Harvard Quiz on Decision-Making Unit (DMU)

1\. What is the Decision-Making Unit (DMU)? a\) A single person responsible for all purchase decisions b\) A group of individuals influencing and participating in a purchase decision (Correct) c\) The marketing team targeting consumers d\) A consumer feedback group 2\. What is the primary role...

1\. What is the Decision-Making Unit (DMU)? a\) A single person responsible for all purchase decisions b\) A group of individuals influencing and participating in a purchase decision (Correct) c\) The marketing team targeting consumers d\) A consumer feedback group 2\. What is the primary role of the buyer in a DMU? a\) To provide financing for the purchase b\) To influence others within the DMU c\) To make the actual purchase (Correct) d\) To evaluate post-purchase satisfaction 3\. Who can be part of a DMU besides the buyer? a\) Only financial advisors b\) Individuals influencing the decision (Correct) c\) Only external consultants d\) Only the family members of the buyer 4\. Which role is responsible for gathering product information in a DMU? a\) Buyer b\) Gatekeeper (Correct) c\) Influencer d\) Decider 5\. The final decision in a DMU is typically made by the: a\) Buyer b\) Decider (Correct) c\) Gatekeeper d\) Influencer 6\. Which role in the DMU might veto a purchase? a\) Gatekeeper b\) Buyer c\) Decider (Correct) d\) User 7\. The influencer's role in a DMU is to: a\) Make the purchase b\) Persuade or guide decisions (Correct) c\) Block access to certain products d\) Evaluate post-purchase outcomes 8\. Who is responsible for using the product in a DMU? a\) Decider b\) Buyer c\) User (Correct) d\) Gatekeeper 9\. What distinguishes a gatekeeper in the DMU? a\) They control access to information (Correct) b\) They provide financial resources c\) They make the final decision d\) They evaluate competitors 10\. In a family purchase, children often act as: a\) Buyers b\) Users (Correct) c\) Deciders d\) Gatekeepers 11\. The decider in a DMU: a\) Always purchases the product b\) Has authority to finalize the decision (Correct) c\) Blocks access to alternatives d\) Only uses the product 12\. An external consultant in a DMU typically serves as a: a\) Buyer b\) Gatekeeper c\) Influencer (Correct) d\) User 13\. The user in a DMU: a\) Controls the information flow b\) Evaluates competing brands c\) Interacts with the product after purchase (Correct) d\) Ensures financial transactions are complete 14\. Which role often initiates the decision-making process in a DMU? a\) Influencer b\) Decider c\) Buyer d\) Gatekeeper (Correct) 15\. A gatekeeper's influence is strongest during: a\) Post-purchase evaluation b\) The pre-purchase phase (Correct) c\) The purchase phase d\) The decision phase 16\. In large organizations, the decider is often: a\) The individual with budgetary control (Correct) b\) A user of the product c\) The lowest-ranking employee d\) An external consultant 17\. How do influencers affect the DMU? a\) By making the final purchase decision b\) By suggesting or endorsing specific options (Correct) c\) By using the product post-purchase d\) By blocking access to alternative choices 18\. The buyer in a DMU: a\) May also act as the user (Correct) b\) Always decides independently c\) Is never part of the organization d\) Only manages finances 19\. Which role in the DMU has minimal direct interaction with the product? a\) Decider b\) Buyer c\) Gatekeeper (Correct) d\) User 20\. Marketers targeting a DMU must: a\) Focus only on the buyer b\) Address all roles within the DMU (Correct) c\) Ignore gatekeepers d\) Prioritize deciders exclusively 1\. What is the first activity in the pre-purchase phase? a\) Evaluating alternatives b\) Recognizing a need (Correct) c\) Finalizing a choice d\) Making a purchase 2\. Which activity typically occurs during the pre-purchase phase? a\) Post-purchase evaluation b\) Information collection (Correct) c\) Product disposal d\) Payment processing 3\. What influences the duration of pre-purchase activities? a\) The financial stability of the consumer b\) The nature and complexity of the purchase (Correct) c\) The consumer's relationship with the seller d\) The availability of discounts 4\. A consumer deciding to buy a sailboat is likely to spend more time in: a\) The purchase phase b\) The pre-purchase phase (Correct) c\) The post-purchase phase d\) None of the above 5\. What is an example of a trigger for the pre-purchase phase? a\) Discovering a new product online (Correct) b\) Reviewing past purchases