CM_AUBF Answer Key PDF

AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following statement/s about urine is true? 15. Which of the following conditions cause increased urochrome a. It is a liquid biopsy of the urinary tract. exc...

AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following statement/s about urine is true? 15. Which of the following conditions cause increased urochrome a. It is a liquid biopsy of the urinary tract. excretion? b. It is an ultrafiltrate of plasma. a. Fever only c. Its normal color ranges from straw to amber. b. Fever and starvation d. All of the above c. Fever, starvation and thyrotoxicosis 2. What is the composition of urine? d. Fever, starvation and hypothyroidism a. 95% water, 5% solutes 16. Which of the following does the uroerythrin is most evident? b. 95% solute, 5% water a. A urine left standing at room temperature. c. 90% water, 10% solutes b. A urine that has been refrigerated. d. 90% solutes, 10% water c. A urine that is not fresh. 3. The following are the organic substances normally present in the urine; d. Both A and B I. Urea 17. Which is true about uroerythrin? II. Creatinine a. It is a pigment most common in a urine sample that is not fresh. III. Uric acid b. It is a pink colored pigment that is most evident in specimens IV. Hippuric acid showing precipitation of amorphous urates. a. I only c. Both A and B b. I,II d. None of the above c. I, II, III 18. What is an oxidation product of the normal urinary constituent which d. I, II, III, IV imparts an orange-brown color to urine that is not fresh? 4. What are the inorganic substances normally present in the urine? a. Urobilin a. Chloride, Sodium, Potassium, Sulfur, Phosphate, Ammonium, b. Urobilinogen Magnesium, Calcium c. Bilirubin b. Chloride, Sodium, Potassium, Sulfate, Phosphate, Ammonium, d. Biliverdin Magnesium, Calcium 19. Which of the following statements is/are true? c. Chloride, Sodium, Potassium, Sulfate, Phosphate, Ammonium, I. Urobilinogen is an oxidation product of urobilin. Manganese, Calcium II. Bacteria cause the oxidation of urobilinogen to urobilin. d. Chloride, Sodium, Potassium, Sulfate, Phosphate, Ammonia, III. Urobilin imparts an orange-brown color to fresh urine. Magnesium, Calcium IV. Urobilinogen is inactive and colorless. 5. What is the major organic component of urine? a. I only a. Uric acid b. IV only b. Creatinine c. I, III c. Urea d. II, IV d. Hippuric acid 20. What is the most common method of urine preservation? 6. What is the major inorganic component of urine? a. Addition of boric acid a. Chloride b. Addition of sodium fluoride b. Sodium c. Refrigeration c. Potassium d. Standing at room temperature d. Phosphate 21. What characteristic of urine serves as an indicator of a person’s 7. What is the normal daily urine output? hydration status? a. 600-2,000 mL/day a. Color b. 300-1,000 mL/day b. Clarity c. 600-2,500 mL/day c. Odor d. All of the following are within the normal range. d. Crystals 8. Match the following terms with their respective definition. 22. This urine characteristic provides a rough estimate of urine ___D___Polyuria a. Decrease urine output concentration. ___A___Oliguria b. Painful urination a. Color ___E___Anuria c. Increased excretion at night b. Clarity ___B___Dysuria d. Increased urine output c. Odor ___C___Nocturia e. Complete cessation of urine flow d. Crystals 9. What condition/s is/are associated with polyuria? 23. What substance causes a burgundy red or port wine urine? a. Diabetes insipidus a. Porphobilinogen b. Diabetes mellitus b. Porphyrin c. Urinary tract obstruction c. Lead d. Both a and b d. Intact RBCs 10. Obstruction of the urinary tract due to infection and presence of crystals 24. What substance causes smoky red-brown urine? is associated with ____________. a. Hemoglobinuria I. Polyuria b. Hematuria II. Oliguria c. Rifampin III. Anuria d. Pyridium IV. Dysuria 25. Which is/are true about Rifampin? V. Nocturia I. Also known as Rifampicin a. I, II II. A primary drug for tuberculosis b. II, III III. It causes a red orange urine c. I, III IV. It causes green urine d. IV, V a. I only 11. What is the major cause of UTI which is known to have a burning b. I, II sensation? c. I, II, III a. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. I, II, IV b. Proteus mirabilis 26. What is the color of urine in lead porphyrinuria (lead poisoning)? c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa a. Yellow d. Escherichia coli b. Amber 12. Painful urination occurs due to the following, except; c. Green a. Presence of UTI d. Red b. Presence of crystals 27. What is the color of urine in patients taking anti-malarial drug atabrine? c. Both A and B a. Yellow d. None of the following b. Amber 13. What is the normal day to night urine ratio? c. Green a. 2:1-3:1 d. Red b. 1:2-1:3 28. ________ urine: well hydrated ; ________ urine: dehydrated c. 2:3 a. Light red, Dark red d. 3:2 b. Pale yellow, Dark yellow 14. What is the major pigment present in the urine that causes its yellow c. Orange-brown, Brown-orange color? d. Yellowish-green, Greenish-yellow a. Urochrome 29. Diluted urine: __specific gravity ; Concentrated urine: __specific gravity b. Urobilin a. Decrease, increase c. Uroerythrin b. Increase, decrease d. None of the above c. Equal d. Cannot be identified Page | 1 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 30. What is the most common abnormal urine color? 