MTC 2 PDF

MTC 2 Cultural characteristics of S.aureus grown on yolk-salt agar medium: A. Small colonies with cloudy area B. Gold colonies with cloud area C. Small shiny colonies D. Transparent blue colonies E. Dense small white colonies Scalded skin syndrome is caused by exotoxin (exfoliatins) prod...

MTC 2 Cultural characteristics of S.aureus grown on yolk-salt agar medium: A. Small colonies with cloudy area B. Gold colonies with cloud area C. Small shiny colonies D. Transparent blue colonies E. Dense small white colonies Scalded skin syndrome is caused by exotoxin (exfoliatins) produced by: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogens C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Propionibacterium acne E. Demodex folliculorum The most important pathogenetic factor of staphylococcal pemphigus in a newborn: A. exfoliatin B. coagulase C. lecithinase D. fibrinolysin E. hemolysin In the pathogenesis of staphylococcal infections for S. aureus the permanent enzyme is: A. oxidase B. protein kinase C. phosphatase D. coagulase E. muramidase For microbiological diagnosis of staphylococcal sepsis, use: A. blood culture on Endo medium B. sowing blood on sugar broth C. agglutination reaction D. immunofluorescence method E. direct blood microscopy In the prepared smears, staphylococcus is presented in the form: A. gram-positive chains of cocci B. gram-positive cluster (bunch) cocci C. gram-negative ovoid rods D. gram-negative diplococcic E. gram-positive rods with metachromatic inclusions at the ends Staphylococci that have exfoliatin cause: A. scarlet fever B. food poisoning C. enteritis D. sepsis E. pemphigus of newborns If a is suspected, the sowing of the test material is carried out in: A. sugar broth and blood agar B. salt media and blood agar C. casein-coal agar D. serum agar E. tellurite medium To identify the isolated Staphylococcus aureus use: A. coagulase test B. fermentation of glucose C. fermentation of glycerol D. growth on Endo medium  E. determination of oxidase Which of the following Gram-positive bacteria is most likely to be the cause of a Hospital acquired infection? A. C.difficile B. S.pneumonia C. S.pyogenes D. S.aureus E. S.saprophyticus Coagulase-positive staphylococcus was isolated from the patient's vomit, from sour cream and cottage cheese. What methods of intraspecific identification of the pathogen can be used: A. determine only hemolytic properties B. sow on yolk-salt agar C. to put agglutination reaction D. determine saccharolytic activity E. phage typing Toxin of streptococci: A. exfoliatin B. enterotoxin C. cytotoxin D. endotoxin E. tetanospasmin Which of the following bacteria produce alpha haemolysis on blood agar? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus faecalis D. Streptococcus pneumonia E. Staphylococcus aureus After what disease of streptococcal etiology is formed stable immunity: A. rheumatism B. chronic tonsillitis C. glomerulonephritis D. phlegmon E. scarlet fever This bacteriums is the most common cause of pneumonia in the world: A. Chlamydophila pneumonia B. Legionella pneumophila C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Mycoplasms pneumonia E. Neisseria meningitidis For microbiological diagnosis of scarlet fever, the following is used: A. blood culture B. microscopy of material from the throat C. blood microscopy D. precipitation reaction E. sowing material from the throat Streptococcus produces: A. catalase B. enterotoxin C. urease D. hyaluronidase E. lysozyme Which of the following microorganisms infect the fetus when passing through the birth canal and can cause meningitis of newborns: A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus aureus  D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus pneumonia Streptococci are able to produce pyrogenic exotoxin, cause: A. chronic tonsillitis B. erysipelas C. scarlet fever D. purulent skin lesions E. phlegmon Morphological features of N.meningitidis is: A. gram-positive bacillus B. gram-positive spore-forming bacillus C. gram-negative diplococci D. gram-negative bacillus E. gram-positive cocci The causative agent of meningococcal meningitis grows on media: A. Saburo medium B. Serum medium C. Rappaport medium D. Ploskirev medium E. Bismuth-Sulfite medium The causative agent of meningococcal infection belongs to the genus: A. Moraxella B. Neissеria C. Acinetobacter D. Brаnhamella E. Francisella Immunity in gonorrhea: A. non sterile B. stable  C. antitoxic D. aniviral E. persistent Diagnosis of acute gonorrhea: A. complement fixation reaction B. bacterioscopic C. biological D. bacteriological E. agglutination reaction Blennorrhoea is: A. Gonococcal arthritis B. Gonococcal cystitis C. Gonococcal conjunctivitis D. Gonococcal sepsis E. Hepatitis Which is the most infective stage in whooping cough? A. Catarrhal stage B. Paroxysmal stage C. Convalescent stage D. Incubation period E. None of the above Pathological material for bacteriological examination in whooping cough is: A. faeces B. blood C. gastric lavage D. cerebrospinal fluid E. nasopharyngeal mucus In the pathogenesis of whooping cough, an important role is played by:  A. capsule formation B. invasion enzymes C. Ent-plasmid D. protein A E. thermolabile exotoxin What type of vaccine is MMR (measles, mumps and rubella)? A. Inactivated vaccine B. Subunit vaccine C. DNA vaccine D. Toxoid E. Live attenuated vaccine Which of the following vaccines is/are available for prophylaxis of whooping cough? A. DPT B. BCG C. Chemical vaccine D. Live vaccine E. Recombinant vaccine Chinese letter arrangement of bacilli is a characteristic feature of: A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Bacillus cereus E. Bacillus anthracis Diphtheria is an example of A. Bacteraemia B. Pyaemia C. Septicemia D. Toxaemia  E. Viraemia Morphological signs of Corynebacteria: A. gram-negative bacillus B. gram-positive bacillus with endospores C. gram-positive bacillus with volutin grains D. gram-negative cocci E. crimped forms To create an active immunity against diphtheria is used: A. antitoxic serum B. the vaccine is alive C. chemical vaccine D. toxoid E. Interferon The most common site affected by Corynebacterium diphtheria is: A. Conjunctiva B. Skin C. Upper respiratory tract D. Vulvovaginal E. Intectinal tract The main pathogenicity factor in C.diphtheriae is: A. phytic acid B. histotoxin C. LPS D. hemolytic activity E. protein A The main pathogenicity factor of diphtheria, affecting the heart muscle, adrenal glands, kidneys and nerve ganglia: A. endotoxin  B. hyaluronidase C. neuraminidase D. exotoxin E. cord factor Which is the selective medium used for isolation of C.diphtheriae? A. Loeffler’s serum slope B. Lowenstein-Jensen medium C. Tellurite blood agar D. Chocolate agar E. Meat-peptone agar The uneven coloring of diphtheria with aniline dyes is due to: A. sporulation B. capsule formation C. presence of flagella D. high lipid content E. presence of volutin grains Production of diphtheria toxin by bacteria can be demonstrated by: A. Mantoux test B. Agglutination test C. Schick reaction D. Elek’s gel precipitation test E. Dick reaction Schick test is an example of: A. Neutralization B. Precipitation C. Agglutination D. Hemolysis E. Coagulase Enterobacteria in the prepared smears are presented as: A. gram-positive bacillus B. gram-positive cocci C. gram-negative bacillus D. gram-negative diplococci E. gram-negative coccobacteria Differential-diagnostic nutrient media of Enterobacteria: A. Levin, yolk-salt agar B. Endo, MacConkey, Levin C. Endo, blood agar D. MacConkey, Kitt-Tarozzi E. Casein-coal agar E. coli O antigen: A. cell wall lipopolysaccharide B. located in flagella C. thermolabile D. flagellin protein E. virulent antigen Morphology E.coli: A. bacillus arranged in a chain B. have a centrally located spore C. large gram-positive bacillus D. gram-negative bacillus with rounded ends E. form a pronounced capsule in the body and on nutrient media Pathogenicity factors of Escherichia: A. enterotoxin B. coagulase C. lecithinase  D. catalase E. leucocidin Biochemical properties of Escherichia coli: A. Produces ammonia B. Forms hydrogen sulfide C. Ferments lactose to acid D. Does not ferment sucrose E. Ferments lactose to acid and gas A colony of Escherichia coli grown on Endo medium: A. dark red metallic sheen B. small colonies with hemolysis C. green-brown large colonies D. blue-black S-shaped colonies E. colorless, R-shaped colonies Specify the bacteria commonly causing ascending urinary tract infections: A. Serracia marcescens B. Citrobacter freundii C. Enterobacter cloacae D. Klebsiella pneumoniae E. Escherichia coli Antigens of E.coli: A. only O antigen B. O, N, K antigens C. only peptidoglycan D. H and Vi-antigen E. protective antigen The causative agents of intestinal infections spread: A. Aerosol  B. Alimentary C. Sexual D. Parenteral E. Transplacental Final identification of Enterobacteriaceae is done by: A. with biochemical research B. with polyvalent serum in the agglutination reaction C. with monovalent serum in agglutination reaction D. sowing on a differential diagnostic medium E. view under a microscope Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli were isolated from the patient's feces. Determine its biochemical properties using the short Hiss series: A. ferments lactose, glucose, mannitol, maltose, sucrose to acid and gas B. ferments lactose, glucose, mannitol, maltose to acid C. ferments lactose, glucose, mannitol, maltose to acid and gas D. ferments glucose, mannitol, maltose to acid E. ferments glucose, mannitol, maltose to acid and gas Antibiotic resistance of Shigella is associated with: A. RNA transmission B. weakening of the body's reactivity C. genetic recombination D. R-plasmid E. mutualism Resistance of Shigella: A. not sensitive to disinfectants B. not sensitive to the action of gastric juice C. long-lasting in water and dairy products D. preserved by boiling E. they persist for a long time in feces On the MacConkey agar Shigella form colonies: A. greenish beige B. colorless S-colonies C. red with a metallic sheen D. black colonies E. convex with peripheral ridge What is the classification of the genus Shigella based on: A. to create a toxin B. to tinctorial property C. to biochemical properties D. to antigenic structure E. to morphological features Who proposed a classification scheme for the serological properties of Salmonella: A. Pasteur B. Schotmüller C. Ebert D. Koch E. Kauffmann and White Choose the accumulation medium of Salmonella: A. selenite broth B. blood agar C. yolk-salt agar D. MacConkey agar E. meat-peptone broth Identification of the carriage of typhoid fever: A. isolate blood cultures B. Widal reaction with O-antigen  C. stool culture and isolate a pure culture D. hemagglutination reaction with Vi-antigen E. agglutination reaction with monoreceptor diagnostics Mechanism of Widal reaction, which used in the diagnosis of typhoid fever: A. precipitation B. complement binding C. agglutination D. neutralization E. lysis Identification of carrier in typhoid fever: A. statement of Vi-hemagglutination B. statement of the Vidal reaction with O-diagnostics C. selection of blood culture D. sowing stool on a nutrient medium E. agglutination reaction with monoreceptor diagnostics Immunity in typhoid fever: A. antitoxic B. short C. non sterile D. long, stable E. passive, natural What week is blood culture taken for typhoid fever? A. in the first week B. in the second week C. in the third week D. after 20 days E. always The antigens of the causative agents of typhoid:  A. M-protein B. A-protein C. Hemagglutinin D. O, H, Vi E. Peptidoglycan Choose a media for the differential diagnosis of Salmonella: A. yolk-salt agar B. selenite soup C. blood agar D. meat-peptone soup E. bismuth sulfite agar The causative agent of typhoid fever: A. S.typhi B. S.cholera-suis C. S.typhimurium D. S.enteridis E. S.paratyphi A Phase of pathogenesis of typhoid fever: A. viremia B. catarrhal C. convulsive D. bacteremia E. toxinemia There has been an outbreak of a cholera-like disease in a city. What nutrient media can be used to confirm this diagnosis as soon as possible: A. Endo medium B. Alkaline agar C. Mac-Conkey agar D. Yolk-salt agar E. Saburo medium For the prevention of cholera uses: A. antitoxic serum B. chemical vaccine C. killed vaccine D. DTP E. live vaccine Family of Cholera pathogen: A. Vibrionaceae B. Brucellaceae C. Spirillaceae D. Micrococcaceae E. Enterobacteriaceae Cholera pathogen antigens: A. Vi antigen B. capsular C. protective D. incomplete E. somatic O-antigen Pathogenicity of the causative agent of cholera: A. capsule B. erythrogenic toxin C. enterotoxin D. lethal toxin E. neurotoxin Cholera vaccine: A. antitoxin B. killed vaccine C. obtained from the blood of rabbits D. used for diagnosis  E. autovaccine Stool in cholera: A. View does not change B. Liquid, mixed with blood C. Resemble of “rise broth” D. Bubbly, watery E. In solid state Identification of the