c\) Canceling an existing order d\) Returning a product 6\. Why might pre-purchase activities be short for some purchases? a\) The consumer is highly familiar with the product (Correct) b\) The product is expensive c\) The decision involves multiple stakeholders d\) The consumer dislikes shopping 7\. In pre-purchase decision-making, which activity follows recognizing a need? a\) Collecting information (Correct) b\) Comparing post-purchase services c\) Finalizing the payment d\) Evaluating post-purchase options 8\. Pre-purchase decisions for luxury goods are typically: a\) Quick and impulsive b\) Time-consuming and deliberate (Correct) c\) Based on discounts d\) Uninfluenced by advertising 9\. What is the role of information search during pre-purchase? a\) To finalize the choice of brand b\) To evaluate alternatives (Correct) c\) To confirm the need is legitimate d\) To conclude the transaction 10\. Which factor most directly affects the pre-purchase phase? a\) Consumer's mood b\) Complexity of the product (Correct) c\) Seasonal discounts d\) Availability of customer reviews Phase 2: Purchase 11\. What defines the purchase phase in consumer decision-making? a\) Post-purchase evaluation b\) The transaction or exchange of goods (Correct) c\) Alternative evaluations d\) Information search 12\. Which example reflects a key activity in the purchase phase? a\) Comparing multiple options b\) Clicking "Buy Now" on an online store (Correct) c\) Collecting post-purchase feedback d\) Assessing past purchase behavior 13\. Why is the purchase phase critical for marketers? a\) It determines post-purchase satisfaction b\) It directly involves the consumer's decision to buy (Correct) c\) It defines long-term brand loyalty d\) It emphasizes the importance of returns 14\. What commonly affects the purchase phase? a\) Accessibility and ease of purchase (Correct) b\) Long-term product value c\) Past consumer reviews d\) Financial planning 15\. Which of the following is a primary concern during the purchase phase? a\) Evaluating the reliability of a product b\) Completing the transaction successfully (Correct) c\) Gathering detailed product information d\) Investigating alternative options 16\. A consumer choosing between online and in-store shopping is in which phase? a\) Pre-purchase b\) Purchase (Correct) c\) Post-purchase d\) Alternative evaluation 17\. How can marketers influence decisions during the purchase phase? a\) By offering discounts and promotions (Correct) b\) By reducing post-purchase satisfaction c\) By increasing the complexity of options d\) By limiting customer support 18\. What is a potential barrier in the purchase phase? a\) A lack of available payment options (Correct) b\) Inadequate customer reviews c\) Overabundance of post-purchase support d\) Absence of competitive alternatives 19\. What typically concludes the purchase phase? a\) Completion of payment (Correct) b\) Gathering product information c\) Recognizing a need d\) Evaluating alternative brands 20\. Which element is essential to a seamless purchase experience? a\) Extensive after-sales support b\) Clear and simple checkout processes (Correct) c\) Aggressive advertising d\) Customer loyalty programs Phase 3: Post-Purchase 21\. What occurs during the post-purchase phase? a\) Alternative evaluations b\) Consumer satisfaction assessment (Correct) c\) Transaction processing d\) Brand discovery 22\. Which activity exemplifies post-purchase behavior? a\) Using a product and deciding to recommend it (Correct) b\) Evaluating competing brands c\) Collecting pre-purchase reviews d\) Searching for a new product 23\. Post-purchase satisfaction is most influenced by: a\) The cost of the product b\) How well the product meets expectations (Correct) c\) The brand's popularity d\) The ease of the purchase process 24\. Which factor leads to negative post-purchase behavior? a\) Misleading advertising (Correct) b\) Affordable pricing c\) Effective customer support d\) Positive product reviews 25\. What strategy can improve the post-purchase experience? a\) Providing detailed product descriptions b\) Offering excellent after-sales support (Correct) c\) Increasing advertising frequency d\) Limiting return options 26\. Which term describes a customer's regret after making a purchase? a\) Buyer's loyalty b\) Buyer's remorse (Correct) c\) Cognitive satisfaction d\) Post-purchase delight 27\. How can companies address post-purchase dissatisfaction? a\) By ignoring negative feedback b\) By offering flexible return policies (Correct) c\) By