CEU-REVALIDA Past Paper PDF

Hepatitis B surface antigen in a patient s serim indicates that the patient is: recovered now an acceptable blood donor potentially infectious immune to subsequent exacerbations of the disease Protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated...

Hepatitis B surface antigen in a patient s serim indicates that the patient is: recovered now an acceptable blood donor potentially infectious immune to subsequent exacerbations of the disease Protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly by: humoral immunity C. non-specific anatomic barriers cellular immunity D. none of these. Microorganisms of which the following genera are most predomi- nant in the normal oral flora? Bacillus C. lactobacillus Streptococcus D. staphylococcus E. corynebacte- rium Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms? Gonococcus C, streptococcus Enterococcus D. staphylococcus E. all of them Which of the following is most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth? Mucor C. Treponema Candida D. Brucella E. Aspergillus A high titer of serum heterophile antibodies is found in patients with which of the following conditions? Hepatitis A C. Actinomycosis Hepatitis B D. Herpes Zoster E. Infectious mononucleosis Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity? Treatment with antibiotics Injection of gamma globulin Vaccination with dead organisms Vaccination with live organisms Placental transfer of mother s antibody ORAL DIAGNOSIS; ORAL SURGERY AND ROENTGENOLOGY 1. Earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal in origin: A. loss of lamina dura C. widen periodontal space B. loss of periodontal space D. break in lamina dura 2. A radiopaque projection distal to the tuberosity of the maxilla maybe: coronoid process III. Mental ridge malar process IV. Mylohyoid ridge V. hamular process A. II & IV B. I & V C. I & III D. II & III E. II & V 3. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is:  A. the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image B. the increase object-film distance C. the greater the magnification of the image D. that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle between the long axis of the teeth and the film 4. The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because: A. positioning the film is easier D. it cuts developing time B. it uses slow film E. A, B & C C. it gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth 5. If a film is stripped from its pocket and exposed to light, after processing it will: A. be unaffected B. turn white C. turn black D. be translu- cent 6. Radiographic film emulsion is: A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten 7. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is: distance of CeJ to alveolar crest = 1 - 1.5 A. 0.2 to 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to 1.5mm 8. The differential diagnosis of radioluscent areas around and close to the apex of the teeth does not included a consideration of the: A. maxillary sinus C. mental foramen B. incisive foramen D. mandibular foramen E. none of these 9.The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is: A. hydroquinone C. sodium carbonate B. sodium sulfite D. potassium bromide E. none of these. 10. To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand: A. at the back of the patient C. at least 3 feet from the patient B. next to the patient D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary radiation 6 feet from the source of secondary radiation 11.Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus? J-shell electron C. L-shell electron B. K-shell electron D. Q-shell electron E. none. 12. A unilocular radioluscent lesion in the area of a missing tooth where a tooth should have developed is termed: unilocular radioluscent lesion at area of missing tooth- primordial cyst A. cementoma B. fissural cyst C. immature central fibroma D. primodial cyst. 13. Which of the ffg is a hardening agent in film processing? A. acetic acid C. potassium alum B. potassium bromide m D. potassium hydroxide E. none.  collimation of beam - reduction of beam diameter 14. Collimation of a beam refers to be: A. selective removal of soft radiation from the beam B. selective removal of hard radiation from the beam C. reduction of the beam diameter D. none of these. 15.The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the: A. bisecting angle technique C. paralleling technique B. bite wing technique D. occlusal technique E. none. soap bubble radioluscency (mandible) - ameloblastoma 16.Soap bubble radioluscency of the mandible: A. ameloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia C. compound odontoma D. dentiogerous cyst 17.Cotton wool appearance on the radiograph: cotton wool appearance - pagets disease A. pagets disease B. fibrous dysplasia C. ossifying fibroma D. osteomyelitis. 18.The purpose of filtering an x-ray beam is to: reduce beam diameter D. reduce scatter radiation remove low energy radiation E. remove hard penetrating power of x-ray none of these. 19.Teeth with high degree of amberlike translucency and a variety of colors from yellow to amberlike transulucency blue gray and crowns readily wear: yellow to blue gray amelogenesis imperfecta C. dentin dysplasia crown wear dentinogenesis imperfecta DENTINOGENESIS D. odontodysplasia IMPERFECTA E. none of these 20. It is a localized growth of compact bone that extend from the inner surface of cortical bone into the cancellous bone: A. exostoses C. torus palatinus B. tuberosity D. torus mandibularis none. 21.In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in question appears to move distally, then the object is said to be on the : A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. distal E. none of these SLOB rule - same longual opposite buccal 22.Methods to reduce magnification: 1. Use a small focal spot 2. Increase focal spot to film distance 3. Increase FSFD 4. Decrease object to film distance 5. Increase object to film distance. A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 4 & 5 E. none. 23. SLOB means : Side of Lingual is Opposite the Buccal D. Same Left Opposite the Buccal same Lingual Over Buccal E. none of these. Same Lingual Opposite Buccal 24. The central ray and film in paralleling technique are: A. Perpendicular C. Side by Side  B. Parallel D. Along the long axis E. none of these 25. In Bisecting Angle Technique, the Bisector and central ray are: Parallel C. Side by Side Perpendicular D. Along the long axis 26. As the kilovoltage is decreased, energy of the x-ray beam : decrease C. increase is lost D. is the same E. none of these. 27.Made up of molybdenum: filament B. focusing cup C. target D. anode E. cathode. 28. Process of removing low energy photons from the x-ray beam: collimation B. ionization C. filtration D. excitation D. none of these. 29.Radiation coming directly from the target of the tube: Primary radiation C. Scatter Radiation B. Secondary Radiation D. Leakage Radiation E. Stray Radiation. 30. Radiation that emanates from parts of the tube other than the focal spot. : Primary radiation C. Secondary Radiation Scatter Radiation D. Leakage Radiation E. Stray Radiation. 31. Radiation that changed its direction during the Interaction of x-ray with matter. Primary radiation C. Secondary Radiation Scatter Radiation D. Leakage Radiation E. Stray Radiation. 32.Image is limited to the coronal one third of the teeth and related structures: Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film E. none. 33. Panoramic, skull and cephalometric radiography: Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film E. none. 34.It determines the relationship of impacted tooth/teeth to the surrounding structures.: A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film 35. Which of the following is the most effective aid to detecting incipient proximal caries on the mesial surface of a maxillary lateral incisor? a dental explorer C. panoramic radiograph direct visualization D. bite-wing radiograph E. periapical radio- graph 36. For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish mac- ular lesions are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or bull s eye appearance. He had “cold sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is: lichen planus C. putyriasis rosea aphthous ulcers D. verruca vulgaris E. erythema multiforme ring like/ bulls eye reddish macular lesions, cold sores - erythema multiforme 37. A 65-year old man has an ulcerated, 3cm lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. The recommended procedure for making a diagnosis is to: excise the entire lesion C. perform an incisional biopsy take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area D. none of the above. 