Brainstorming.pdf

 JUNE 2024 BRAINSTORMING MANILA 1. The therapist palpates the wrist extensor muscles proximally reaching the origin at the_____. A. Glenohumeral head Lat. Epicondyle Wrist Ext Proxim...

 JUNE 2024 BRAINSTORMING MANILA 1. The therapist palpates the wrist extensor muscles proximally reaching the origin at the_____. A. Glenohumeral head Lat. Epicondyle Wrist Ext Proximal = B. Lateral epicondyle. C. Medial epicondyle D. Radial tuberosity 2. Which of the following statements is true concerning muscles acting in- - hip flexion? - A. The hip flexors are inactive during abdominal sit-ups - - O B. Their maximum isometric torques are greatest when the hip is extended - - - C. The iliopsoas is the only hip flexor that can produce enough tension to flex the hip beyond 90 degrees with the subject in a sitting position D. Their minimum isotonic torque occurs when the hip is flexed 3. The enterogastric reflex is elicited by: Enterogastric I. Gastrin - - II. Secretin Secretin III. Duodenal distension P cidity - istention IV. Duodenal acidity -- V. Duodenal alkalinity A. I, III, and IV B. I, III, IV, and V C. II, III, and IV D. II, III, and V  E. II and III only Paraplegia ; Push-up = Concentric ; Pushing 4. The patient has paraplegia and is required to do push-ups. What type of exercise should be performed by this patient? A. Concentric contraction from pushing the body up from the seat B. Eccentric contraction from lowering the body down to the seat C. Eccentric contraction from pushing the body up from the seat D. Concentric contraction from lowering the body down to the seat 5. Tumors of the cells responsible for insulin production result in. A. Low blood glucose Tumors ; Insulin B. High blood glucose Low blood glucose C. Low blood pressure = D. High blood pressure 6. Which of the following causes meningitis? A. Staphylococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus meningitis : pneumoniae C. Staphylococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus meningous 7. Smallest organism that causes illness? A. Virus B. Bacteria smallest organism : Virus C. Fungi D. Protozoa12 8. Medications for acute gout: A. Colchicine  B. Allopurinol *cute Gout : NSAIDS C. NSAIDs D. DMARDs 9. The gastro ileal reflex is stimulated when food enters the: A. Duodenum B. Stomach Gastro lleal reflex Stomach : C. Ileum D. Fundus 10. Thermal and cold receptors are both sensitive to heat. This is because of the principle of: A. Projection heat Cold sensitive to B. Adaptation Stimuli C. Adequate stimuli Adequate = D. Specific nerve energy 11. To reduce airway resistance. · Reduce Resistance A. Decrease airway diameter and length B. Decrease airway diameter Increase diameter C. Increase airway diameter and length decrease D. Increase airway diameter and length 12. Which of the following would not cause a pressure ulcer when sitting on a wheelchair? A. Heel Highest Radius of Pressure * SUPINE * Sitting ulcer B. Elbow - Ischium Sacrum - Spinous process Greater trochanter - - C. Scapula - Heels - tuberosity Ischial Sacrum/cocyx D. Ischium - - Heels 13. A therapist instructs a patient how to fall safely to the floor when using axillary crutches. Which of the following should be the first to occur in the case of a forward fall? A. reach towards the floor  B. turn your face towards one side C.oRelease the crutches D. flex the trunk and head 14. A therapist instructs a patient with a unilateral amputation to ascend and descend stairs. Which amputation level would you expect to have the most difficulty performing the described task? * the higher level the A. transmetatarsal of amputation more difficult in ascend to LE , the B. transtibial & descend stairs C. Transtibial MCM Transfemoral D. Symes 15. The medical record indicates a patient has been diagnosed with chronic respiratory alkalosis. The most consistent Ch Respi Alkalosis.. laboratory finding with this condition is: A. elevated arterial blood pH, low PaCO2 ↑ pH ↓ PaCO2 , B. low arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2 C. elevated arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2 D. low arterial blood pH, low