reducing customer support options d\) By increasing the complexity of refunds 28\. What is the role of word-of-mouth in post-purchase behavior? a\) It has no significant impact b\) It can influence other potential buyers (Correct) c\) It ends with the purchase phase d\) It applies only to luxury products 29\. What strategy helps maintain customer loyalty post-purchase? a\) Limited customer service options b\) Personalized follow-up communications (Correct) c\) Decreasing product quality d\) Increasing product pricing 30\. Which action would reduce post-purchase regret? a\) Providing accurate product descriptions and expectations (Correct) b\) Overpromising product benefits c\) Limiting consumer reviews d\) Increasing delivery times 1\. What was Propecia initially designed to treat? a\) Skin conditions b\) Hair loss (Correct) c\) Male infertility d\) Obesity 2\. What was a challenge Merck faced in marketing Propecia? a\) Limited availability of the product b\) Doctors reluctant to prescribe for a cosmetic condition (Correct) c\) High costs of advertising d\) No known side effects 3\. How did Propecia work best? a\) Regrowing hair quickly b\) Preventing further hair loss (Correct) c\) Treating scalp infections d\) Improving scalp blood circulation 4\. What delayed many men from seeking treatment for hair loss? a\) Lack of effective solutions b\) Trying non-medical remedies first (Correct) c\) Financial constraints d\) Inaccessibility of physicians 5\. Which medical professionals were more receptive to Propecia? a\) Pediatricians b\) Dermatologists (Correct) c\) Surgeons d\) Neurologists 6\. What was a significant barrier for physicians prescribing Propecia? a\) Lack of detailed clinical trials b\) Its association with cosmetic conditions (Correct) c\) Difficulties in storage d\) High manufacturing costs 7\. How long did Propecia typically take to show results? a\) One week b\) Three months (Correct) c\) Six months d\) A year 8\. Why did some physicians avoid prescribing Propecia? a\) Negative side effects from a similar product, Rogaine (Correct) b\) Lack of patient demand c\) Difficulty in application d\) High cost for patients 9\. What was a known side effect of Propecia? a\) Vision impairment b\) Rare sexual dysfunction (Correct) c\) High blood pressure d\) Skin rashes 10\. What type of product was Propecia categorized as? a\) A lifestyle drug (Correct) b\) An emergency medicine c\) A surgical alternative d\) A recreational treatment 11\. What percentage of balding men underestimated their rate of hair loss? a\) 10% b\) 25% c\) 50% (Correct) d\) 75% 12\. What was a common attitude among men experiencing baldness? a\) Immediate urgency to seek treatment b\) Resignation to their condition (Correct) c\) Enthusiasm for trying new drugs d\) Avoidance of all medical solutions 13\. What did Merck identify as critical for Propecia's success? a\) Long-lasting regrowth solutions b\) Encouraging early adoption (Correct) c\) Focusing solely on cost reduction d\) Avoiding direct-to-consumer advertising 14\. How did Merck plan to motivate consumers to act sooner? a\) By lowering the price of Propecia b\) Through urgency-focused advertising (Correct) c\) By minimizing side effects d\) By offering free consultations 15\. What type of consumer involvement did Propecia require? a\) Minimal consumer interaction b\) Active and proactive decision-making (Correct) c\) Passive acceptance of doctor recommendations d\) No involvement in the decision-making process 16\. What type of patients did Merck focus on reaching? a\) Those already using similar products b\) Men in the early stages of hair loss (Correct) c\) Consumers with severe hair loss d\) Women with scalp issues 17\. Why was Propecia less effective for certain patients? a\) It only worked for men under 30 b\) It could not regrow significant amounts of hair (Correct) c\) It caused widespread allergic reactions d\) It required concurrent use of other medications 18\. What factor delayed many men from considering medical solutions? a\) Expensive consultations b\) Social stigma of baldness c\) Experimenting with non-medical solutions (Correct) d\) Inconvenient treatment schedules 19\. What did Merck highlight in its advertisements? a\) Propecia's ability to regrow significant hair b\) The importance of early action (Correct) c\) The affordability of the treatment d\) The absence of side effects 20\. What role did direct-to-consumer (DTC) advertising play? a\) It was not used for Propecia b\) It informed consumers about early-stage benefits (Correct) c\) It discouraged consumers from seeking medical advice d\) It focused on dermatologists Marketing Strategy and Execution (10 Questions) 21\. What was a key goal of Propecia's physician detailing campaign? a\) To sell Propecia directly to doctors b\) To raise awareness and reduce skepticism (Correct) c\) To eliminate alternative treatments d\) To avoid involving dermatologists 22\. What phase did Propecia target physicians to move through? a\) Ignorance to active denial b\) Awareness to confident prescription (Correct) c\) Skepticism to passive acceptance d\) Resistance to non-prescription use 23\. Why did Merck focus on primary care physicians? a\) They saw patients with severe hair loss regularly b\) They were often the first point of contact (Correct) c\) They had no experience with cosmetic drugs d\) They had fewer concerns about side effects 24\. How did Propecia perform in its first year? a\) Sales were below expectations b\) Sales reached \$72 million (Correct) c\) It failed to gain consumer awareness d\) Physicians refused to prescribe it 25\. What was unique about Propecia's marketing strategy? a\) It targeted only physicians b\) It relied heavily on consumer involvement (Correct) c\) It avoided advertising completely d\) It focused solely on dermatologists 26\. What did Merck's advertisements emphasize? a\) Propecia's side effects b\) Preventing hair loss, not regrowth (Correct) c\) Propecia's affordability d\) Its use for all stages of baldness 27\. What was a critical insight Merck used in its strategy? a\) Physicians preferred non-drug treatments b\) Consumers were driving the decision-making process (Correct) c\) Dermatologists had the largest patient base d\) Propecia's success relied solely on regrowth effectiveness 28\. How did Merck address physicians' concerns? a\) By simplifying the prescription process b\) By providing clinical trial data and free samples (Correct) c\) By offering incentives for prescriptions d\) By limiting patient inquiries 29\. What was a significant outcome of Propecia's marketing campaign? a\) Awareness levels surpassed expectations within a month (Correct) b\) Sales lagged due to limited advertising c\) Physicians resisted prescribing the drug d\) Consumers lost interest in Propecia 30\. How did Merck manage consumer expectations? a\) By highlighting rapid results b\) By promoting realistic outcomes (Correct) c\) By avoiding discussions on effectiveness d\) By limiting product availabilityQuiz: Section 3.1 - Forces Changing Consumer Behavior and the 1\. How has social media transformed the pre-purchase phase for consumers? a\) By reducing product options b\) By enabling broader consultation with their network (Correct) c\) By simplifying payment options d\) By replacing offline reviews 2\. What is a common way firms leverage social media? a\) Reducing marketing expenses b\) Inducing consumers to follow their brands (Correct) c\) Offering fewer product variations d\) Minimizing their online presence 3\. How does social media amplify post-purchase feedback? a\) By limiting consumer reach b\) By enabling consumers to broadcast dissatisfaction widely (Correct) c\) By restricting online reviews d\) By reducing interaction with dissatisfied customers 4\. What was the result of the \"United Breaks Guitars\" example? a\) It highlighted the benefits of customer service b\) It showed how social media can escalate consumer complaints (Correct) c\) It reduced consumer awareness of the issue d\) It increased trust in airlines 5\. What strategy do companies use to manage complaints on social media? a\) Ignoring online mentions b\) Monitoring platforms and contacting dissatisfied customers (Correct) c\) Reducing customer service availability d\) Prioritizing traditional media responses 6\. What is a key benefit of social media for consumers during the pre-purchase phase? a\) It limits choice sets b\) It provides access to an entire network for feedback (Correct) c\) It replaces the need for product research d\) It discourages brand loyalty 7\. What role does social media play in consumer behavior? a\) Increasing offline purchases b\) Influencing decisions across all phases of the buying process (Correct) c\) Reducing emotional decision-making d\) Replacing cognitive decision-making 8\. How do negative reviews on social media impact brands? a\) They often go unnoticed b\) They can damage reputation significantly (Correct) c\) They improve consumer trust d\) They have no lasting impact 9\. What is one way brands address negative