causative agent of cholera from other vibrios: A. RBC lysis under the action of cholerogen B. lactose fermentation and indole production C. determination of morphology and mobility D. growth on alkaline agar and in 1% peptone water E. agglutination with serum O1 and O139 The main factor of the pathogenicity of the pathogen of botulism is: A. sporulation B. antiphagocytic activity C. endotoxin D. enterotoxin E. neurotoxin 1Specify a medium which you use for primary inoculation of a studied material to allocate the pure culture of anaerobic bacteria? A. Endo agar B. MacConkey medium C. Alkaline broth D. Bismuth-Sulfite medium E. Robertson’s cooked meat broth 1A patient with a preliminary diagnosis of botulism was delivered to the infectious department. What reaction should be used for isolated material for the study of botulinum toxin?  A. Agglutination reaction B. Neutralization reaction C. Complement fixation reaction D. Precipitation reaction E. Immunofluorescence reaction The causative agent of an infectious disease, exotoxin, which is the most powerful of all biological poisons: A. Bacillus cereus B. Clostridium botulinum C. Vibrio cholera D. Salmonella typhi E. Yersinia pestis 1Principle toxin responsible for gas gangrene is: A. Alpha toxin B. Theta toxin C. Beta toxin D. Delta toxin E. Yota toxin The causative agent of gas gangrene: A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium intermedia C. Clostridium perfringens D. Bacillus anthracis E. B.gracillis For the prevention of tetanus used: A. attenuated vaccine B. killed vaccine C. tetanus toxoid D. genetically engineered vaccine  E. antibiotics Identification of the toxin Clostridium is carried out using: A. gel precipitation reaction B. enzyme immunoassay for the determination of antibodies C. reaction of agglutination with anti-tetanus serum D. neutralization reaction in a bioassay on mice E. complement fixation reaction On what nutrient medium are clostridia grown: A. Endo B. Yolk-salt agar C. Lowenstein-Jensen D. Bordel-Gengou medium E. Kitta-Tarozzi The main factor of pathogenicity of causative agent of tetanus: A. invasiveness B. endotoxin C. neurotoxin D. edematous factor E. enterotoxin Which of the following is true about primary syphilis? A. The chancre is generally painless and resolves without treatment B. Nontreponemal serologic tests are always positive C. Generalized lymphadenopathy is common D. A painful chancre occurs at the site of inoculation E. Characteristic maculopapular rash on the body Mucocutaneous lesions are most commonly seen during which stage of syphilis? A. Primary B. Secondary  C. Latent D. Tertiary E. Quaternary Tertiary syphilis is characterized by the expression: A. the formation of gummy infiltrates B. the formation of the chancre C. diarrheas D. roseolous rash E. nauseas The source of infection in syphilis are: A. cows B. pigs C. birds D. people E. amphibia Primary syphilis is characterized by: A. roseolar or popular skin rashes B. gummy infiltrates in various organs C. "necklace of Venus" D. seborrhea E. chancre A baby born to a mother with syphilis. How to determine if he was infected in utero: A. determine specific IgM in the child's blood B. perform skin allergy test C. determine specific IgA in the child's blood D. determine the level of IgE in the child's blood E. determine the toxin of the pathogen Secondary syphilis is characterized by: A. allergic reactions B. nauseas C. symptoms of lesions of the nervous system D. rashes on the skin and mucous membranes E. formation of the chancre The main factor of pathogenicity of chlamydia: A. acid resistance B. anti phagocytic activity C. the lipopolysaccharide of the cell wall D. toxin with a membrane-damaging mechanism of action E. enterotoxin Chlamydia is cultivated: A. on simple nutrient media B. on serum agar C. in chicken embryo D. in the body of insect vectors E. in anaerostat The main factor of pathogenicity of chlamydia: A. acid resistance B. anti phagocytic activity C. the lipopolysaccharide of the cell wall D. toxin with a membrane-damaging mechanism of action E. enterotoxin Which of the following is a common specimen used for the diagnosis of sexually transmitted chlamydial infections that occur in both men and women? A. Oral swab B. Cerebrospinal fluid C. Skin biopsy  D. Sputum E. Urine Express