PaCO2 16. A patient reports to therapy with a diagnosis of idiopathic scoliosis. During the examination, the patient reports wearing a Milwaukee brace for the past two years. The most likely extent of the patient's spinal curvature is: A. 5 - 15 degrees Milwaukee B. 10 - 25 degrees Idiopathic Scolio ; C. 20 - 45 degrees = 20 450 - D. 40 - 60 degrees 17. Which of the following prevents pneumonia in a non- ambulatory patient? Ted side sitting A. chest tapping 3 times a day B. bed side sitting  C. wheelchair mob D. spirometer 18. Hyperbaric oxygen is used for: dse Hyperbar-terial. A. Arterial disease · B. Venous disease C. Wounds from insect bites D. Burn 19. Paraplegia wheelchair to mat transfer with fair UE strength. A. sliding board B. two-man lift Paraplegia ; WC to Mat w/ FAIR UE C. one-man lift > - one-man lift 20. A patient presents with compensated right thoracic scoliosis, and left lumbar scoliosis. Which of the following would be R Thoracic expected? O L Lumbar A. Gibbus deformity on the ® thoracic region Gibbus R - = B. Gibbus deformity on the (L) thoracic region - C. Prominent (L) chest D. Higher (L) shoulder C 21. A status post CVA patient with right hemiparesis, attends - therapy on an outpatient basis. As the patient lies supine on the - mat, the therapist applies resistance to right elbow flexion - the O therapist notes mass flexion on the right LE as the resistance - applied. The therapist should document this as: A. Soque's Phenomenon B. Raimiste's Phenomenon C. Homolateral synkinesis - D. Sterling’s phenomenon - acting? 0 22. During what phase of gait is the iliopsoas concentrically =  Iliopsoas Accelaration A. Heel strike to foot flat Concentrically ; B. Midstance to heel off C. Toe off to Acceleration D. Acceleration to mid-swing 23. Displacement of what bone can cause carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Triquetrum B. Scaphoid CTS-lunate C. Hamate " D. Lunate Carpal-unate 24. Data that has the capacity to vary once certain limits have been imposed. A. Degree of freedom B. Coefficient of concordance beg. of freedom C. P value certain limits imposed D. T value - 25. What is the temp of a cold contrast bath in Fahrenheit? A. 45-55 B. 55-65 % 55-65 F C. 10-25 D. 25-45 Cold contrast bath 26. Aside from buoyancy and hydrostatic pressure, which of the following applies to aquatic therapy, except? ADHESION A. Hydrodynamics /Hydromechanics turbulence - B. cohesion ability - of water stick molecule to molecule to another C. adhesion ability of - molecule to water another stick to substance D. surface tension Form resistance - of 27. A patient in a pool with a floater is moved to a vertical position. Where is the greatest hydrostatic pressure? ↳ FEET  A. Hip * can reduce edema and assist Venous return B. Torso * as the depth of water increases C. Feet so is the hydrostatic pressure D. neck 28. A manual therapy advocate that emphasizes pain-range spasm, continual assessment, and adverse neural mobilization. A. Mckenzie - Extension ; centralizes pain B. William's - Flexion C. Maitland McKenzie pain range spasm - D. Kaltenborn adverse neural mob. 29. An embryonic structure that some people may possess throughout life & can possibly cause irritation in the knee. A. Ligamentum flavum B. Ligamentum nuchae Embryonic structure C. Plica plica - 30. Location of norepinephrine receptors. A. cytoplasm Loc. Norepinephrine B. plasma membrane acetylcholine epinephrine - , - Playma Mem C. cytosol D. soma 31. A short big toe or first metatarsal is known as: A. Dudley's B. Morton's short big Toe/1st MTT C. Kohler's D. Pfister's Morton's = 32. What type of cancer has the worst prognosis? A. Breast cancer Worst Prognosis B. Lung cancer / Pancreatic C. Thyroid cancer Lung/Pancreatic ~  D. Cervical cancer 33. Dislocations of the shoulder, except: A. Lateral X B. Anterior C. Posterior D. Inferior G 34. A child with congenital deformity in the UE just underwent surgery, what is NOT an appropriate intervention in the early - stages? - A. Limb protection - B. Scar management - C. Wound management - D. Coordination improvement (Jubacute chronic) - to - 35.Muscle found in the posterior thigh, except: A. Semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus Ms.in Post · Thigh C. Popliteus Semimem ~ D. Rectus femoris - Poplites - semitend. 