38. A well-circumscribed, white patch in the mandibular facial sulcus appears secondary to placing aspirin in the area. The most probable diagnosis is: hyperkeratosis of the oral mucosa C. hypertrophy of the oral mucosa hyperplasia of the oral mucosa D. necrosis of the oral mucosa 39. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant cell granuloma. For definitive diagnosis, serum calcium level should be determined to distinguish between granuloma and: osteopetrosis D. hyperparathyroidsim fibrous dysplasia E. osteogenesis imperfecta Paget disease of bone 40. Examination of a 3 –year old boy reveals a fracture of his right leg, blue sclera, deaf- ness and a peculiarly shaped head. Opalescent dentin is found in many of his primary teeth. The most probable clinical diagnosis is: Osteopetrosis D. cleidocranial dysostosis Marfan syndrome E. infantile cortical hyperostosis Osteogenesis imperfecta osteogenesis/dentinogenesis imperfecta 41. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing pro- duces lingering pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely di- agnosis is: necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis reversible pulpitis, normal periapex irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis 42. A diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is known as a: false negative C. false positive positive predictive value D. negative predictive value 43. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since the recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to- moderate, which is not spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely correspond with: A. pulp necrosis C. internal resorption B. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis 44. Ludwig angina is characterized by all of the following, except: subcutaneous emphysema subcutaneous emphysema- infiltration of air underneath the dermal layers of skin rapid onset of firm, painful swelling origin in a mandibular molar dysplasia, dyspnea and fever involvement of submaxillary, sublingual and submental spaces 45. Odontomas usually exhibit all of the following features, except: severe pain C. delayed eruption of teeth slow expansive growth D. many small, well-formed teeth 46. Each of the following may cause xerostomia, except: mumps C. diabetes mellitus a sialolith D. glandular aplasia E. morphine addiction 47. Globular dentin, very early pulpal obliteration, defective root formation, development of periapical granulomas and cysts, and premature exfoliation of teeth are characteristic of which of the following disorders? shell teeth D. dentinal dysplasia hutchinson s teeth E. regional odontodysplasia dentinogenesis imperfecta 48. Which of the following is necessary to differentiate among a dentigerous cyst, an odon- togenic keratocyst and an ameloblastoma? Aspiration C. radiographic examination exfoliative cytology D. microscopic examination E. none 49. Squamous carcinoma of which of the following sites offers the best chance for sur- vival? Lip C. gingiva Palate D. buccal mucosa E. tongue/floor of the mouth 50. In which of the following locations is malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa most likely to develop? Palate C. buccal mucosa lower lip D. floor of the mouth E. lateral border of the tongue 51. A patient who has a white blood cell count of more than 100,000/cc most likely is suf- fering from A. Leukemia B. polycythemia C. Leucopenia D. pernicious anemia 52. A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and painless. It has been present for several months. The overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis is: A. A retention cyst D. A mixed salivary gland tumor B. An infected periodontal abscess E. A carcinoma of the floor of the mouth C. An obstructed sublingual gland duct 53. ifferential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of: A. anemia C. vitamin deficiency B. eosinophilia D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. spherocyto- sis 54. A 35-year old man has an odontogenic infection. He has frequent infections and has lost weight. His appetite is good but he has polydipsia. The most probable diagnosis is: excessive thirst  malignancy C. disbetes insipidus dry mouth diabetes mellitus D. Hodgkin s disease E. acute glomerulonephritis 55. The most common emergency seen after the use of local anesthesics is: A. syncope C. a toxic reaction B. trismus D. an allergic reaction E. an anaphylactoid reaction 56. The examination technique used for the buccal and labial mucosa is/are: A. bilateral B. bidigital C. Bimanual D. A,B & C 57. Lip enlargement with mucopurent exudates is: A. Cheiloschisis C. Chelitis Glandularis B. Cretinism D. Peutz Jegher s E. none of these. 58. The best examination technique for lymph nodes: A. inspection only C. inspection & bimanual palpation B. inspection and bidigital palpation D. inspection & bilateral palpation 59. A well-circumscribed, white patch in the mandibular facial sulcus appears secondary to placing aspirin in the area. The most probable diagnosis is: A. hyperkeratosis of the oral mucosa C. hypertrophy of the oral mucosa B. hyperplasia of the oral mucosa D. necrosis of the oral mucosa 60. Examination of a 79-year old man reveals a 3cm flat, mottled, brown-black splotchy le- sion on the left side of his face. The margins of the lesion are not palpable. The patient states that the lesion has been increasing in size for 10 years. The most likely diagnosis is: A. “age spot” C. nodular melanoma B. lentigo maligna D. junctional nevus E. superficial spreading mel- anoma 61. The characteristic oral clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is: macrognathia melanin pigmentation of the lips peutz-jeghers syndrome - oral clinical - melanin pigmentation of lips yellowish spots on the oral mucosa small, papillary lesions on the palate a rhomboidal-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue 62. The most reliable, histologic criterion for a diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is: A. invasion C. pleomorphism B. degeneration D. encapsulation E. hyperchro- matism 63. A patient has a 3 x 2 cm painless, fluctuant, blue lesion in the floor of the mouth of three days duration. The most likely diagnosis is: A. ranula C. hemangioma B. lipoma D. dermoid cyst E. lymphoepithelial cyst 64. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?  A. Foliate B. filiform C. fungiform D. circumvallate 65. 1-year old child has bilateral facial swelling =, a fever, leukocytosis and hyperostosis of his facial bones. Blood cultures are negatives. He most probable diagnosis is: A. cherubism C. Caffey s disease B. osteomyelitis D. osteogenic sarcoma E. infectious parotitis 66. Alveoloplasty consist of the following: Compression of the lateral walls of the extraction site Removal of intraseptal bone and repositioning of the cortical bone Recontouring bony irregularities using ronguer and bone files Gross removal of bone to increase interarch space. A. I, II & III B. I, III & IV C. II, III & IV D. IV only 67. A patient complains of significant discomfort in all the left maxillary posterior teeth, all teeth are sensitive to percussion but react normally to vitality testing. Palpation in the mu- cobuccal fold produces discomfort. The most probable diagnosis is: acute periapical abscess with referred pain generalized periodontal disease acute maxillary sinusitis tic douloreaux 68. In doing a palatal rotational flap which of the branches of the maxillary nerve should be anesthesized? anterior palatine anterior superior alveolar middle superior alveolar posterior superior alveolar posterior palatine A. I, II & III B. I, IV & V C. II, III & IV D. III & IV E. II,IV & V 69. Following removal of a lower molar tooth, the patient complains of numbness of the lower lip on the same side even after 10 days have passed. The dentist explains that: all lower molar extractions result in temporary numbness and that it will get better when the wound is completely healed. There must have been an infection at the root ends and it will get better Numbness is a sign of a tumor & the patient should see a specialist. The nerve was traumatized during the extraction & will heal in a month or so. The patient did not follow the postoperative instructions & an infection developed following the extraction 70. A 19 year old female patient presents with pain, trismus, swelling associated with a partially erupted lower third molar and fever. The most likely diagnosis is: ameloblastoma fracture at the angle of the mandible through the alveolus of the third molar pericoronitis peritonsillar abscess none of the above are correct. 71. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the rate of tooth movement. Decortification C. alveoplasty Corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy 72. The procedure of choice for correction of soft tissue attachment on or near the crest of the alveolar ridge. A. Alveoplasty C. osteotomy B. Ostectomy D. alveolectomy E. vestibuloplasty 73. Alveoloplasty consists of the following, except: A. compression of the lateral walls of the extraction site B. removal of intraseptal bone and repositioning of the cortical bone C. recontouring bony irregularities using ronguer and bone files D. gross removal of bone to increase interarch space E. all of the above. 74. Procedure involving the correction of a prominent chin but the occlusal relationship is normal. A. Ostectomy C. Alveolectomy B. Genioplasty D. Corticotomy E. none of these 75. A Class III, 3rd molar impaction: the highest point of impacted tooth is below the level odf the occlusal plane of the adjacent 2nd molar but above the cervical line the highest point is at or above the level of the occlusal plane of the adjacent 2nd molar has insufficient space between the anterior border of the ramus and the distal surface of the 2nd molar has sufficient space between the anterior border of the ramus and the distal surface of the 2nd molar E. none of the above 76. Process of creating a fistula in the labial or buccal plate of bone to locate the root apex. A. Marsupialization C. trephination B. Hemisection D. replantation Text E. transplantation 77. A procedure that horizontally splits the mandible, the cranial fragment is repositioned superiorly and an interpositional bone graft is placed. A. sandwich ostectomy C. maxillary osteoplasty B. visor osteotomy D. genioplasty 78. Ideal solution for storing avulsed tooth or tooth used for transplantation. A. Milk C. Hank s solution B. saline solution D. saliva E. water 79. Healing process that takes place following extraction of a tooth may be described as: A. healing by first intention D. both A & C B. healing by secondary intention E. none of these C. healing by granulomatous tissue formation 80. Dressings like gelfoam, bone chips or other substitutes are used to: A. obliterate the surgical cavity D. promote healing B. prevent hematoma formation E. both A & C C. control bleeding 81. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to correct: 1. ankyloglossia 2. interfering labial frenum 3. oroantral fistula 4. sharp mylohyoid ridge A. 1,2 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. 1,2,3,4 82. Surgical blade most commonly used for intraoral flap incisions: A. #11 B. #12 C. #15 D. #10 E. none of these 83. Which of the following surgical techniques can be used for ridge extension in the man- dible? A. secondary epithelialization D. all of these B. mucosal graft vestibuloplasty E. none of these C. skin graft vestibuloplasty 84. Which is most important in preventing post-extraction bleeding problems? A. Local pressure C. suturing of flaps B. ice on the face D. transfusion of fresh whole blood 85. It is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three-dimensional images of the joint, bony relation and bony quality of the TMJ s A. orthopantomograms C. CT Scan B. arthrography D. MRI 86. A typical surgical flap for odontectomy: A. should not extend more than half of a tooth on both side B. should be the “split” thickness flap C. should elevate the mucoperiosteum as one tissue D. should be replaced by interrupted stures. both A & D 87. The following sealants maybe used for retrograde filling, except: A. zinc free amalgam C. ethoxy benzoic acid B. mineral trioxide aggregate D. glass ionomer E. ZOE 88. Flap design of choice for apicoectomy: semilunar C. “L” or inverted “L” shaped flap envelope D. elliptical E. none of these 89. Fusion of the condyle, disk and fossa complex that results to fibrous tissue and bone fusion or both characterized by reduced mandibular opening that ranges from partial re- duction in function to complete immobility of the jaw. A. Rheumatiod arthritis D. Intracapsular ankylosis B. Degenerative joint disease E. Extracapsular ankylosis Myofacial pain and dysfunction 90. An intraoral approach of TMJ management exposing the lateral aspects of the ramus, a cut is made below the condyle with an oscillating jaw that reduces pressure on the meniscus and anterior movement of the condylar head. A. Eminectomy C. Condylectomy B. Condylotomy D. Arthrocentesis E. Meniscal Plication 91. Procedure done after tooth extraction to reduce the width of the socket & undercuts: A. simple alveoloplasty C. alveolar compression B. alveolectomy D. molding E. all of these 92. The principal deterrent to normal wound healing: A. poor nutrition C. infection B. torn wound edges D. excessive bleeding E. inadequate suturing 93. Which of the following are the requirements for a proper flap design. Always maintain blood supply Adequate visualization of the site of surgery Sound bone for support Suture with tension A. 1,2 B. 1,2,3 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E, 1,2,3,4 94. In designing the flap to remove a large maxillary tuberosity, which of the following is true: A. wedge-shaped or elliptical incision should be done first B. oblique vertical incision may be placed buccally C. incision must be placed buccal to the ridge D. all of the above E. both B & C 95. Graft material used for ridge augmentation or bone replacement include the following, except: A. autogenous grafts C, alloplastic grafts B. allogenic grafts D. hydroxyapatite crystal E. none of these 96. What muscle is most likely to be involved when deepening the lingual vestibule for preprosthetic surgical preparation? A. genioglossus m. C. platysma m. B. diagastric m. D. mylohyoid m. E. hyoglossus m. 97. During removal of a torus palatinus, the midportion of the palatine process of the max- illa is inadvertently removed. One would expect to see: A. an opening into the nasal cavity C.a vertical fracture of the maxilla B. an opening into the maxillary antrum D. a horizontal fracture of the maxilla. 98. A severe dull ache in the jaw three or four days after a dental extraction usually indi- cates: A. loss of the alveolar blood clot B. a need for prescription of a narcotic C. exposure of cementum of an adjacent tooth a need for prescription of an antibiotic the beginning of acute pulpitis of an adjacent tooth. 