41. Urine specimens should be delivered to the laboratory promptly and a. Green tested within _______. b. Red a. 4 hours c. Brown b. 3 hours d. Black c. 120 minutes 31. Match the urine color to its corresponding possible cause/s. d. 150 minutes E Colorless a. Pseudomonas infection 42. Which of the following urine analytes or parameters will decrease in an D Pale yellow b. Melanin unpreserved specimen? H Dark yellow c. Acriflavine I. Urobilinogen C Amber d. Polyuria II. Bilirubin G Orange e. Recent fluid consumption III. Turbidity F Yellow-green f. Biliverdin IV. Clarity A Blue-green g. Nitrofurantoin V. Ketones I Pink, Red h. Excess urobilin VI. Glucose B Brown, Black i. RBCs, hemoglobin VII. Bacteria 32. What are the possible causes of colorless urine? a. I, II, IV, V, VI I. Diabetes mellitus b. I, II, III, V, VII II. Atabrine c. III, III, IV, VII III. Recent fluid consumption d. II, IV, V, VI IV. Very dilute urine 43. Which statement/s is/are true? a. I, IV I. Clarity increases in an unpreserved urine. b. II, IV II. Turbidity decreases in an unpreserved urine. c. III, IV III. Bacterial growth causes the clarity to decrease. d. IV only IV. Precipitation of amorphous material causes the turbidity to 33. What are the possible causes of pale yellow urine? increase. I. Polyuria a. I, II II. Diabetes mellitus b. III, IV III. Diabetes insipidus c. I, III IV. Dilute random specimen d. II, IV a. I only 44. What causes the change in the odor of an unpreserved urine? b. II, III a. Oxidation or reduction of metabolites c. I, II, III b. Bacterial breakdown of urea into ammonia d. I, II, III, IV c. Precipitation of amorphous materials 34. What is/are the possible cause/s of dark yellow urine? d. Conversion of nitrite to nitrogen a. Concentrated specimen 45. Why does pH increase in an unpreserved urine? b. Excess urobilin a. Glucose is converted into acid and alcohol by bacteria and yeasts. c. Both A and B b. Conversion of nitrite into nitrogen. d. None of the above c. Breakdown of urea into ammonia by urease-producing 35. What are the possible causes of amber urine? bacteria. I. Atabrine d. Oxidation of urobilin. II. Acriflavine 46. What causes the decrease of pH in an unpreserved urine? III. Pyridium a. Glucose is converted into acid and alcohol by bacteria and IV. Phenol yeasts. a. I, II b. Conversion of nitrite into nitrogen. b. II, III c. Breakdown of urea into ammonia by urease-producing bacteria. c. III, IV d. Oxidation of urobilin. d. I, II, III, IV 47. What change/s can possibly occur in an unpreserved urine? 36. What are the possible causes of orange urine? a. Trichomonas will increase in number I. Pyridium b. Trichomonas will lose their motility II. Phenindione c. Both A and B III. Pyridium d. None of the above IV. Nitrofurantoin 48. What change/s can possibly occur to RBCs, WBCs and casts in an a. I, II unpreserved urine? b. I, III a. They will increase in number due to the formation of sediments. c. II, III b. They will disintegrate, particularly in dilute and alkaline urine. d. II, IV c. Both A and B 37. What is/are the possible cause/s of yellow-green urine? d. None of the above a. Oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin 49. What will happen when a urine specimen is left uncapped? b. Reduction of biliverdin to bilirubin a. Decreased ketones c. Both A and B b. Increased ketones d. None of the above c. Ketones remain the same 38. What are the possible causes of green or blue-green urine? d. All are possible I. Methylene blue 50. Statement 1: Bacteria will increase in an unpreserved urine. II. Fuscin Statement 2: Bacteria will cause oxidation of urobilinogen to urobilin. III. Indican a. Statement 1 is true. IV. Pseudomonas infection b. Statement 2 is true. a. I, II c. Both statements are true. b. II, IV d. Both statements are false. c. I, III, IV 51. Statement 1: Ketones are volatile. d. II, III, IV Statement 2: Ketones are used by bacterial metabolism. 39. What are the possible causes of pink or red urine? a. Statement 1 is true. I. Myoglobin and Porphyrin b. Statement 2 is true. II. Beets and Rifampin c. Both statements are true. III. Methemoglobin d. Both statements are false. IV. RBCs and Hemoglobin 52. Statement 1: Bilirubin decreases due to its photo-oxidation to biliverdin. a. I, II, III Statement 2: Glucose increases due to glycolysis. b. I, II, IV a. Statement 1 is true. c. II, III, IV b. Statement 2 is true. d. IV only c. Both statements are true. 40. What are the possible causes of brown or black urine? d. Both statements are false. I. Melanin 53. Statement 1: Nephrons are the functional units of the kidney. II. Methyldopa or Levodopa Statement 2: There are 1,000,000-1,500,000 nephrons per kidney. III. Methemoglobin a. Statement 1 is true. IV. Homogentisic acid b. Statement 2 is true. a. I, IV c. Both statements are true. b. II, III d. Both statements are false. c. I only d. I, II, III, IV Page | 2 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 54. Statement 1: Renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and tubular 69. This is where the final concentration of urine through water reabsorption and secretion are the mechanisms involved in urine reabsorption ends: formation. a. PCT Statement 2: There are only three steps involved in urine formation. b. DCT a. Statement 1 is true. c. Loop of Henle b. Statement 2 is true. d. Collecting ducts c. Both statements are true. 70. This is where the final concentration of urine through water d. Both statements are false. reabsorption begins: 55. What two conditions are associated with nephropathy? a. PCT a. Hypertension and hyperglycemia b. DCT b. Hypotension and hypoglycemia c. Loop of Henle c. Diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus d. Collecting ducts d. Multiple myeloma and multiple sclerosis 71. These are responsible for concentrating and diluting the urine? 