower poverty rates are ______. A. higher paying jobs and plentiful community colleges B. education rates and availability of higher paying jobs C. social welfare program availability and healthy outdoor climates D. lower population density and higher education levels 13. Unemployment rates soared because of COVID-19 disproportionately affecting ______. A. persons of color and younger workers B. younger, less educated workers C. older and higher cost workers D. less educated, persons of color and younger workers 14. Early 1800s U.S. government antipoverty efforts were primarily at the local and state level that focused on ______. A. putting eligible workers into public works programs to support themselves B. creating marketplaces where day laborers could be offered work by employers C. housing the poor D. providing daily bread 15. As government policy toward the poor began to change, early efforts gave way to ______ by the late 1800s. A. “outdoor relief” B. breadlines C. the first food stamps program D. “indoor relief” 16. American values of industry, freedom, and self-determination generally favored pairing assistance to the poor in whatever form with ______. A. thankfulness B. work C. helping others D. detailed program oversight and accountability 17. Which landmark program was birthed in the depths of the Great Depression as a social program to help provide income for the elderly? A. Medicaid B. Social Security C. Medicare D. Welfare 18. What did the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Relief Act change about the administration of unemployment insurance? A. Unemployment eligibility increased to include anyone who lost a job, regardless of reason. B. Unemployment benefits were extended through the end of 2020. C. Unemployment benefits were increased temporarily. D. Unemployment benefits were extended and increased temporarily. 19. The primary source of health insurance for most Americans is ______. A. Medicare B. employers C. Medicaid D. government exchanges 20. One of the primary opponents to early pushes to implement national health insurance in the United States was the ______. A. American Federation of Labor B. American Association of Labor Legislation (AALL) C. American Medical Association D. American Hospital Association 21. Presidents tend to influence major policy initiatives like social welfare and health care policy by ______. A. calling attention to individual members of Congress who are unsupportive B. explaining and clarifying the more technical aspects of the agenda to the American people C. writing the legislation for Congress D. leveraging the bully pulpit to attempt to garner support for a policymaking agenda 22. What was the lynchpin on which the Supreme Court allowed the ACA provision to stand that expanded Medicaid? A. It had to be funded via at least a 10-year block grant. B. States had to have choice to expand or not. C. States had to have the option of dropping expansion when the federal period of 100% funding coverage ended. D. It had to be applied consistently across the country at 133% of the poverty line. 23. As part of a larger trend, how did the 2008 recession affect income equality in the United States? A. The bottom 99% saw incomes increase but only half as much as the top 1%. B. The bottom 99% lost income while the top 1% saw incomes increase by 37%. C. All income levels saw significant income losses of at least 30%. D. The bottom 99% saw incomes decrease by 10% more than the top 1%. 24. While the United States has the highest level of income inequality among advanced economies, income inequality is ______. A. unchanged in the last 3 years B. becoming even more unequal C. becoming more equal D. 1% greater than the next five countries in the list with incomes rebounding strongly post–pandemic 25. Many national policies come out of state programs that are tested on a smaller scale, such as the ACA, which was modeled on a health program in ______. A. California B. Texas C. Massachusetts D. Wisconsin True/False 1. The first official definition of poverty was developed in the 1960s. 2. Nearly one out of four people without a high school education are poor. 3. The first public assistance program that shifted responsibility to the federal government for cash assistance was Title X for the blind. 4. Medicare is a social insurance program, meaning that it is paid for through payroll taxes. 5. Initially, Blue Cross organizations, acting like nonprofits, charged the same premium regardless of age or preexisting conditions, which helped blunt the call for national insurance. 6. After a contentious season of debate and passage along party lines, the Affordable Care Act rolled out smoothly, empowering health insurance exchanges and guaranteed coverage. 7. Medicaid is an important health care program administered by the states. 8. As evidence that poverty and poor health are connected, researchers note that life expectancy among the richest Americans is 10–15 years longer than the lowest income Americans. 9. Universal coverage would solve the rising cost issues we see in today’s health care environment. 10. Numerous examples in the text point out that low-income individuals are very politically active. Chapter 10: Environmental and Energy Policy Multiple Choice 1. Why does this chapter suggest we examine energy and environmental policy separately before looking at them together? A. Their core contributors and actors are very different. B. Energy use and supply is complex enough to be looked at in its own right. C. Environmental policy is a driver for energy policy, but the inverse is not true. D. The proposed solutions are very different. 2. One of the significant reductions in air pollutants as a result of the Clean Air Act is a 78% decrease in ______ since 1990. A. carbon dioxide B. methotrexate C. ground level ozone D. carbon monoxide 3. Which river, noted as an extreme symbol of the dire state of the environment, is famous for debris floating on the surface catching fire in the 1960s? A. Tennessee River B. Cuyahoga River C. Allegheny River D. James River 4. The Environmental Protection Agency assesses 3.5 million miles of waterways and in 2017, only rated ______ as “good.” A. one seventh B. one third C. one half D. one tenth 5. The amount of waste generated per person stands at 4.9 lb per day, which represents a steady upward trend in volume of waste produced in the United States since ______. A. 1920 B. 1940 C. 1960 D. 1980 6. The first pollution control laws were enacted ______, typically focused on the human health effects of pollution. A. by international treaty B. by the federal government C. by state governments D. by local governments 7. Along with a growing sense of the value of nature, the first national parks were established in ______. A. the late 1800s B. the early 1900s C. the mid-1900s D. the mid-1800s 8. President Reagan instituted ______ all new regulations to decrease the level of government intrusion in the market and lives of individuals. A. a 1 year waiting period before implementing B. cabinet-level review for C. cost–benefit analysis for D. a requirement that he personally approve 9. The 1990 Oil Pollution Act aimed to prevent future oil spills was precipitated by which major catastrophe? A. the Amoco Cadiz oil spill B. the BP Deepwater Horizon oil spill C. the Exxon Valdez oil spill D. the Persian Gulf War oil spill 10. The Obama White House drove environmental action primarily through which policy approach? A. working with bipartisan members of the Republican controlled Congress to pass legislation B. participating in international treaties that were then ratified by the Senate C. working with the democratically controlled Congress to pass legislation D. executive action 11. The authors describe U.S. environmental policy as ______. A. reactive – action only once problems become evident and public pressure mounts B. proactive – action in anticipation of future problems to minimize them C. consistent – the actions of each administration further and build on the actions of previous administrations D. calculated – measured implementations only after an exhaustive debate of the cost– benefit ratio for any given policy 12. Energy policy became a priority for the U.S. government in the “1970s” due to which event? A. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill closed gulf refineries for extended periods of time causing shortages and high prices. B. The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries oil embargo against the U.S. quadrupled U.S. gas prices. C. The Iran Hostage situation caused prices of oil to spike worldwide. D. Research indicated that fossil fuel deposits would run out by 2025. 13. Which of the following was a significant contributor to the development of the trend toward sport utility vehicles? A. major nationwide concerns about the safety of small cars B. significant advancements in engine technology and efficiency C. the dissolution of the organization of the petroleum exporting countries (OPEC) D. cheap energy 14. The first steep decline in oil imports, came in ______ as a result of ______. A. 2015; fuel efficient vehicles B. late 2010s; increased domestic production and reduced international oligopoly power over the price of oil C. early 2010s; fuel efficient vehicles and increased domestic production D. early 2000s; dramatic advances in the reduced cost of renewable energy 15. The Energy Act was signed into law by President ______ and was the first energy authorization law in more than a decade, increasing innovation and research and providing billions in funding for clean energy research and development. A. Trump B. Obama C. George Bush D. Clinton 16. Which statute created the nation’s strategic petroleum reserve as a response to international supply disruptions? A. Comprehensive Emergency Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 B. Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 C. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 D. National Energy Act of 1978 17. If a president is clearly committed to a certain issue, the likelihood that Congress ______. A. takes significant action on that issue is high B. generates at least modest legislation on that issue is high C. controlled by the opposing party will completely ignore it is high D. generates any legislation on that issue is low 18. The mission: “to ensure America’s security and prosperity by addressing its energy, environmental, and nuclear challenges through transformative science and technology solutions” belongs to which agency? A. the Environmental Protection Agency B. the Department of Science and Technology C. the Department of the Interior D. the Department of Energy 19. Along with the Environmental Protection Agency at the national level, there are ______. A. a handful of state agencies tasked with environmental oversight and policy B. 50 state environmental agencies C. coordination points with numerous state agencies, but no state agencies specifically tasked with environmental policy D. agencies responsible for the state’s environmental policy in about two third of the states 20. One of the things we understand now about our policy efforts of the 1970s is that ______. A. they were isolated and that has made coordinated policy enforcement extremely challenging B. they were well intentioned but carry very little enforcement value today C. they formed the core environmental approach that just needs to be adjusted in minor ways to update it for the 21st century D. they got the major areas of focus right, but the standards needed to be updated annually to push technology development to meet them 21. The workforce in the clean energy industries has been gaining ground, such that the number of people working in solar and wind industries are ______ the number working in the coal industry. A. 50% of B. nearly equivalent to C. more than D. two times greater than 22. The “tragedy of the commons” is a reference to the view that ______. A. common people pay the price for either environmental underreach or overreach B. natural resources are held by all and do not observe political or property rights boundaries C. common goods that seem the most plentiful are often undervalued D. the famous revolutionary era speech at Boston Commons cautioned Americans not to assume resources would always be plentiful and has become tragically true 23. What percent of plastic is recycled? A. 50% B. 10% C. 33% D. 66% 24. Which agency is self-funding, meaning it pays for its operations from fees it charges those it regulates? A. Department of Energy B. Federal Energy Regulatory Commission C. Nuclear Regulatory Commission D. the U.S. Department of the Interior 25. What is the role of the “Superfund” authorized in 1980? A. a pool of money to be allocated to specific areas of environmental policy as directed by the Environmental Protection Agency B. to fund the carbon cap-and-trade business C. to clean up toxic environmental emergencies and identify the responsible party(s) postcrisis D. to fund environmental entrepreneurs with innovative ideas True/False 1. The presence of laws such as the Clean Air Act ensures air emissions from stationary and mobile sources are within safe tolerance for citizens. 2. The U.S. natural environment has seen significant improvements in its condition over the last 70 years. 3. Environmental policies of the 1970s were a bipartisan point of cooperation as was evidenced by the Republican President Nixon and the democratically controlled Congress. 4. President Clinton, in concert with the Democratic-controlled Congress, implemented sweeping environmental actions. 5. The Obama administration denied the Keystone XL pipeline extension application. 6. Since the 1960s, the public has been consistently supportive of the government doing more in environmental policy, viewing economic impact as a distant, unimportant factor. 7. Approximately one-tenth of the nation’s domestic energy production is from renewable sources. 8. The second half of the 2010s saw fuel economy standards reduced from requiring 4.7% better fuel efficiency each year to only 1.5% increases. 9. Policy implementation in complex areas such as energy and environment is often slowed dramatically by litigation as the actions of agencies are questioned and tried. 10. Although local and state government actors have taken early policy steps, it is generally acknowledged that energy and environmental policy should be owned by the federal government at this point.

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