99. The most common complication of an open fracture is:  A. nonunion C. infection B. malunion D. crepitation E. poor alignment of the fracture 100. The most commonly encountered postoperative conditions that may require attention after surgical removal of impacted teeth are: A. pain and edema C. paresthesia and nausea B. diarrhea and vomiting D. infection and elevated temperature ORAL DIAGNOSIS; ORAL SURGERY AND ROENTGENOLOGY 1. The bone on dental film has the appearance of being finely-trabeculated almost ground-glass in effect, with diffuse areas of osteoporosis and osteosclerosis giving a cotton wool appearance. The patient probably has: A. Hand-schuller-christian disease C. Gaucher s disease B. Paget s disease D. Hyperparathyroidism E. None of the above 2. The x-ray film of the lower incisors of a healthy child shows dark line at the center running verti- cally. This is: A. Mandibular canal C. Genial tubercle B. Physiologic thinning of the bone D. Mandibular symphysis E. None of the above 3. The water projection is a useful x-ray technique for examination of: A.Torus lingualis C. Torus palatinus B. Genial tubercle D. Maxillary sinus E. None of the above 4. The x-ray film of the lower incisors of a healthy young adult shows darks canals running vertically and interdentally. These are: A. Mandibular canal C. Anterior incisive foramina B. Physiologic thinning of bone D. Nutrient canals E. None of the above.18 to 25 5. The ideal periodontal space seen in the radiograph is: A. 1.8 to 25mm B. 18 to 25mm C..18 to 2.5 D..018 to.025 6. A radiograph of the TMJ will not show: A. Lipping of the condyle C. The articular eminence B.The meniscus D. Fractureof the neck of the condyle E. None of the above 7. One of the following is a radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia: A., Osteoporosis C. Congenitally missing teeth B. Hutchinson s teeth D. Ground-glass appearance of bone E. None of the above 8. The radiographic picture of alveolar bone in cases of periodontosis characteristically shows: A. Vertical resorption B. Horizontal resorption C. None of the above 9. In the radiograph, periradicular lesions of pulpal origin will reveal a/an: A. Thickening of the periodontal space midway between the crown and the root B. Break in the lamina dura C. Normal bone trabeculation D. Accessory canals in the root area E. None of the above 10. The median palatine suture appears in the radiograph as: A. Radiopaque line between the maxillary central and lateral incisor B. Radioluscent line between the maxillary central incisors C. Radioluscent line between the maxillary and lateral incisor D. Radioluscent line between mandibular central incisor 11. The beak of an extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction pressure is transmitted to the A. Root of the tooth C. Crown of the tooth B., Cemento-enamel junction D. Dentino-enamel junction E. Alveolar bone 12. Infection with fluctuation in a tooth of an afebrile patient is treated by A. Administration of antibiotics B. Incision and drainage C. Administration of antibiotics for 3 days, then incision and drainage D. Application of warm compress to the area E. Application of cold compress to the area 13. The most serious complication of an abscessed maxillary canine is A. Severe pain C. Swelling B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Cellulitis E. Periapical cyst 14. The wiring of adjacent teeth in groups of two that provide an attachment for inter-maxillary fixation is A. multiple-loop wiring C. Ivy loop wiring B. Risdon wiring D. All of the above E. None of the above 15. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as Guerin s fracture? A. Le Fort I B. Le Fort II C. Le Fort III D. All of these E. None 16. The superior boundary of the maxillary sinus is the A. Lateral nasal wall C. Floor of the orbit B. Orbital plate of the maxilla D. Alveolar process of the maxilla E. None comminuted fracture 17. The fracture bone is left in multiple segments in A. Greenstick fracture C. Simple fracture B. Compound fracture D. All of theSE E. None of the choices 18. The stabilization period for the treatment of a replanted mature tooth is about A. 1-2 weeks B. 3-4 weeks C. 5-7 weeks D. 8-10 weeks E. None 19. Cheilorrhaphy is the surgical correction of A. Cleft palate deformity C. Cleft lip deformity B. Uvula deformity D. Cheiloid E. Oro-antral fistula 20. Which of the following is an isolated facial paralysis of sudden onset caused by neuritis of the 7th nerve within the facial canal? A. 7th nerve neuritis C. Crepitus B. Bell s palsy D. Synaptic palsy E. Trigeminal neuralgia 21. The grating or crackling noise generated by some diseased joints is called A. Subluxation B. Myalgia C. Ankylosis D. Crepitus E. Discitis 6 mos elpased 22. Routine dental extractions on a patient who had a myocardial infarct two months previously is best performed A. using epinephrine-free local anesthesia D. after seven days of massive antibiotics B. until at least six months have elapsed E. after three days of massive antibiotics C. under oral valium sedation 23. Which of the following is the most common cause of bleeding disorders? A. Myelofibrosis D. Polycythemia vera B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia E. Acute myelogenous leukemia C. Thrombocytopenia 24. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve branches and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region: A. neuritis C. neuralgia B. hyperesthesia D. paralysis E. none of these. 25. It is also known as decompression, partsch operation: A. enucleation C. enucleation after marsupialization B. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage E. none of these. 26. Radiographs of an asymptomatic 19-year old patient disclose a well demarcated, biloculated, 3x2 cm radiolucency in the area of left mandibular molars. Each of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis, except: A. Ameloblastoma C. Traumatic bone cyst B. Cementoblastoma D. odontogenic keratocyst E. central giant cell granuloma 27. Radiographic film emulsion is: A. cellulose acetate C. hydroquinone B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver bromide E. calcium tungsten 28. Yellow brown radiographs may result from: A. too cool developing time C. insufficient fixation time B. too long developing time D. insufficient exposure E. none of these 29. Film holder used in bisecting angle technique: A. RINN XCP instrument B. RINN BAI instrument C. precision film holder 30. The radiographic appearance of the normal alveolar crest of the posterior teeth A. pointed and sharp radiopaque areas between the teeth B. flat and smooth radiopaque areas between the teeth C. both A and B D. Neither A nor B 31. The radiographic appearance of the calcular deposit A. radiopaque structures at the root areas C. radiolucent structures on the root areas B. radiographic structures on the apex of the tooth D. radiolucent areas at the apex 32. In paralleling technique, stabilization of the film is achieved through: A. finger holding method C. finger holding and film holders B. use of film holder only D. neither A nor B 33. The film used to detect interproximal carries and crestal bone level A.. occlusal B. panoramic C. bitewing D. periapical 34. Dens invaginatus is characterized by A. radiolucent areas on the midcrown area C. radiopaque structure on the midcrown area B. radiolucent areas on the root area D. radiopaque structure in the root area 35. Normal distance from CEJ to alveolar crest is: A. 0.2 TO 0.5mm B. 0.05 to 0.10mm C. 2.25 to 3.0mm D. 1.0 to 1.5mm 36. A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to A. reduce secondary radiation D. avoid superimposition of anatomic structures B. avoid magnification of the image E.facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone C. avoid distortion of image shape 37. When taking a bite wing film, the direction and angulation of the central ray is: A. 5° above the horizontal plane D. 10° to the left of vertical plane B. 10° above the horizontal plane E. 10° below the horizontal plane C. 10° to the right of vertical plane 38. A radiopaque curved line extends down to the alveolar border of an edentulous maxilla. The line enclosed a large radiolucent area which is the: A. radicular cyst of maxilla D. alveolar extension of the maxillary sinus B. ameloblastoma of maxilla E. none of these C. thin septum of the maxillary sinus 39. A small or ovoid round radiolucent area between the roots of the maxillary central incisors A. superior foramina of incisive canal C. incisive foramen B. nasal septum D. nasal cavity 40. An artifact characterized by a large cone shaped radiopacity on panoramic radiograph which may obscure the mandible is caused by: A. eyeglasses of the patient C. thyroid collar of the lead apron B. earrings of the patient D. chewing gum 41. The radiograph with high contrast has this feature: A. too black images only. C. black, white and gray images B. too white images only D. too black and too white 42. Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the most unfavorable prognosis? A. Gingiva C. Lower lip B. Dorsum of the tongue D. Buccal mucosa E. Upper lip 43. Infections involving the lateral parapharyngeal spaces can result in trismus of structures affected. What muscle is involved? A. Lateral pterygoid muscle C. Masseter muscle E. Buccinator muscle B. Medial pterygoid muscle D. Mylohyoid muscle 44. Bleeding during surgical procedure is controlled effectively by: A. Suturing the flaps D. Clamping and tying out vessels B. Applying pressure over the wound E. None of these C. Applying vasoconstrictors 45. When the maxillary sinus is accidentally opened during surgery, never insert any gauze, drain, or surgical foam because it will A. Cause more pain C. Induce bleeding B. Disturb clot formation D. Cause infection E. None of these 46. A biopsy should nor be performed on a tissue when the tissue: A. Suddenly enlarges C. Is pigmented B. Is associated with paresthesia D. Responds to local treatment E. all of these 47. Antrostomy is generally utilized: A. To open a tooth root for apicoectomy C. To establish drainage of antral fistula B. Ensuing an oro-antral fistula closure D. For removal of a broken molar root at the antrum 48. Surgical incision and drainage is indicated in the following conditions, except A. Chronic abscess with induration C. Acute fluctuant cellulitis B. To reduce pressure that has built up D. Treatment of deep tissue infection 49. Supernumerary impacted teeth occur most frequently in the A. Mandibular canine region C. Mandibular posterior region B. Mandibular anterior region D. Maxillary anterior region E. Maxillary posterior re- gion 50. In a left subcondylar fracture, clinical findings will show: A. Premature contact on the right side D. Bilateral crepitus B. Light bleeding intraorally E. Inability to move the mandible to the right side C. Profuse bleeding extraorally 51. Dental procedure in patients suffering from hyperparathyroidism may be complicated by: A. Arrhythmia B. Hypotension C. Hypertension D. Tetany E. Bone fracture 52. Immobilization of fracture of the jaw is vital in order to: A. Prevent disruption of occlusion C. Avoid dislocation of the jaw B. Rest the injured tissues D. Lessen load on the splint E. None of the above 53. Patients under long term therapy with steroid suffering from adrenal diseases are at great surgi- cal risk because A. Of increased adrenocortical response D. Irreversible shock may be triggered B. Hypertension may set in E. all of them C. Post-operative severe pain may be induced 54. Horizontal fracture is: A. Le Fort I B. Le Fort II C. Le Fort III D. All of the above E. none 55. What is used in the study of the TMJ and in speech and swallowing evaluations? A. Cineradiology C. Xeoradiology B. Tempororadiology D. Laminoradiography E. none of these 56. The removal of all foreign and dead materials from a wound is referred to as: A. Debridement C. Oral prophylaxis B. Scaling D. Peeling E. Scraping 57. What is the most common pathognomonic sign of fracture of the body of the mandible? A. Jaw deviation upon opening C. Malocclusion B. Paresthesia of the mental nerve D. Trismus E. All of them 58.Local control of hemorrhage is best done by A. Tranexamic acid C. Gelfoam B. Vitamin K D. Direct pressure E. None of these. 59. Which of the following is the primary direction of luxation for extraction of maxillary deciduous molars? A. Buccal B. Palatal C. Mesial D. Distal E. does not matter 60. All of the following are weak points in the mandible where fractures are most common except the: A. angle B. condylar neck C. coronoid process D. symphysis E. none 61. It is a sequential, comprehensive method of eliciting patient symptoms on an organ system: A. Medical history C. Family history B. Review of systems D. Case history E. History of present illness 62. This procedure maybe necessary when inflammation and infection persists in the area around the root tip after root canal therapy: A. Root amputation C. Apical surgery B. Root-end surgery. D. Apicoectomy E. All of them 63. Alveoloplasty consists of the following, EXCEPT: A. Compression of the lateral walls of the extraction site B. Removal of intraseptal bone and repositioning of the cortical bone C. Recontouring bony irregularities using rongeur and bone files D. Gross removal of bone to increase interarch space E. None of the above 64. A transfer of tooth from one alveolar socket to another: A. Transplantation C. Hemisection B. Intentional replantation D. Implantation E. Apicoectomy 65. A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and increase the rate of tooth movement. A. Decortification C. alveoplasty B. Corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy 66. The procedure of choice for correction of soft tissue attachment on or near the crest of the alve- olar ridge. A. Alveoplasty C. osteotomy B. Ostectomy D. alveolectomy E. vestibuloplasty 67. Procedure involving the correction of a prominent chin but the occlusal relationship is normal. A. Ostectomy C. Alveolectomy B. Genioplasty D. Corticotomy E. none of these 68. Implant that has a stabilizing bone plate with multiple short retaining posts and 2 long posts imbedded in the mandible from the inferior border to alveolar crest. A. Endosteal B. Transosteal C. Subperiosteal implant 69. Process of creating a fistula in the labial or buccal plate of bone to locate the root apex. A. Marsupialization C. trephination B. Hemisection D. replantation E. transplantation 70. A procedure that horizontally splits the mandible, the cranial fragment is repositioned superiorly and an interpositional bone graft is placed. A. sandwich ostectomy C. maxillary osteoplasty B. visor osteotomy D. genioplasty 71. Ideal solution for storing avulsed tooth or tooth used for transplantation. A. Milk C. Hank s solution B. saline solution D. saliva E. water 72. It is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three-dimensional images of the joint, bony relation and bony quality of the TMJ s A. orthopantomograms C. CT Scan B. arthrography D. MRI 73. This procedure is used for recurrent jaw dislocation, exposing the joint eminence, is then excised by bur and fine osteome in order to prevent the obstruction of joint head from returning into the fossa. A. Eminectomy C. condylectomy B. Condyllotomy D. arthrocentesis E. meniscal plication 74. A convenient method of performing incisional biopsy that employs disposable instrument that makes a circular incision with a diameter A. Punch biopsy C. incisional biopsy B. Brush biopsy D. excisional biopsy E. oral cytology 75. Type of fixation used for fractured mandibular arch: A. plates and screws C. head bandage B. Risdon D. Ivy loop E. circumferential wiring 76. A type of fracture wherein the bone is shattered, split into several pieces. A. Comminuted C. simple B. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound 77. Flap design of choice for apicoectomy: A. semilunar C. “L” or inverted “L” shaped flap B. envelope D. elliptical E. none of these 78. Fusion of the condyle, disk and fossa complex that results to fibrous tissue and bone fusion or both characterized by reduced mandibular opening that ranges from partial reduction in function to complete immobility of the jaw. A. Rheumatiod arthritis D. Intracapsular ankylosis B. Degenerative joint disease E. Extracapsular ankylosis C. Myofacial pain and dysfunction 79. The simplest form of temporary fixation if definitive fixation is not feasible in a trauma patient: A. plates and screws C. head bandage B. Risdon D. Ivy loop E. circumferential wiring 80. An intraoral approach of TMJ management exposing the lateral aspects of the ramus, a cut is made below the condyle with an oscillating jaw that reduces pressure on the meniscus and anterior movement of the condylar head. A. Eminectomy C. Condylectomy B. Condylotomy D. Arthrocentesis E. Meniscal Plication 81. A patient with a history of ankle edema, shortness of breath and orthopnea is probably suffering from: asthma C. cardiac decompensation emphysema D. constrictive pericarditis E. rhinophyma 82. A 35-year old man has an odontogenic infection. He states that he had frequent infections and has lost weight. His appetite is good, but he has polydipsia. The most probable diagnosis is: A. malignancy C. diabetes insipidus B. diabetes mellitus D. Hodgkin disease E. acute glomerulonephritis 83. On physical examination, painless induration of soft tissue is suggestive of: A. an abscess C. invasive malignant lesions B. a dermoid cyst D. noninvasive malignant lesions E. none of these 84. A patient has a temperature of 101°F and a large fluctuant mass in the submandibular space as a result of extension of odontogenic infection. Initial treatment should include: A. salicylate therapy to reduce temperature B. alternate