56. How many percent of the blood pumped by the heart do the kidneys a. Renal tubules approximately receive? b. Arterioles a. 15-20% c. Nephrons b. 20-25% d. Glomeruli c. 25-30% 72. This is where 65-80% of the reabsorption process occurs? d. 30-35% a. PCT 57. What is the rate of renal plasma flow? b. DCT a. 600 mL/min c. Loop of Henle b. 800 mL/min d. Collecting ducts c. 1,000 mL/min 73. These are the substance/s that the PCT reabsorbs: d. 1,200 mL/min I. Salt 58. What is the rate of the renal blood flow? II. Glucose a. 600 mL/min III. Water b. 800 mL/min IV. Amino acids c. 1,000 mL/min V. Electrolytes d. 1,200 mL/min a. I only 59. What is the correct sequence of urine formation? b. I, II, IV a. Efferent arteriole > Bowman’s space > Glomerulus > PCT > DCT > c. II, III, V Descending loop of Henle > Ascending loop of Henle > Collecting d. II, III, IV, V duct > Afferent arteriole 74. These are involved in initial water reabsorption: b. Afferent arteriole > Glomerulus > Bowman’s capsule > PCT > I. PCT Descending loop of Henle > Ascending loop of Henle > DCT > II. DCT Collecting duct > Efferent arteriole III. Descending loop of Henle c. Efferent arteriole > Glomerulus > Bowman’s capsule > PCT > IV. Ascending loop of Henle Descending loop of Henle > Ascending loop of Henle > DCT > a. I, II Collecting duct > Afferent arteriole b. I, III d. Afferent arteriole > Bowman’s space > Glomerulus > PCT > DCT > c. I, IV Descending loop of Henle > Ascending loop of Henle > Collecting d. II, III duct > Efferent arteriole 75. What is/are the criteria/ion of glomerular filtration? 60. This delivers blood away from the glomerulus: a. Size a. Afferent arteriole b. Charge b. Efferent arteriole c. Both A and B c. Renal vein d. None of the above d. Renal artery 76. Which of the following is/are true? 61. This delivers blood to the kidney: I. Glomerulus allows the passage of particles >70 kD a. Afferent arteriole II. Glomerulus allows the passage of negatively charged b. Efferent arteriole particles. c. Renal vein III. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries lined by endothelial cells d. Renal artery and encased by podocytes. 62. This delivers blood to the glomerulus: IV. Glomerulus has a net negative charge on its surface. a. Afferent arteriole a. I, II b. Efferent arteriole b. II, III c. Renal vein c. III, IV d. Renal artery d. I, IV 63. This delivers blood away from the kidney: 77. Which of the following performs water reabsorption? a. Afferent arteriole I. PCT b. Efferent arteriole II. DCT c. Renal vein III. Ascending loop of Henle d. Renal artery IV. Descending loop of Henle 64. These are the blood vessels surrounding the tubules: V. Collecting ducts a. Renal vein a. I, II, III, IV b. Renal artery b. I, II, IV, V c. Peritubular capillaries c. I, III, IV, V d. Vasa recta d. II, III, IV, V 65. This specifically surrounds the Loop of Henle: 78. Which of the following is/are true? a. Renal vein I. Ascending loop of Henle is permeable to salt but b. Renal artery impermeable to water. c. Peritubular capillaries II. Descending loop of Henle is permeable to water but d. Vasa recta impermeable to salt. 66. What is the constant specific gravity of the filtrate that the glomerulus III. ADH acts in the DCT and in collecting ducts. produces after filtration? IV. ADH promotes water reabsorption. a. 1.005 a. I b. 1.010 b. I, II c. 1.015 c. I, II, III d. 1.020 d. I, II, III, IV 67. What is the pH of the filtrate that the glomerulus produces after 79. Which of the following is/are true? filtration? I. DCT is the site of cast formation. a. 7.2 II. Collecting ducts are the sites of cast formation. b. 7.4 III. Loop of Henle has a concurrent mechanism. c. 7.6 IV. Sodium and chloride are reabsorbed by the ascending loop d. 7.8 of Henle 68. How many percent of the renal blood flow is the renal plasma flow? a. I only a. 45% b. IV only b. 50% c. III, IV c. 55% d. I, II, III, IV d. 60% Page | 3 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 80. This is possible to a person that is consistently isosthenuric: 94. What statement about urine specific gravity for tubular reabsorption test a. Renal tubular problem is true? b. Glomerular problem a. Both the number and the molecular weight of particles c. Cardiovascular problem contribute to the specific gravity. d. Isosthenuria is normal b. Only the molecular weight of particles contributes to the specific 81. This is the earliest method used to assess glomerular filtration test: gravity. a. Creatinine clearance test c. It measures the vapor and osmotic pressure of the particles. b. Urea clearance test d. It measures the alkalinity of the urine. c. Inulin clearance test 95. Which is/are true about the determination of urine osmolality/osmolarity d. Cystatin C for tubular reabsorption assessment? 82. What is the commonly used method to assess GFR? I. Calculated and measured osmolality are two ways in a. Creatinine clearance test determining it. b. Urea clearance test II. Osmolality increases as the number of solutes increases, c. Inulin clearance test which decreases the freezing point. d. Cystatin C III. Osmolality decreases as boiling point and osmotic pressure 83. How many percent of urea is reabsorbed in the tubules? decrease. a. 30% IV. Sodium, glucose, and BUN are analytes involved in the b. 40% calculation of osmolality. c. 50% a. I d. 60% b. I, II 84. What is the gold standard for the assessment of glomerular filtration? c. I, II, III a. Creatinine clearance test d. I, II, III, IV b. Urea clearance test 96. What is the commonly used test for tubular secretion? c. Inulin clearance test a. P-aminohippuric acid test d. Cystatin C b. Urine pH 85. Which is the correct formula for calculating creatinine clearance? c. Titratable acidity a. [(Urine creatinine x Urine volume in mL/min) / Plasma d. Urinary ammonia creatinine] x (1.73 / BSA) 97. This test is used to assess for both renal blood flow and renal b. [(Urine creatinine x Urine volume in mL/min) / Plasma creatinine] x secretion: (1.37 / BSA) a. P-aminohippuric acid test c. [Plasma creatinine / (Urine volume in mL/min x Urine creatinine)] x b. Urine pH (1.73 / BSA) c. Titratable acidity d. [Plasma creatinine / (Urine volume in mL/min x Urine creatinine)] x d. Urinary ammonia (1.33 / BSA) 98. What is the principal contributor to osmolality? 