feedback online? a\) Ignoring comments b\) Quickly responding with solutions (Correct) c\) Removing dissatisfied customers from platforms d\) Avoiding engagement 10\. Which phase is most influenced by social media? a\) Purchase b\) Pre-purchase (Correct) c\) Post-purchase d\) None of the above 11\. What strategy helps brands maintain a positive social media presence? a\) Ignoring customer inquiries b\) Regularly posting engaging content (Correct) c\) Avoiding discussions on trending topics d\) Limiting responses to comments 12\. How do influencers impact consumer decisions on social media? a\) By discouraging reviews b\) By increasing trust in endorsed products (Correct) c\) By reducing product visibility d\) By promoting unrelated products 13\. Which is a disadvantage of social media for brands? a\) Limited consumer engagement b\) Amplification of consumer complaints (Correct) c\) Reduced access to global audiences d\) Minimal marketing opportunities 14\. What is a consumer benefit of social media in the post-purchase phase? a\) Easier payment processing b\) Opportunity to share product experiences (Correct) c\) Simplified product research d\) Enhanced product packaging 15\. How can brands use social media to influence the purchase phase? a\) By ignoring user-generated content b\) By showcasing reviews and endorsements (Correct) c\) By limiting product promotions d\) By avoiding competitive comparisons 16\. What does "virality" mean in the context of social media? a\) Minimal reach of a campaign b\) Rapid sharing of content across platforms (Correct) c\) Limited consumer engagement d\) Exclusivity of access 17\. How do brands encourage user-generated content? a\) By avoiding consumer participation b\) By launching contests and campaigns (Correct) c\) By limiting customization d\) By focusing solely on advertisements 18\. What makes social media reviews valuable for consumers? a\) They are always unbiased b\) They provide real user experiences (Correct) c\) They replace professional reviews d\) They eliminate the need for research 19\. What is the role of hashtags in social media marketing? a\) Reducing visibility b\) Increasing content discoverability (Correct) c\) Limiting brand interaction d\) Avoiding community engagement 20\. Why do brands monitor social media platforms? a\) To identify potential customer issues quickly (Correct) b\) To limit customer interactions c\) To avoid competitive content d\) To reduce advertising costs Co-Creation and Consumer Involvement (5 Questions) 21\. What is the essence of co-creation? a\) Excluding customers from product design b\) Actively engaging consumers in creating value (Correct) c\) Reducing product options d\) Simplifying decision-making 22\. How does co-creation impact customer satisfaction? a\) It decreases brand loyalty b\) It strengthens emotional connections (Correct) c\) It complicates consumer choices d\) It has no measurable impact 23\. Which of the following is an example of co-creation? a\) Voting on new product features (Correct) b\) Fixed product designs c\) Limiting consumer feedback d\) Standardizing product offerings 24\. What is a major advantage of co-creation for firms? a\) Reduced production costs b\) Stronger customer engagement and loyalty (Correct) c\) Simplified operations d\) Increased product complexity 25\. Co-creation relies on: a\) Limiting consumer participation b\) Customer involvement and creativity (Correct) c\) Pre-set product options d\) Eliminating consumer feedback "Conscience" Marketing (15 Questions) 26\. What is the focus of "conscience" marketing? a\) Ignoring ethical responsibilities b\) Combining profits with social good (Correct) c\) Simplifying branding strategies d\) Avoiding sustainability 27\. How does "conscience" marketing benefit brands? a\) By increasing transparency and trust (Correct) b\) By reducing production quality c\) By focusing on short-term profits d\) By ignoring consumer expectations 28\. What is an example of "conscience" marketing? a\) Promoting environmentally sustainable practices (Correct) b\) Avoiding social issues c\) Ignoring ethical concerns d\) Reducing transparency 29\. Why is "conscience" marketing important in today's market? a\) Consumers prioritize profit margins b\) Consumers value ethical practices (Correct) c\) Brands avoid sustainability trends d\) It reduces brand competitiveness 30\. Which strategy aligns with "conscience" marketing? a\) Supporting local community initiatives (Correct) b\) Avoiding transparency in supply chains c\) Ignoring