application of heat and cold to the area to improve circulation C. incision and drainage and a culture for antibiotic sensitivity D. immediate antibiotic therapy to reduce the swelling and inefection 85. Local anesthetics are most effective in tissues that are: A. acid C. alkaline B. neutral D. inflamed E. none, tissue pH has no effect 86. A patient who is allergic para-aminobenzoic acid will also be allergic to: A. lidocaine C. prilocaine B. tetracaine D. carbocaine E. metabutethamine 87. A radiograph shows an unerupted mandibular third molar with a 3cm pericoronal redioluscency. The most likely diagnosis is: A. primordial cyst C. latent bone cyst B. dentigerous cyst D. simple bone cyst E. ameloblastoma 88. A 5-year old boy has symmetric, bilateral enlargement of posterior jaws. Radiographic examina- tion reveals multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws. His father reports that he had a similar condition. The most likely diagnosis is: A. cherubism D. hyperparathyroidism B. Albright s syndrome E. cleidocranial dysostosis C. juvenile Paget disease of bone 89. A basketball player using a protective mouth guard has crepitation in the left TMJ, a trigger zone of tenderness in the left temporalis musculature and stiffness of the jaw on wakening. The most likely diagnosis is: A. tic douloureux C. atypical facial neuralgia B. myofacial pain syndrome D. arthritis of the TMJ 90. A patient exhibits marked attrition of primary and permanent teeth; radiographs reveal a marked tendency toward obliteration of many pulp canals. The patient s mother and brother also have histo- ries of this condition. The most likely diagnosis is: A. mottled enamel C. enamel hypomaturation B. enamel hypoplasia D. dentinogenesis imperfecta. 91. A young man complaints of malaise, urtications and large, painful and bloody, ulcerobullous lesions on his lips and oral mucosa. The lip lesions are black and encrusted. The most likely diag- nosis is: A. pemphigus vegetans D. erythema multiforme B. pemphigus vulgaris E. bullous lichen planus C. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid 92. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces lingering pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely diagnosis is: A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis 93. The routine examination of a healthy 20-year old man discloses a round, brown lesion, 3 mm in diameter, on his lower lip. The lesion is solitary, asymptomatic, and flat. Its duration is unknown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Blue nevus C. Compound nevus B. Focal melanosis D. Malignant melanoma E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 94. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since the recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely correspond with: A. pulp necrosis C. internal resorption B. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis 95. On the basis of diagnostic test results, a dentist correctly classifies a group of patients as being free from disease. These results possess high: A. Sensitivity C. generalizability B. Specificity D. repeatability 96. A diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is known as A. false negative C. positive predictive value B. false positive D. negative predictive value 97. The best examination technique for lymph nodes: A. inspection only C. inspection & bimanual palpation B. inspection and bidigital palpation D. inspection & bilateral palpation 98. The following are subjective symptoms, except: A. pain C. change of temperature B. sensitivity D. abnormal taste 99. Also known as Vincent s Infection: Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis A. ANUG C. gingivo fibromatosis B. Hyperplastic gingivitis D. dilantin hyperplasia E. pubertal gingivitis 100. Symmetric widening of the periodontal ligament space about one or more teeth is the earliest characteristic radiographic manifestation of: A. osteosarcoma D. Paget s disease of bone B. multiple myeloma E. metastatic carcinoma of the breast. C. fibrous dysplasia ORAL DIAGNOSIS; ORAL SURGERY; ROENTGENOLOGY Shade AE if the answer is not in the given choices. If it is necessary to perform a coniotomy, entry should be made at the: A, thyroid notch C. cricoid cartilage B, thyroid membrane D. cricothyroid ligament E. thyroepiglottic ligament An antrostomy is commonly used: antrostomy- closure of oroantral fistula  A, to remove high maxillary third molars C.following closure of an oroantral fistula B, to expose a tooth root for apicoectomy D. to establish drain- age of an alveolar abscess Bibeveled chisels are used primarily to: A, remove bone B. establish purchase points C. split teeth D. sharpen line angles Corrective procedure for lengthening tissues: A, Y-plasty B. Z-plasty C. Y-V plasty D. V-Y plasty E. double Y incision Surgical flap is most often done to: A. retain tissue layer C. gain access B. obtain adequate visualization D. both B & C E. all of these. In the treatment of cellulites, penrose drain usually remain in place for: A. 2-5 days B. 1-2 days C. 2 weeks D. 1 week. Drug of choice used as prophylactic regimen for patients with infectious endocarditis : A. antibiotics B. anti-inflammatory C. analgesics D. antihistamine. The longest duration period of stabilizing dentoalveolar injuries takes place in: A. mobile tooth B. tooth displacement C. root fracture D. replanted tooth. Caused by injury to the tooth-supporting structure: A. concussion B. extrusion C. mobility D. lateral displacement E. avulsion. The primary and secondary intent of dressing is : A. to immobolize tissue C. slow down rapid heal- ing of oral mucosa B. keep surgical field free from traumatic process D. all of the above E. none of the above. Involves the outer layer of epidermis with tenderness and pain : A. 3rd degree burn C. 2rd degree burn E. 1st degree burn B. secondary intention D. all of the above. The most dramatic emergency situation that occurs within seconds after parenteral administration of antigenic medication characterized by malaise, skin signs, stridor, cyanosis and total airway obstruction: A. seizure C. hyperventilation E. vas- ovagal syncope B. anaphylaxis D. foreign body aspiration. A disorder caused by injury-induced brain damage or damaged from etha- nol. Having symptoms like patient seemed frightened with contortion of extreminties and/or blank stare.  A. seizure C. hyperventilation C. vasovagal syncope B. anaphylaxis D. foreign body aspiration. Condition of patient characterized by talkativeness, confusion, slur- ring of speech and anxiety, dizziness, blurred vision and headache. A. seizure B. syncope C. hyperventilation D. anesthetic toxicity The most common cause of a transient loss of consciousness triggered by stressful dental treatment characterized by sweating, a de- crease in peripheral vascular resistance, tachycardia and de- creased blood pressure: A. seizure C. hyperventilation E. vas- ovagal syncope B. anaphylaxis D. foreign body aspiration. Removal of the entire lesion with a margin of clinically uninvolved tissue. This procedure is meant to be both diagnostic and therapeu- tic? A, punch biopsy C. incisional biopsy B, brush biopsy D. excisional biopsy E. oral cy- tology Open fracture of the bone resulting to open communication with the oral cavity: A, Comminuted B. Simple C. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound A gunshot wound would most commonly result to: A, Comminuted B. Simple C. Complicated D. Greenstick E. Compound Type of fixation used for a fractured symphysis of the mandible: A, plates and screws C. head bandage E. Ris- don B. Ivy loop D. circumferential wiring An accepted surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odonto- genic cysts is: A, enucleation C. marsupialization B, fulguration D. incision and drainage E. injection of a sclerosing solution A process characterized by the fusion of the surface of a dental implant to the surrounding bone to be used readily as an anchor for tooth: A. transosseous B. subperiosteal C. endosseous D. os- teointegration surgically inserted into A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone: A. transosseous B. subperiosteal C. endosseous D. osteoin- tegration. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone pene- trating the entire jaw emerging opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin. A. transosseous B. subperiosteal C. endosseous D. osteoin- tegration. Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly associated with: A. angular chelitis C. candidiasis B. perleche D. Addison s disease E. Syphylytic le- sion. The normal color and condition of the hard palate is: A. smooth pink with fissuring B. bright pink, few dilated veins and nodules prominences C. keratinized pale pink with bluish gray hue D. dark pink with yellowish hue. Timing of surgical repair of clefts for babies follows “rule of 10 which means the following, except: A. 10 months old B. 10 gm of hemoglobin C. 10 lbs in body weight D. 10 weeks old A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve branches and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region: A. neuritis B. hyperesthesia C. neuralgia D. pa- ralysis A wound resulting from tear. A. contusion C. abrasion E. laceration B. penetrating wound D. gun shot, missile and war wounds. Injured epithelium has a genetically programmed regenerative ability that allows it to reestablish its integrity through proliferation, migration, and a process known as: A. contact inhibition B. inhibition C. contact imbibition D. imbibition It is a method of flushing out or lavage of the TMJ that gives three- dimensional; images of the joint, bony relation & bone quality of the TMJs: A, orthopantomograms B. CT scan C. arthrography D. MRI Any fracture distal to 2nd molar, from the retromolar pad area to the inferior border of the body and posterior border of the ramus? Condylar fracture C. Angle fracture B. Ramus fracture D. Body fracture E. symphysis fracture Surgical procedure that involves removing only one root of a multi- rooted tooth due to periodontal disease: Crown sectioning C. trephination Hemisection D. replantation E. trans- plantation When draining pus from an abscess of the pterygomandibular space from an intraoral approach, the muscle most likely to be incised is the:  masseter B. buccinator C. temporal D. medial pterygoid E. lateral pterygoid Before performing preprosthetic surgery to a new patient, the den- tist should: Obtain a complete medical history Record temperature, BP, pulse and respiration rate Obtain a complete blood count, plus bleeding and coagula- tion time Order an electrocardiogram and chest x-ray Consult patient s physician if any significant medical problem exist A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. I, II, V E. I, II, III, V The aluminum filter in the x-ray tubehead functions to: reduce exposure to patients skin II. absorb long-wavelength photons preferentially III. absorb short-wavelength photons preferentially IV. increase penetrability of the beam V. decrease penetrability of the beam A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. I, II & V D. I, III & V E. II & IV only Untoward effects of therapeutic irradiation to the head and neck in- clude: agenesis of the roots of teeth III. hemangioma II. squamous cell carcinoma of the skin IV. Sialolithiasis V. micrognathia A. I, II & V B. I, IV & V C. II, III & IV D. II, III & V E. II, IV & V Cross-sectional occlusal radiographs are useful in locating: A, the hyoid bone C. maxillary sinus mucoceles B, the mental foramen D. sialoliths in Stensen s duct E. Si- aloliths in Wharton s duct A long cone is used in the paralleling or right-angle radiographic technique to: A, reduce secondary radiation D. avoid magnification of the image B, avoid distortion of image shape E. avoid superimposi- tion of anatomic structures C, facilitate correct vertical angulation of the cone A radiograph of the TMJ will not show: A. lipping of the condyle C. the meniscus B. the articular eminence D. fracture of the neck of the condyle It is a localized growth of compact bone that extend from the inner surface of cortical bone into the cancellous bone: A. exostoses B. tuberosity C. torus palatinus D. torus mandibularis. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus?  A. J-shell electron B. K-shell electron C. L-shell elec- tron D. Q-shell electron If the mental foramen is superimposed over the apex of a root, it maybe mistaken as: A. odontoma B. rarefaction due to infection C. cementoma D. supernumerary teeth. Radiograph shows treatment needed for large residual cyst to prevent jaw fracture: A. enucleation B. Caldwell luc C. marsupialization D. incision and drainage Soap bubble radioluscency of the mandible: A. ameloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia C. compound odontoma D. dentiogerous cyst ground glass radiopacity of the maxilla- fibrous dysplasia soap bubble radioluscency -ameloblastoma Ground glass radiopacity of the maxilla: cotton wool - pagets disease A. amaloblastoma B. fibrous dysplasia. compound odontoma D. dentigerous cyst Cotton wool appearance on the radiograph: A. pagets disease B. fibrous dysplasia C. ossifying fibroma D. osteomyelitis. Methods of object localization: A. 2 films at right angle C. tube shift technique C. Clark s technique D. buccal object rule E. all of these Methods to reduce magnification: 1. Use a small focal spot 2. Increase focal spot to film distance 3. Increase FSFD 4. Decrease object to film distance 5. Increase object to film distance. A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 4 & 5 SLOB means : A. Side of Lingual is Opposite the Buccal C. Same Left Opposite the Buccal B. same Lingual Over Buccal D. Same Lingual Opposite Buccal The central ray and film in paralleling technique are: A. Perpendicular B. Parallel C. Side by Side D. Along the long axis Made up of molybdenum: A. filament B. focusing cup C. target D. anode E. cathode. Process of removing low energy photons from the x-ray beam: A. collimation B. ionization C. filtration D. excitation. ALARA means: A. As little as reasonably achievable C. As low as reasonably applicable B. As little as reasonably applicable D. As low as reasonably achievable as low as reasonably achievable Image is limited to the coronal one third of the teeth and related structures: A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film Panoramic, skull and cephalometric radiography: A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film Localized foreign bodies in the jaws and stones in the salivary ducts.: A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film It determines the relationship of impacted tooth/teeth to the sur- rounding structures.: A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film It is sensitive to this blue light and exposed rapidly by it. A. Periapical film B. Bitewing film C. Occlusal film D. Screen film Which of the following is an indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam? Milliamperage C. H and D curve B. Exposure time D. Machine output D. Half-va- lue layer Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation en- ergy? I, X-rays II. Electrons III. Gamma rays IV. Beta rays A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV Which of the following structures appear radioluscent on an oral radi- ograph? Hamular process III. Mandibular canal Genial tubercles IV. Anterior nasal spine V. Medial palatine suture A. I & II B. II & III C. II & IV D. III & IV E. III & V The advantage of the paralleling technique over the bisecting-angle technique is: the increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image the increase object-film distance the greater the magnification of the image that the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle between the long axis of the teeth and the film The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because: positioning the film is easier D. it cuts devel- oping time it uses slow film E. A, B & C it gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth Cone-cutting (partial image) on a radiograph is caused by: underexposure C. a damaged cone B. improper exposure technique D. improper coverage of the film with the beam of radiation Eruption of several vesicles with erythematous borders caused by Cox- sakie virus is: A. infected tonsils B. enlarged tonsils C. thrush D. her- pangina Brown to black pigmentation caused by adrenal insufficiency is commonly associated with: A. angular chelitis B. perleche C. candidiasis D. Addison s disease E. Syphylytic lesion. The normal color and condition of the hard palate is: A. smooth pink with fissuring C. bright pink, few dilated veins and nodules prominences B. keratinized pale pink with bluis gray hue D. dark pink with yellowish hue. White patch which can be rubbed off and is found on the labial or buccal mucosa is: A. pachyderma oris B. leukoplakia C. lichen planus D. ptyalism A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant cell granu- loma. For definitive diagnosis, serum calcium level should be de- termined to distinguish between granuloma and: osteopetrosis C. hyperparathyroidism B. fibrous dysplasia D. osteogenesis imperfecta E. Paget disease of bone The earliest common symptom of acute pulpitis secondary to a carious lesion is: continuous pain C. tooth discoloration B. aerodontalgia D. thermal sensitivity E. pain on percussion A geriatric male patient has an ulcerated, 3 cm lesion on the lat- eral border of the tongue. The recommended procedure for making a diagnosis is: excise the entire lesion C. take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area B. perform an incisional biopsy The following are requirements of an adequate flap design: base wider than free margin mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteum base containing blood supply  flap wider than the body defect that will be present at the conclusion of the operation A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. II, III & IV D. I, III & IV E. I, II, III & IV A surgical procedure where cuts are made in the alveolar bone and in- crease the rate of tooth movement. Decortification C. alveoloplasty B. corticotomy D. Ostectomy E. Osteotomy Translucent bluish lesion found at eh ducts of the submandibular and sublingual glands and is often caused by trauma is: A. ranula B. dermoid cysts C. Ludwig s angina D. si- alolithiasis Mass or dough-like produced by the sebaceous glands found on the floor of the mouth is: A. ranula B. dermoid cysts C. Ludwig s angina D. sialothia- sis. acute necrotive ulcerating gingivitis Grayish yellow pseudomembrane with punched out interdental papilla. A. ANUG C. hyperplastic gingivitis E. gingivofi- bromatosis B. dilantin hyperplasia D. pubertal gingivitis. Epileptic patient having tough gingiva. A. ANUG C. hyperplastic gingivitis E. gingivofi- bromatosis B. dilantin hyperplasia D. pubertal gingivitis. Bluish red gingival which tends to bleed easily and is due to hormonal imbalance: A. ANUG C. hyperplastic gingivitis E. gingivofi- bromatosis B. dilantin hyperplasia D. pubertal gingivitis. The systemic visual purpose of oral diagnosis is: A, suggest and provide a basis for the most suitable plan of treatment B. excise a malignant neoplasm of the oral tissue C. identify the abnormality D. recognize the disease by its physical appearance E. none of these. A comparison of the different diseases and contrasted by the use of the clinical, pathologic and laboratory examination is ___diagnosis: A. differential B. final C. tentative D. prognosis E. re- ferral. Prospect as to the recovery from a disease as indicated by the nature and symptoms is ___ diagnosis. A. differential B. final C. tentative D. prognosis E. re- ferral. The only potential complication associated with hepatitis is: A. impaired healing C. presence of erythematous candidiosis  B. abnormal bleeding D. burning mouth A subjective symptoms maybe defined as: A. an individualized reaction experienced by the patient and elicited from the patient through inquiry B. a clinical manifestation that is detected by the examiner during examination of the patient C. a clinical reaction detected by the examiner by inspection, pal- pitation and auscultation D. an observable clinical manifestation of a systemic disease. Auscultation is a valuable clinical examination technique and can have application in detecting: A. TMJ dysfunction B. speech impediments due to poor dentition C. inflammation of the periapical tissues D. abnormal breathing sound E. Both A & D. The drug of choice in management of patient with an acute allergic re- action involviong bronchospasm and hypotension is; A. epinephrine B. aminophylline C. dexamethasone D. di- phenhydramine Masticatory space infections have as their hallmarks: A. dyspnea B. trismus C. erythema D. he- matemesis A patient has a pulse rate of 72, a respiratory rate of 15, a BP of 120/80, warm pink extremities and pupils that constrict during near accommodation. What is the most likely diagnosis? Myopia C. Normal patient B. Diabetes D. Acute anxiety syndrome E. coronary artery disease The most sensitive technique for palpation of a submandibular gland is: bimanual, simultaneous intraoral and extraoral palpation bimanual, extraoral palpation with the patient s head tipped forward intraoral palpation with the patient s head tipped forward intraoral palpation with the patient s head unsupported monomanual, extraoral palpation with the patient s head tipped forward and toward the same side A patient has a history of two block dyspnea, two pillow orthopnea, ankle edema and palpitation. The most likely diagnosis is: congestive heart failure C. hepatic failure B. respiratory failure D. uremia E. none of these The most reliable test for lues is: A. biopsy B. darkfield examination C. oral exfoloative cytology D. serology The lymph from the middle part of the lower lip will drain into the: A. infrahyoid lymph node C. submental lymph node B. submandibular lymph node D. superficial cervical lymph node. Anxious, nervous patient is appointed for a surgical procedure. The patient states that she has had recent weight loss and is easily fatigued. Physical findings include tremors, tachycardia and warm, sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is: diabetes C. renal disease B. gastritis D. hyperthyroidism E. Cushing s disease. A 22-year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy and spontaneous bleeding from the gingival. She complains of weakness and anorexia. Results of her hemoglobin show Hb- 12 grams Lymphocytes- 9% WBC- 100,000 Monocytes-1% Neutrophils- 90% Eosinophils-0% The most likely diagnosis is: Myelogenous leukemia C. thrombocytopenic purpura infectious mononucleosis D. gingivitis of local etio- logic origin Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of: anemia C. spherocytosis eosinophilia D. vitamin deficiency E. thrombocytope- nic purpura A 35-year old man has an odontogenic infection. He has frequent in- fections and has lost weight. His appetite is good but he has poly- dipsia. The most probable diagnosis is: polydipsia- excessive thirst malignancy C. disbetes insipidus diabetes mellitus D. Hodgkin s disease E. acute glomeru- lonephritis Examination of a 79-year old man reveals a 3cm flat, mottled, brown- black splotchy lesion on the left side of his face. The margins of the lesion are not palpable. The patient states that the lesion has been increasing in size for 10 years. The most likely diagnosis is: “age spot C. nodular melanoma B. lentigo maligna D. junctional nevus E. superficial spreading melanoma The characteristic oral clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is: macrognathia melanin pigmentation of the lips yellowish spots on the oral mucosa small, papillary lesions on the palate a rhomboidal-shaped red patch on the dorsum of the tongue A 14-year old boy has a bilateral, pearly-white thickening of the buccal mucosa. The boy has had the lesions since birth. His younger brother also has similar lesions. History and clinical findings are consistent with a diagnosis of:  leukoedema C. mucous patches lichen planus D. white sponge nevus Oral examination of a 3-year old child reveals only primary canines and first molars present. General observation of the child reveals a very light complexion, fine and light hair, and the overall fa- cial appearance of an older person. Which of the following condi- tions is suggested? Down s syndrome C. Crouzon s disease Hypopituitarism D. Cleiodocranial dysplasia E. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia A painful, crater-like 1.5cm ulcer developed within one week in the mucous of the left hard palate of a 40-year old woman. The most likely diagnosis is: actinomycosis C. squamous cell carcinoma pleomorphic adenoma D. adenoid cystic carcinoma E. necrotizing sialometaplasia GENERAL AND ORAL MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY & EMBRYOLOGY;