86. The following are true about inulin clearance test, except; a. Glucose a. It uses an exogenous substance. b. BUN b. It is the gold standard for assessing the glomerular filtration rate. c. Sodium c. It measures substance that is filtered by the glomerulus but not d. Chloride reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules. 99. What is the normal specific gravity value of urine? d. It measures substance that is filtered by the glomerulus and a. 1.002-1.040 40% is reabsorbed. b. 1.002-1.035 87. What specimens are required for creatinine clearance test? c. 1.005-1.040 I. First morning urine d. 1.005-1.035 II. 24-hour urine 100. What is the highest specific gravity that the kidney can possibly III. Serum or Plasma produce? IV. Whole blood a. 1.035 a. I, II b. 1.040 b. I, III c. 1.045 c. II, III d. 1.050 d. II, IV 101. What is the possible cause of the specific gravity of more than 1.040? 88. What is the greatest source of error in creatinine clearance procedure? a. Bacterial infection a. A urine volume that is not converted into mL/min b. Yeast infection b. An improperly collected urine specimen c. Radiographic or X-ray contrast media c. A nonfasting plasma d. Ingested cholesterol d. A hemolyzed whole blood 102. This is the most important chemical examination parameter for crystal 89. What colligative property do most common osmometers use? determination: a. Boiling point a. Protein b. Osmotic pressure b. pH c. Vapor pressure c. Specific gravity d. Freezing point d. Ascorbic acid 90. The following are urine concentration tests, expect: 103. What volume of urine is required in determining specific gravity using a a. pH urinometer? b. Specific gravity a. 20-25 mL c. Osmolality b. 15-20 mL d. Fishberg and Mosenthal c. 10-15 mL 91. What is the most commonly used urine concentration test? d. 5-10 mL a. pH 104. What is the normal pH value for random urine specimen? b. Specific gravity a. 4.5-7.5 c. Osmolality b. 4.0-8.0 d. Fishberg and Mosenthal c. 4.5-8.0 92. What tubular reabsorption test is more sensitive since it is only affected d. 4.0-7.5 by the number of particles and not by molecular weight? 105. What is the next best course of action upon receiving a urine with a pH a. pH of 8.6? b. Specific gravity a. Reject the specimen and request for recollection since the pH c. Osmolality indicates it is not fresh. d. Fishberg and Mosenthal b. Reject the specimen and inform the patient to undergo 93. The following are methods used to measure the urine specific gravity, venipuncture for an accurate testing of analytes. except: c. Accept the specimen to have a faster turnaround time and process a. Reagent strip it while taking note of the pH. b. Urinometer d. Accept the specimen and preserve it in the refrigerator for 24 hours c. Refractometer prior to processing it. d. None of the above 106. What is the principle used in the reagent strip method for pH determination? a. Double indicator system b. Ehrlich reaction c. Double sequential d. Greiss reaction Page | 4 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 107. What are the two indicators used for urine pH determination using 120. What happens to the reagent strip glucose in the presence of an reagent strip? oxidizing agent? a. Methylene red and Bromocresol blue a. Falsely increase b. Methylene red and Bromthymol blue b. Falsely decrease c. Methyl red and Bromthymol blue c. Remains the same d. Methyl red and Bromocresol blue d. The change depends on the urine pH 108. What indicator is used for urine protein determination? 121. What happens to the glucose using copper reduction test in the a. Toluidine blue presence of a reducing agent? b. Tetrabromphenol blue a. Falsely increase c. Bromthymol blue b. Falsely decrease d. Bromocresol blue c. Remains the same 109. This is the confirmatory test for protein in the urine: d. The change depends on the urine pH a. 3% Sulfosalicylic acid 122. What type of glycosuria is present when the normal blood glucose is b. 3% Phenolsulfonphthalein normal? c. 5% Sulfosalicylic acid a. Hyperglycemia-associated glycosuria d. 5% Phenolsulfonphthalein b. Renal-associated glycosuria 110. What is the only protein the reagent strip is sensitive to? 123. What is the renal threshold for glucose? a. Globulin a. 180-200 mg/dL b. Bence jones b. 160-180 mg/dL c. Tamm-Horsfall c. 140-160 mg/dL d. Albumin d. 120-140 mg/dL 111. What condition/s cause/s the “alkaline tide”? 124. All carbohydrates are reducing sugars, except: I. After meal a. Glucose II. Early afternoon (2-4 PM) b. Maltose III. Early morning (6-8 AM) c. Sucrose IV. After exercise d. Fructose a. I 125. This principle is used by both the Benedict’s test and Clinitest to detect b. I, II reducing sugars: c. I, II, III a. Diazo reaction d. I, II, III, IV b. Ehrlich reaction 112. How much urine is required for a refractometer or total solids meter for c. Oxidation specific gravity determination? d. Copper reduction a. 1-2 drops 126. The presence of speckled pattern in the blood pad indicates: b. 2-3 drops a. Hematuria c. 3-4 drops b. Hemoglobinuria d. 4-5 drops c. Myoglobinuria 113. What corrections do the urinometer or hydrometer require? d. Dysuria a. Glucose and protein 127. What is the reagent used in the blood pad of the reagent strip? b. Glucose, protein and pH a. Tetrabromphenol blue c. Temperature and pH b. Tetramethyl benzidine d. Temperature, glucose, and protein c. Bromthymol blue 114. The use of 3% SSA can precipitate: d. Aminobenzaldehyde I. Albumin 128. What is the purpose of lactose in Acetest tablet test? II. Globulin a. Acts as buffer III. Bence Jones protein b. Enhances color differentiation IV. Tamm-Horsfall protein (THP) c. Shortens reaction time a. I d. Reduces interference b. I, II 129. What parameter of the reagent strip is never reported as negative? c. I, II, III a. Bilirubin d. I, II, III, IV b. Protein 115. What is/are true about Bence Jones protein? c. Urobilin I. It dissolves at 100°C and coagulates at 40-60°C. d. Urobilinogen II. It is a monoclonal light chain, kappa or lambda. 