consumer feedback d\) Reducing product quality 31\. What is a risk of ignoring "conscience" marketing? a\) Increased customer trust b\) Loss of consumer loyalty (Correct) c\) Simplified brand messaging d\) Higher profit margins 32\. What makes "conscience" marketing effective? a\) Reduced environmental impact (Correct) b\) Increased consumer prices c\) Limited consumer awareness d\) Avoidance of feedback 33\. How do ethical supply chains affect consumers? a\) They are irrelevant to purchasing decisions b\) They build trust in the brand (Correct) c\) They complicate decision-making d\) They increase consumer skepticism 34\. What role do certifications play in "conscience" marketing? a\) They validate sustainable practices (Correct) b\) They decrease brand transparency c\) They reduce market competitiveness d\) They limit product options 35\. What is a consumer expectation in "conscience" marketing? a\) Lack of ethical practices b\) Social responsibility and accountability (Correct) c\) Minimal transparency d\) Higher costs without added value 36\. How can companies integrate sustainability into their operations? a\) By avoiding renewable materials b\) By using eco-friendly production processes (Correct) c\) By increasing packaging waste d\) By ignoring recycling practices 37\. What drives consumer interest in "conscience" marketing? a\) Profit-focused branding b\) Alignment with personal values (Correct) c\) Reduced product options d\) Decreased transparency 38\. Which demographic is most influenced by "conscience" marketing? a\) Younger, socially aware consumers (Correct) b\) Older generations with no digital presence c\) Consumers with no brand loyalty d\) Price-driven buyers 39\. What is the relationship between corporate social responsibility and brand equity? a\) No impact b\) Positive correlation (Correct) c\) Negative correlation d\) Irrelevant to modern markets 40\. How do consumers perceive brands with strong ethical practices? a\) As less innovative b\) As more trustworthy and reliable (Correct) c\) As profit-driven d\) As less competitive 1. What is the main characteristic of quantitative research? - a\) Focus on understanding behavior through emotions - b\) Use of numerical data for statistical analysis (Correct) - c\) Reliance on subjective interpretations - d\) Collection of open-ended responses 2. Which of the following is a method of quantitative research? - a\) Focus groups - b\) Depth interviews - c\) Observational research (Correct) - d\) Projective techniques 3. What type of data does quantitative research typically collect? - a\) Emotional responses - b\) Numerical data (Correct) - c\) Visual interpretations - d\) Behavioral anecdotes 4. Which of the following best describes quantitative research? - a\) Used to explore complex emotions - b\) Generalizable to larger populations (Correct) - c\) Time-consuming and subjective - d\) Focused on small, detailed samples ### **Observational Research** 5. Observational research involves: - a\) Direct questioning of consumers - b\) Monitoring consumers without interaction (Correct) - c\) Online surveys - d\) Experimental trials 6. Which is a benefit of observational research? - a\) Quick data collection - b\) In-depth understanding of consumer behavior (Correct) - c\) Eliminates all subjectivity - d\) Offers high scalability 7. What is a key challenge of observational research? - a\) Cost efficiency - b\) Subjectivity in data interpretation (Correct) - c\) Lack of flexibility - d\) Dependence on consumer interaction 8. Observational research is especially effective for: - a\) Analyzing numerical trends - b\) Understanding how consumers interact with products (Correct) - c\) Measuring brand loyalty - d\) Testing pricing strategies ### **Experimental Research** 9. The primary goal of experimental research is: - a\) Collect qualitative insights - b\) Establish cause-and-effect relationships (Correct) - c\) Explore subconscious motivations - d\) Monitor online behavior 10. Which is an example of experimental research? - a\) A focus group - b\) A/B testing of a website (Correct) - c\) Observing in-store behavior - d\) Monitoring online reviews 11. In an experiment, controlling all variables except one ensures: - a\) Random outcomes - b\) Accurate results for the manipulated variable (Correct) - c\) Bias in data collection - d\) Generalized insights 12. What is a benefit of experimental research? - a\) Subjective insights - b\) High scalability - c\) Precision in measuring variable impact (Correct) - d\) Cost-efficiency 