diagnosis of urogenital chlamydia is as follows: A. enzyme immunoassay B. cultivation of chlamydia C. complement fixation reaction D. infection of laboratory animals E. immunofluorescence reaction For the cultivation of mycoplasmas in the nutrient medium is added: A. B lactams B. aminoglycosides C. macrolides D. tetracyclines E. glycopeptides Urogenital mycoplasmosis of pregnant women leads to: A. stillbirth B. creation of passive immunity in the fetus C. development of heart defects D. development of the Hutchinson triad E. teratogenic effect has not Type of respiration of urogenital mycoplasmas: A. obligate anaerobe B. psychrophile C. microaerophile D. facultative anaerobe E. capnophile The respiration type of mycobacterium tuberculosis: A. aerobic B. anaerobic C. capnophile  D. microaerophile E. aerotolerant The scientist who discovered mycobacterium tuberculosis: A. L.Pasteur B. R.Koch C. A.Hansen D. D.Ivanovsky E. R.Gallo What kind of colony are formed by tuberculosis bacteria in Lowenstein- Jensen medium: A. S-shaped, convex surface B. M-shaped, colored C. R form, dry pigment D. Black color, smooth edge E. S-shaped, dry pigment Eugonic growth (rapid and relatively luxuriant) on Lowenstein-Jensen medium is a characteristic of: A. M.bovis B. M. leprae C. M.microti D. M.caprae E. M.tuberculosis Humans become infected by M.tuberculosis commonly by: A. Contact B. Ingestion C. Inoculation D. Inhalation E. Sexual Which of the following bacteria of tuberculosis require/s microaerophilic environment for primary isolation? A. M.tuberculosis B. M.bovis C. M. leprae D. M.microti E. M.caprae BCG vaccine is: A. Attenuated vaccine B. Killed vaccine C. Toxoid D. Chemical vaccine E. Recombinant vaccine The main factor of pathogenicity of tuberculosis bacteria is caused by the presence of: A. exotoxin B. enterotoxin C. capsule D. F-factor E. cord factor BCG vaccine: A. live bacteria attenuated by transmission to animals B. creates short immunity C. attenuated for a long time in glycerol-bile-potato medium D. introduced during revaccination of tuberculosis-positive children E. administered intravenously Which immunity plays a major role in pathogenesis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. Cell mediated immunity B. Humoral immunity C. Local immunity  D. Passive immunity E. Placental immunity When tuberculosis infection causes sensitization of the body: A. cord factor B. sulfatides C. tuberculin D. glycerin E. exotoxin Tuberculin: A. derived from microbes and toxins B. it is used to treatment C. it is used for specific prevention D. consists of living bacteria E. obtained from the filtrate of the broth culture of mycobacteria How to administer the BCG vaccine to prevent tuberculosis: A. intravenously B. intradermally C. subcutaneously D. intranasal E. intramuscularly Staining method tuberculosis bacteria: A. Ziehl-Neelsen B. Burri-Ginsa C. Albert D. Neisser E. Gram Name the causative agent of leprosy: A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis  C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Mycobacterium bovis E. Mycobacterium africanum Mycobacterium leprosy: A. in the form of an embroidered handkerchief B. in the form of straight curved sticks C. in the form of lanceolate cocci D. in the form of cigarettes in a box E. in the form of a drop of mercury Source of leprosy infection: A. water and food B. rodents C. animals D. poultry E. sick person The causative agent of the plague belongs to the family: A. Brucellaceae B. Micrococcoceae C. Lactobacillaceae D. Enterobacteriaceae E. Mycobacteriaceae The causative agent of plague belongs to the genus: A. Shigella B. Klebsiella C. Yersinia D. Legionella E. Borditella Immunity in the plague:  A. Not resistant B. Lifelong C. Relatively resistant D. Antivirus E. Virus neutralizing Bubo is: A. cellular infiltrate, result of hypersensitivity reactions B. abscess of the lung C. inflamed lymph node D. phlegmon in the maxillofacial region E. felon (panaritium) The coloring feature of the plague pathogen: A. grains of volutin are revealed at the poles when stained according to Neisser B. gram-negative bipolar stained C. gram-positive acid resistant D. not stained with simple aniline dyes E. when stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa have a pale pink color The pathogenic factor of the plague