130. What is the reagent of the Ehrlich reaction of urobilinogen in the III. It is associated with multiple myeloma. reagent strip? IV. It can be detected using a reagent strip. a. Tetramethyl benzidine a. I b. Tetrabromphenol blue b. I, II c. Para-dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde c. I, II, III d. Tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride d. I, II, III, IV 131. What is/are true about the Ictotest tablet test? 116. This is the tablet test used for ketones: I. It detects bilirubin. a. Ictotest tablet test II. It is more sensitive and specific than the reagent strip. b. Acetest tablet test III. It has a sensitivity of 0.05-0.10 mg/dL. c. Clinitest tablet test IV. It is used to assess for hepatic condition and biliary d. None of the above obstruction. 117. Which of the following is/are a mismatch? a. I I. 20% of the ketones are acetoacetic acid. b. I, II II. Acetone only comprises 2% of the ketones. c. I, II, III III. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid is the major form of ketones. d. I, II, III, IV IV. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid is not detected by sodium 132. What reagent strip parameter is used as an indicator of the presence of nitroprusside reaction. bacteria and is a screening tool for UTI? a. I, II a. Glucose b. I, II, III b. Nitrite c. IV only c. Nitrate d. None of the above d. pH 118. What is the sensitivity range for glucose in the reagent strip? 133. What is the principle for leukocyte esterase detection in the reagent a. 65-135 mg/dL strip? b. 75-135 mg/dL a. Diazo reaction c. 75-125 mg/dL b. Ehrlich reaction d. 65-125 mg/dL c. Greiss reaction 119. The reagents used for glucose in the reagent strip include: d. Copper reduction I. Glucose oxidase 134. What reagent strip parameter has the longest reading time? II. Peroxide a. Ketones III. Peroxidase b. Leukocyte esterase IV. Chromogen c. Nitrite a. I, II, III d. Urobilinogen b. I, III, IV c. II, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV Page | 5 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 135. What is the urine urobilinogen in patients with bile duct obstruction? 146. All of the statements are correct regarding clue cells except: a. Increase a. An epithelial cell that is associated with a sexually transmitted b. Decrease disease c. Normal b. An epithelial cell that is 80% studded with coccobacilli d. Negative c. An epithelial cell that is 70% studded with coccobacilli 136. What parameters are affected by the presence of ascorbic acid? d. An epithelial cell indicative of a Gardnerella vaginalis I. Blood 147. Squamous epithelial cell originates from the following except: II. Ketones a. Linings of the vagina III. Bilirubun b. Female ureter IV. Glucose c. Distal portion of the male urethra V. Urobilinogen d. Female urethra VI. Leukocyte esterase 148. Which of the following are true about the squamous epithelial cells? VII. Specific gravity I. It has irregular cytoplasm VIII. Nitrite II. It is the most abundant type of epithelial cell IX. Protein III. It appears after invasive urologic procedure a. I, II, III, IV, VI, VIII IV. It is present after catheterization b. I, III, IV, VI, VIII a. I, IV c. II, IV, VI, VII, VIII, IX b. II, IV d. I, III, V, VI, VIII c. I, II 137. What causes the false-negative result for nitrite? d. III, IV I. Presence of antibiotic 149. Which of the following does the urothelial cells originate? II. Insufficient contact time between bacteria and nitrate I. Linings of renal pelvis III. Large quantities of bacteria converting nitrite to nitrogen II. Linings of the vagina IV. Non-reductase containing bacteria III. Upper portion of male urethra a. I, II IV. Bladder b. III, IV a. I, II, III c. II, III, IV b. I, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV c. I, II, III, IV 138. What are the additional parameters in the reagent strip? d. I, II, IV I. Urea 150. It is the most clinically significant out of all epithelial cells. II. Creatinine a. Renal tubular epithelial cells III. Uric acid b. Squamous epithelial cells IV. Microalbumin c. Urothelial cells V. Ascorbic acid d. Transitional epithelial cells a. I, II, V 151. Statement 1: RTE cells originate from the nephrons and is associated b. II, III, V with catheterization c. II, IV, V Statement 2: > 2 RTE cells/HPO is indicative of renal tubular injury d. III, IV, V a. Statement 1 is true. 139. Statement 1: Urine urobilinogen is increased in hemolytic disorders. b. Statement 2 is true Statement 2: Urine urobilinogen is increased in liver disease. c. Both statements are true. a. Statement 1 is true. d. Both statements are false. b. Statement 2 is true. 152. It is the hallmark of nephrotic syndrome. c. Both statements are true. a. RTE cells d. Both statements are false. b. Cholesterol 140. Statement 1: Urine bilirubin is increased in bile duct obstruction. c. Oval Fat Bodies Statement 2: Urine bilirubin is negative in hemolytic disorders. d. Uric Acid a. Statement 1 is true. 153. Which of the following is the best description of oval