13. Which is NOT an example of experimental research? - a\) Testing product packaging - b\) Comparing social media mentions (Correct) - c\) Measuring performance differences - d\) Assessing price sensitivity ### **Survey Methods** 14. Which survey method is most cost-effective? - a\) Online surveys (Correct) - b\) Personal interviews - c\) Telephone surveys - d\) Mail surveys 15. A disadvantage of telephone surveys is: - a\) Lack of geographic flexibility - b\) Interviewer bias (Correct) - c\) Expensive setup - d\) Slow response time 16. Which survey method has the highest response rate? - a\) Online surveys - b\) Personal interviews (Correct) - c\) Telephone surveys - d\) Mail surveys 17. What is a benefit of online surveys? - a\) Eliminates self-selection bias - b\) Cost-effective and fast (Correct) - c\) High geographic inflexibility - d\) Always representative of the population 18. Which survey type minimizes interviewer bias? - a\) Telephone surveys - b\) Online surveys (Correct) - c\) Personal interviews - d\) Mail surveys ### **Questionnaire Design** 19. A Likert scale measures: - a\) Open-ended responses - b\) Levels of agreement or importance (Correct) - c\) Frequency of a behavior - d\) Consumer preferences 20. Which question type provides the most statistical analysis potential? - a\) Open-ended - b\) Closed-ended (Correct) - c\) Visual storytelling - d\) Word association 21. Rank-order scales are used to: - a\) Measure emotional responses - b\) Rank attributes in terms of preference (Correct) - c\) Test agreement levels - d\) Assess frequency of use 22. Which of the following is an example of a scalar question? - a\) \"What do you value most in a product?\" - b\) \"Rate this product from 1 to 5.\" (Correct) - c\) \"What is your age?\" - d\) \"Describe your ideal product.\" 23. Semantic differential scales often: - a\) Use bipolar adjectives (e.g., good/bad) (Correct) - b\) Rely on numerical scales only - c\) Allow for open-ended responses - d\) Require respondents to rank items ### **Quantitative Research Applications** 24. Quantitative research is best suited for: - a\) Exploring emotional drivers - b\) Measuring customer satisfaction rates (Correct) - c\) Creating brand identity - d\) Uncovering subconscious motivations 25. Which of the following is a common quantitative metric? - a\) Brand perception - b\) Purchase frequency (Correct) - c\) Consumer emotions - d\) Open-ended testimonials 26. Statistical analysis in quantitative research helps: - a\) Interpret consumer emotions - b\) Predict future trends (Correct) - c\) Understand subconscious decisions - d\) Explore qualitative insights 27. Which is a typical outcome of quantitative research? - a\) Generalized insights for larger populations (Correct) - b\) Detailed personal stories - c\) In-depth emotional profiles - d\) Open-ended feedback ### **Advanced Quantitative Concepts** 28. Probability sampling ensures: - a\) Non-random selection - b\) Equal chance for participants to be selected (Correct) - c\) Convenience in sampling - d\) Quicker data collection 29. What type of quantitative research uses existing numerical data? - a\) Secondary quantitative research (Correct) - b\) Observational research - c\) Focus groups - d\) Experimental trials 30. The key advantage of closed-ended questions is: - a\) Providing detailed, narrative responses - b\) Facilitating easier data analysis (Correct) - c\) Offering deep emotional insights - d\) Allowing flexible responses 31. A question asking respondents to select \"Strongly Agree\" or \"Strongly Disagree\" uses: - a\) Rank-order scales - b\) Likert scales (Correct) - c\) Semantic differential scales - d\) Open-ended questions 32. Quantitative research is preferred over qualitative when: - a\) Analyzing emotions - b\) Seeking large-scale statistical validation (Correct) - c\) Conducting personal interviews - d\) Gathering subconscious motivations 33. What is a common disadvantage of quantitative research? - a\) Lack of scalability - b\) Difficulty in data standardization - c\) Limited depth of individual insights (Correct) - d\) Cost of data collection 34. The term \"generalizability\" in quantitative research refers to: - a\) Applying findings to broader populations (Correct) - b\) Analyzing emotional responses - c\) Collecting subjective opinions - d\) Designing qualitative studies 35. Which method is best for measuring the frequency of a specific consumer behavior? - a\) Focus groups - b\) Surveys (Correct) - c\) Projective techniques - d\) Observational studies