pathogen: A. hemagglutinin B. coagulase C. hyaluronidase D. pesticin E. cytochromes Plague is transmitted to man by bite of infected: A. Sandfly B. Hard tick C. Mite  D. Mice E. Rat flea Who first identified and studied the causative agent of brucellosis: A. Mechnikov B. Bruce C. Koch D. Borde E. Pasteur Brucellin is: A. Vaccine of brucellosis B. Live vaccine of brucellosis C. Xenobiotic D. Associated vaccine of brucellosis E. Allergen for Burne test Wright's reaction shows: A. Precipitin B. Complement-binding antibodies C. Agglutinogenes D. Sedimentation E. Hemolysins When brucellosis is infected by an alimentary route, the most dangerous are: A. water B. vegetables C. fish products D. milk, cheese E. bird Wright's reaction is used in diagnosis:  A. Brucellosis B. Tularensis C. Dysentery D. Salmonellosis E. Tuberculosis Specific prevention of brucellosis: A. Eubiotics B. Bacteriophage C. Live vaccine D. Killed vaccine E. Toxoid Rose Bengal test (Heddelson) reaction is used in the diagnosis of brucellosis in: A. bacteriocarriers B. detection of allergy C. phage typing D. neutralization reactions E. mass outbreak Immunity in tularemia: A. antitoxic B. unstable C. non-sterile D. short E. strong immunity The causative agent of tularemia belongs to the genus: A. Brucella B. Bordetella C. Francisella D. Streptococcus E. Staphylococcus With the contact route of infection, tularemia develops: A. Eyes-bubonic form of infection B. Intestinal form of infection C. Septic form of infection D. Pulmonary form of infection E. Generalized form of infection According to the type of respiration, the causative agent of tularemia refers to: A. Aerobes B. Anaerobes C. Facultative aerobes D. Microaerophiles E. Facultative anaerobes The source of tularemia infection is: A. amphibians B. monkey C. horses D. rodents E. birds With the alimentary route of infection, what form of the tularemia develops: A. Pulmonary form of infection B. Intestinal form of infection C. Septic form of infection D. Cutaneous form infection E. Generalized form of infection Specific prophylaxis of tularemia: A. Toxoid B. Killed vaccine  C. Phages D. Live vaccine E. Chemical vaccine For microbiological diagnosis of tularemia use: A. Microscopy of blood smears B. Widal's reaction C. Burne test D. Dick's test E. Biological assay For emergency prophylaxis in anthrax is used: A. Bacteriophage B. Live vaccine STI C. Killed vaccine D. Chemical vaccine E. Anthrax immunoglobulin When airborne transmission of anthrax occurs: A. Pulmonary form B. Intestinal form C. Bubonic form D. Septic form E. Cutaneous form Colonies of the causative agent of anthrax resemble: A. Lace handkerchief B. Droplets of mercury C. Shagreen skin D. Medusa head appearance E. Droplets of dew On an medium with penicillin, the agent of anthrax in the smear reminds: A. The lion's head B. Medusa head appearance C. Pearl necklace D. Mace E. Seagull The source of infection in anthrax is mainly: A. Fleas B. Animals C. Tongs D. Only person E. Food Immunity with anthrax: A. Not resistant B. Persistent C. Relatively resistant D. Not sterile E. Antivirus Specific prophylaxis of anthrax: A. Anthrax toxoid B. Anti-anthrax phage C. Bacteriolysin D. Antifagins E. Live vaccine STI The causative agent of anthrax belongs to the family: A. Bacillaceae B. Micrococcoceae C. Enterobacteriaceae D. Brucellaceae  E. Mycobacteriaceae Anthrax belongs to the genus: A. Shigella B. Klebsiella C. Borditella D. Bacillus E. Legionella In stained preparations, the anthrax pathogen resembles: A. tennis racket B. bamboo cane C. mace D. mycelium E. seagull According to morphology, the causative agent of anthrax is: A. vibrios B. cocci C. streptobacillus D. spirochetes E. spirillas Specific prevention of anthrax is carried out by: A. anthrax immunoglobulin B. anthrax anatoxin C. anthax phages D. bacteriolysin E. antipyrine The pathogenicity of anthrax is caused by factors: A. adhesion, colonization, enterotoxin production B. invasion, histamine-sensitizing factor, endotoxin C. endotoxin, fatty acids of the cell wall  D. exotoxin, edema factor and protective antigen E. tetanospasmin and tetanolysin For the Express diagnosis of anthrax is used: A. Ascoli’s test B. Bacterioscopic method C. Bacteriological method D. Microscopy in the dark field of view E. Complement fixation reaction