fat bodies? b. Statement 2 is true. a. It contains RTE cells. c. Both statements are true. b. It is an RTE cell that contains lipids. d. Both statements are false. c. It does not polarize under a polarizing microscope. d. It is seen in lower urinary tract infection. URINE MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION 154. Bacteria is correlated to chemical results by: 141. This cellular component appears in hypotonic urine and is associated a. Glucose and nitrate. with glomerular damage or vascular injury to the genitourinary tract. b. Yeast and leukocyte esterase. a. Glitter Cells c. Leukocyte esterase and nitrite. b. Clue Cells d. Glucose and protein. c. Ghost Cells 155. It is a microorganism that causes 70-72% of urinary tract infections. d. Dysmorphic RBCs a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 142. What causes the “glittering” appearance of Glitter cells? b. Escherichia coli a. Presence of uric acid crystals reflecting light. c. Lactobacillus acidophilus b. Aggregation of hemoglobin in the cells. d. Proteus mirabilis c. High protein concentration in the surrounding fluid. 156. Yeast in urine is present in which of the following diseases: d. Brownian movement of granules within the neutrophils. a. Pyelonephritis 143. A mononuclear cell that is present in the early stages of transplant b. Nephrotic syndrome rejection. c. Diabetes Mellitus a. Monocyte d. Renal tubular damage b. Lymphocyte 157. Primary yeast in urine: c. Eosinophil a. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Macrophage b. Candida albicans 144. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis (DIN) can cause an elevation of a c. Aspergillus fumigatus specific type of cell in the urine. d. Histoplasma capsulatum a. Lymphocyte 158. A true yeast infection is accompanied by? b. Neutrophil a. White blood cells (WBCs) in the urine c. Eosinophil b. Epithelial cells in the urine d. Monocyte c. Only budding yeast in the urine 145. Which of the following are types of epithelial cells? d. Red blood cells (RBCs) in the urine I. Urothelial Cells 159. Which of the following parasites are normally found in the urine? II. Transitional Epithelial Cells a. Schistosoma haematobium III. Renal Tubular Cells b. Plasmodium falciparum IV. Squamous Epithelial Cells c. Toxoplasma gondii a. I,II, IV d. Giardia lamblia b. I, III, IV 160. Most common parasite seen in urine. c. II, III, IV a. Gardnerella vaginalis d. I, II, III, IV b. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Haemophilus vaginalis d. Plasmodium falciparum Page | 6 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 161. The ova of what parasite is indicative of fecal contamination in urine a. RBC casts once seen. b. WBC casts a. Ascaris lumbricoides c. RBCs b. Enterobius vermicularis d. WBCs c. Trichuris trichiura 177. It is associated with acute tubular necrosis and presents with d. Strongyloides stercoralis advanced tubular destruction. 162. This microscopic exam is not reported in a routine urinalysis. a. Waxy casts a. Bacteria b. Broad casts b. Yeast c. RTE casts c. Parasite d. RBC casts d. Spermatozoa 178. The initial disintegration of casts. 163. It is produced by the epithelial cells of the lower urinary tract and are a. Cellular casts thread-like structures with low refractive index. b. Granular casts a. Squamous epithelial cell c. Waxy casts b. Clue cells d. Broad casts c. Mucus 179. All of the following are true about waxy cast except: d. Cast a. Also known as the “renal failure casts”. 164. Mucus is reported in: b. Represents extreme urinary stasis. a. Estimates c. Indicates chronic renal failure. b. Quantitatively d. Brittle, highly refractile, rounded ends. c. Semi-quantitatively 180. Waxy casts with supravital stain stains: d. Range a. Deep red 165. Where are casts formed? b. Light red I. Collecting ducts c. Deep pink II. Proximal convoluted tubule d. Light pink III. Distal convoluted tubule 181. Also known as the “renal failure casts”. IV. Ascending loop of Henle a. Waxy casts a. I, II b. Broad casts b. II, III c. Coarse granular casts c. I, III d. Fine granular casts d. II, IV 182. The following description are true about broad casts except: 166. This is the only sediment unique to the kidney. a. 2-3x bigger than other casts. a. Mucus b. Indicative of end-stage renal. b. Crystals c. There is widening of renal tubules. c. Casts d. It can be any type of cast. d. Epithelial cells 183. The following are crystals found in acidic urine: 167. Casts are dissolved in: I. Uric Acid a. Concentrated urine II. Calcium Oxalate b. Alkaline urine III. Bilirubin c. Dilute, alkaline urine IV. Calcium carbonate d. Acidic urine a. I, III 168. Statement 1: Cylindruria is a term limited to presence of b. I, III, IV cylinder-shaped casts only c. I, II, III Statement 2: Cylindroids has rounded ends d. II, III, IV a. Statement 1 is true. 184. It is a crystal that can assume a wide variety of shapes. b. Statement 2 is true. a. Amorphous crystals c. Both statements are true. b. Triple phosphate d. Both statements are false. c. Uric Acid 169. Which of the following is true about Tamm-Horsfall protein? d. Ammonium biurate I. Its other name is uromodulin. 185. You received a turbid sample in the laboratory. Once exposed to heat, II. It’s a glycoprotein made by RTE cells. the specimen becomes clear. What do you think is present in the III. Casts are made up of uromodulin. specimen? IV. It’s the only one present in hyaline casts. a. Uric acid a. I,II, IV b. Amorphous urate b. I, II, III c. Calcium phosphate c. II, IV d. Amorphous phosphate d. I, II, III, IV 186. Statement 1: Amorphous urate is colorless. 170. Formation of casts in order: Statement 2: Amorphous phosphate appears in alkaline urine. a. Hyaline Casts→Granular Casts→Cellular Casts→ Broad Casts a. Statement 1 is true. b. Hyaline Casts→Cellular Casts→Broad Casts→Waxy Casts b. Statement 2 is true. c. Hyaline Casts→Cellular Casts→Granular Casts→Waxy Casts c. Both statements are true. d. Hyaline Casts→Granular Casts→Broad Casts→Waxy Casts d. Both statements are false 171. Normal value of hyaline casts in urine: 187. The following description is true about amorphous phosphate except: a. 0-1/LPF a. It is soluble in dilute acetic acid. b. 0-2/LPF b. Present in acid/neutral urine. c. 0-3/LPF c. White-colorless in color. d. 0-4/LPF d. It is a normal presence especially after a meal. 172. Most frequently seen cast in urine. 188. Which of the following are facts about Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate: a. Broad Casts I. Also known as “Weddelite”. b. Cellular Casts II. Also known as “Whewellite”. c. Granular Casts III. Found in acidic urine. d. Hyaline Casts IV. Yellow-brown in color. 173. The following are not true about cellular casts except: a. I, III, IV a. It’s originally a hyaline cast but further laden with cells. b. II, III, IV b. It has nothing but Tamm-Horsfall protein in it. c. I, III c. It is indicative of end-stage renal failure. d. II, IV d. An indicator of extreme urine stasis. 189. Which condition is associated with the presence of the “whewellite” 174. The following are found in patients with glomerular bleeding except: crystal: a. Dysmorphic RBCs a. Inherited disorder of amino acid metabolism b. Cholesterol b. Liver disease c. RBC casts c. Ethylene glycol poisoning d. Yeast d. Fanconi syndrome 175. The color of RBC cast. 190. It is soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid and assumes the shape of an a. Red-orange envelope under a microscope. b. Pinkish-red a. Calcium phosphate c. Reddish-brown b. Ammonium biurate d. Orange-red c. Triple phosphate 176. What is the primary marker of pyelonephritis and is not found in d. Calcium oxalate dihydrate cystitis? Page | 7 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 191. Match the following crystals with their shape: c. High-protein diet __C__Wedellite a. concentric, radial striations d. Antibiotic intake __D__Whewellite b. coffin-lid 203. What is the stain used for hemosiderin granules? __G__Apatite c. enveloped-shaped a. Wright-Giemsa __B__Struvite d. oval/dumbbell-shaped b. Periodic Acid Schiff __F__Ammonium biurate e. colorless dumbbells c. Prussian Blue __E__Calcium carbonate f. thorny apple d. Methylene Blue __K__Bilirubin g. colorless, irregular-shaped CEREBROSPINAL FLUID __A__Leucine h. six-sided puffy crystal/colorless hexagonal plat 204. Which of the following lists the layers of the meninges in the correct __L__Tyrosine i. stair-case/stair-step order from outermost to innermost? __H__Cystine j. plates with no notched ends a. Arachnoid Mater, Dura Mater, Pia Mater __I__ Cholesterol k. yellow granules/needles b. Dura Mater, Pia Mater, Arachnoid Mater __J__Radiographic l. fine colorless to yellow needles that freq. Form c. Dura Mater, Arachnoid Mater, Pia Mater Contrast Dye clumps/rosettes d. Pia Mater, Dura Mater, Arachnoid Mater 205. The following are the functions of cerebrospinal fluid except: 192. What is the chemical name of triple phosphate? a. To supply nutrients to the nervous tissue. a. Ammonium magnesium oxide b. To transport oxygen to the neurons. b. Ammonium phosphate dehydrogenase c. Acts cushion and mechanical barrier. c. Ammonium magnesium phosphate d. To remove metabolic waste. d. Ammonium potassium chloride 206. CSF produced per hour. 193. Statement 1: Phosphates are soluble in heat a. 10 mL Statement 2: Urates are soluble in heat b. 15 mL a. Statement 1 is true. c. 20 mL b. Statement 2 is true. d. 25 mL c. Both statements are true. 207. Normal value of CSF in adults: d. Both statements are false. a. 80-130 mL 194. Which of the following crystals are soluble in acetic acid: b. 90-150 mL I. Amorphous phosphate c. 60-120 mL II. Calcium oxalate d. 70-140 mL III. Calcium phosphate 208. Normal value of CSF in neonates: IV. Ammonium biurate a. 10-60 mL V. Triple phosphate b. 20-70 mL a. I, II, III, IV, V c. 15-20 mL b. I, II, III, IV d. 10-30 mL c. II, III, IV, V 209. 70% of CSF is produced in this area. d. I, III, IV, V a. Subarachnoid space 195. What crystal is soluble in acetic acid with effervescence? b. Arachnoid space a. Calcium phosphate c. Dura mater b. Calcium oxalate d. Choroid plexuses c. Calcium carbonate 210. Lumbar puncture is done between: d. Ammonium biurate I. 2nd and 3rd 196. Statement 1: All abnormal crystals are found in acidic urine II. 3rd and 4th Statement 2: All abnormal crystals are found in alkaline urine III. 4th and 5th a. Statement 1 is true. IV. 5th and 6th b. Statement 2 is true. a. I, II, III c. Both statements are true. b. I, II d. Both statements are false. c. II, III 197. All of the following are abnormal crystals associated with liver disease d. II, III, IV except: 211. Volume of CSF is based on: a. Bilirubin I. Blood glucose levels b. Cystine II. Oxygen saturation levels c. Leucine III. Volume available d. Tyrosine IV. Opening pressure 198. This abnormal crystal is present in patients with inherited disorder of a. I, IV amino acid metabolism. b. II, III a. Cystine c. I, II b. Leucine d. III, IV c. Tyrosine 212. Which of the following is the correct order the CSF tubes will be tested d. Lysine for? 199. Which of the following differentiates cystine from uric acid: a. Microbiology, Hematology, Clinical Chemistry and Serology I. Uric acid polarizes under a polarizing microscope while b. Hematology, Microbiology, Clinical Chemistry and Serology cystine does not. c. Clinical Chemistry and Serology, Microbiology, Hematology II. Cystine polarizes under a polarizing microscope while d. Clinical Chemistry and Serology, Hematology, Microbiology uric acid does not. 213. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the CSF III. Uric acid is soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid while sample in each clinical section? cystine is not. a. Hematology: room temperature IV. Cystine is soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid while uric Microbiology: frozen acid is not. Clinical Chemistry and Serology: refrigerated a. I, III b. Hematology: refrigerated b. II, IV Microbiology: room temperature c. I,IV Clinical Chemistry and Serology: frozen d. II, III c. Hematology: frozen 200. Which of the following will dissolve cholesterol: Microbiology: room temperature I. Chloroform ether Clinical Chemistry and Serology: refrigerated II. Acetic acid d. Hematology: refrigerated III. Hydrochloric acid Microbiology: room temperature IV. Hot alcohol Clinical Chemistry and Serology: frozen a. I, III 214. The following are colors associated with xanthochromic specimens b. II, IV except: c. I, IV a. Pink d. II,III b. Orange 201. Meglumine diatrizoate is an example of: c. Green a. Ampicillin d. Yellow b. Sulfonamide 215. This presence in the CSF indicates tubercular meningitis and can only c. Penicillin form after overnight refrigeration. d. Radiographic contrast dye a. Clump formation 202. What is the primary cause of sulfonamide crystallization? b. Pellicle formation a. Inadequate hydration c. Rosette formation b. Excessive exercise d. Needle formation Page | 8 CNB Family: Pasar unta ta, bai! AUBF / CLINICAL MICROSCOPY | MTAP 100 REVIEW QUESTIONS 216. Xanthocromia occurs because of the following: a. Proteolytic enzyme I. Presence of RBC degradation product. b. Amylase II. Marked increase in proteins. c. Lipase III. Increase in serum bilirubin d. None of the choices IV. Carotene pigment 233. If the liquefaction takes longer than 60 minutes, then there must be a V. Melanin pigment problem in the _____. a. I,III, IV, V a. Bulbourethral gland b. II, III, IV, V b. Seminiferous tubules c. I, II, III, IV, V c. Prostate gland d. I, II, III, IV d. Seminal vesicle 234. Normal sperm concentration: SEMEN a. 20-160 millions/L b. 20-160 millions/dL 217. All are correct about semen, EXCEPT? c. 20-160 millions/uL a. a. It is a secretion of the male reproductive system d. 20-160 millions/mL b. Composed of fractions contributed by testes and epididymis, 235. A medical condition characterized by a low sperm count of less than 20 seminal vessels, prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. million in the ejaculate. c. It has a pH of 7.2-8.0 a. Oligospermia d. Normal volume is roughly around 1-2 mL b. Azoospermia 218. It is contained by the testes which produces sperm cells. c. Necrospermia a. Epididymis d. None of the choices b. Vas deferens 236. A condition in which there is a complete absence of sperm cells despite c. Seminiferous tubules normal semen volume and other parameters such as pH and viscosity. d. Prostate glandspermatozoa a. Oligospermia 219. Site where the sperm cells mature b. Azoospermia a. Seminiferous tubules c. Necrospermia b. Vas deferens d. None of the choices c. Epididymis 237. Diluting fluid used in sperm counting: d. Prostate gland a. Chilled water 220. Testes and Epididymis contribute to ___ % of the total semen volume. b. Sodium bicarbonate a. 5% c. A only b. 6.5% d. Both A and B c. 3% 238. What is the normal sperm morphology: d. 3-4% a. Oval-shaped head 4um long by 3um wide; long flagellar tail 45um 221. Seminal vessel/vesicles produce majority of the fluid present in semen long. in how many percent? b. Oval-shaped head 4um long by 4um wide; long flagellar tail 45um a. 50-60% long. b. 60-70% c. Oval-shaped head 5um long by 3um wide; long flagellar tail c. 70-80% 45um long. d. 45-50% d. Oval-shaped head 5um long by 4um wide; long flagellar tail 45um 222. Statement 1: Fructose is a fluid from the seminal vessels that provides long. for sperm motility. 239. Best stain to be use in checking sperm morphology: Statement 2: Seliwanoff test (Resorcinol HCl) is a test used for a. PAPS Fructose analysis. b. Giemsa c. Wright’s d. Eosin-nigrosin a. Statement one is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. 240. Acrosomal cap should encompass approximately _____ of the head b. Both sentences are incorrect. and covers approximately ____ of the nucleus, contains enzymes c. Statement one is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct. critical for ovum penetration. d. Both sentences are correct. a. ½,⅔ 223. Prostate gland contributes __ - __% of the semen volume. It produces b. ⅔, ½ acid phosphatase, citric acid, _____, and _____________ responsible c. ½, ⅛ for normal semen liquefaction. d. ⅛, ⅔ a. 20-30%, zinc, sodium 241. If 200 sperm cells are evaluated, how many percent should have b. 20-30%, sodium, proteolytic enzymes normal forms? c. 20-30%, sodium, alpha-chymotrypsin a. 50% d. 20-30%, zinc, proteolytic enzymes b. 20% 224. These glands are part of the male reproductive system that produces c. 30% thick, alkaline mucus, which helps neutralize the acid secretion of the d. 40% prostate gland. It also contributes 5% of the total fluid volume. 242. It evaluates if an individual produces dead or living sperm cells. a. Seminal vesicle a. Sperm viability b. Cowper’s gland b. Sperm morphology c. Urethral gland c. Sperm motility d. Epididymis d. Sperm count 225. True or False: In specimen collect, a person should have at least 2-3 243. Stain used in checking sperm viability: days sexual abstinence but it should not go more than 5 days. _____ a. Giemsa 226. True or False: In submitting a semen specimen, it should be placed in b. Wright’s