36. How do we determine the maximum length of the pronator teres? -- - C >assive insufficiency / Elbow fiex pron. + A. Elbow flexion and supination Biceps brachii SH flexion Elbow v : , , B. Elbow extension and supination - - supination C. Elbow extension and pronation Max length SH : hyperextension , D. Elbow flexion and pronation elbow pronation ext , MSK nerve results in loss of 37. Lesion or injury to the ________ elbow flexion. A. Anterior interosseus B. Musculocutaneous C. Radial  D. Posterior interosseus 38. Perceptual problems includes distortion of the following, - - EXCEPT A. related to self and environment B. one's physical body O C. ability to communicate - - 39. Not used for diagnosing heart disease. A. ECG X B. MRI C. Serum Glutamic Oxalo-Acetic Transaminase D. Creatine photo kinase 40. The patient has DVT and was administered a thrombolytic. What will the thrombolytic agent activate? A. Plasminogen B. Thrombinogen DVT-Thrombolytic : Plasminogen C. Kininogen D. Heparin 41. The patient has lateral epicondylitis and his therapist decided to treat him with iontophoresis. What is the best current to use? A. Circumferential Lateral Epi- Contophores's > B. Pulsed C. Alternating => Direct current D. Direct ~ Monophasic/ Direct constant & 42. Bending of the stereocilia towards the kinocilium of the hair cells results in - - - - A. Release of less excitatory transmitters - O B. Release of more excitatory transmitters C. Transmission of sound D. Muffling of sound 43. Opioid side effect. A. Dry mouth B. Hypertension C. Constipation D. Decreased BP or pulse 44. Ultraviolet radiation within this range will cause an antirachitic effect is _______ 2800 3130 - A. 2400-3000 B. 4600-4970 C. 3,000 - 4,000 D. 3600-3900 Motivating Factors 45. Herzberg theory. 1) Achievement 2) Recognition A. Policies and Administration ) 3 Work ( ? ) Itself 4.) Responsibility B. Open communication 5) Advancement C. Salary and benefits Hygiene factor - ) s ) Growth D. Achievement - motivating factor under 1 : 2 46. What is the Galvanic to Tetanus muscle twitch ratio? A. 1:2 1 5 : higher or B. 1:1 C. 6-8:1 D. 10-12:1 47. The therapist palpates the jugular vein of a patient in a sitting position for 30 seconds and asks him to cough. This is known as what test? A. Hautant’s test B. Vertebral artery test ↳ Angular vein then cough 48. Which of the following are included in history taking? A. newspaper THA  B. third person - C. summary of books D. Journals 49. A patient with vestibular problems was referred to therapy. - - Evaluation revealed spontaneous nystagmus that can be minimized by visual fixation, oscillopsia, and loss of gaze stabilization. & exercises of UVB A.C Acute unilateral vestib dysfunction stability Gaze - - - stability postural - B. Meniere's Habituation - C. BPPV D. Acoustic neuroma 50. Continuous nystagmus resolves with visual stability, (+) head tilt, wide BOS gait. A. BPPV B. Unilateral VB - C. Meniere's disease 51. Factors of festinating gait that can be seen in Parkinson's - Disease, EXCEPT? - A. Increased short steps B. Increases cadence Testinating steps C Cadence C. Increased arm sway ~ 52. Patient cannot remember events after MVA. A. Canterograde amnesia B. retrograde amnesia long ~ term memory 53. Mechanism of injury of medial meniscus injury: A. Internal rotation of femur, internal rotation of tibia IRFERT B. Internal rotation of femur, external rotation of tibia C. External rotation of femur, internal rotation of tibia D. External rotation of femur, external rotation of tibia 54. A patient withOADHD is expected to have, EXCEPT. A. Increased risk of musculoskeletal injury B. Increased risk in motor vehicle accidents secondary to recklessness driving C. Increased risk of developingOAlzheimer'sO - Disease D. Increase chances of developing behavioral - disruptions which could lead to antisocial personality 55. What is the medication for Major depressive disorder? A. Lithium B. Metoprolol C. Propranolol D. Fluoxetine - 56. The Diagnostic Manual, DSM5-TR, Dementia is classified as impairment of ______. A. Memory B. Cognitive functions C. Psychosocial functions 57. Most common form of anxiety is? A. Social anxiety B. Generalized anxiety C. Panic D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder 58. After THR, what is the usual protocol followed? A. Early weight bearing as tolerated B. Surgeon’s protocol C. Non-weight bearing for 6 weeks 59. Which of the following motions is restricted in total hip arthroplasty, anterolateral approach  A. Abduction and external rotation B. Adduction and external rotation C. Internal rotation D. External rotation 60. Patient has LBP and jokes about his own wellness. But after seeing no improvement, becomes angry to the therapist A. Displacement transfers emotional - entity/person burden to another else impulses B. Projection attributing inner to someone - adaptive one's own psychosocial development of C. Regression adapting - behavior one's levels D. Repression subconsciously blocking ideas/impulses that - undesirable are 61. You have a patient with adhesive capsulitis. Upon checking the patient’s chart, you saw that he’s also diagnosed with psychoneuroses. What condition can be associated with this patient? A. Manic-depressive d/o B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Schizoaffective 62. Head trauma: unable to bathe herself, dress independently. A. Indirect Impairment B. Composite impairment Impairment something - to do with level the structure/functional C. Disability D. Handicap 63. Dandy Walker syndrome is : Malformation : affects the problem of cerebellum & motor balance A. A cerebral problem , Coordination B. A cerebellar problem C. A spinal cord problem D. A brainstem problem 64. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess. A. Levels of Consciousness B. Levels of Function C. Levels of Cognition D. Disability 65. Poor prognosis for patients with ALS. A. Upper motor neuron symptoms are more predominant than lower motor neuron symptoms B. Common among 25 years old C. There is a short period between the onset of symptoms and the time of its diagnosis D. bulbar/pulmonary dysfunction appear early at the clinical course of the disease 66. Patient has a dramatic, colorful, and attention-seeking behavior. A. Narcissistic Personality B. OCD C. Histrionic personality D. Factitious disorder 67. The patient has an extreme need to impose their own standards, to observe perfectionism, order, and neatness. A. Narcissistic personality B. OCPD C. Histrionic personality D. Factitious disorder 68. Characterized by an abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort. A. Generalized anxiety B. Panic disorder C. PTSD  D. Phobia 69. Neurotransmitter most commonly associated with depression. A. Dopamine B. Serotonin C. Glutamine D. Ach 70. 1 week manic episode, at least 2 weeks major depressive episode. A. Schizo B. Bipolar 1 C. Bipolar 2 D. Bipolar 3 71. What do you expect in an old male patient? A. Increase in libido B. Loss of fertility C. Increase fertility D. Increase in incidence of erectile impotence 72. If the supraoptic nucleus is injured, what hormone is affected? A. ADH B. Oxytocin C. Growth hormone D. Prolactin 73. Which of the following passes through the lymph nodes, except? A. amino acid B. glucose C. Triglycerides  D. Bacteria 74. Total treatment time per day, 4 sessions/day, 30 mins/session, 5 days a week. A. 120 mins B. 140 mins C. 60 mins D. 20 mins 75. Fracture of the neck of the 5th Metacarpal. A. Jone’s fracture ~ 5th MCA B. Boxer’s fracture C. March fracture Ex of ~ 2nd Metatarsalshaft D. Iselin’s fracture~ a traction disease 76. Fracture of the base of the 1st MCP. A. Bennet’s fracture avulsion - B. Boxer’s fracture C. Mallet’s fracture DIP hyperflexed - D. Iselin’s fracture 77. The function of the soleus muscle, except: A. It is concerned with the stability of the ankle B. It is not related to forced plantarflexion C. Is a postural muscle D. It is more concerned with the stability of the ankle than gastrocnemius 78. Percentage of disc loading on L2-L3 during forward bending? A. 150% B. 200% C. 250% D. 100% 79. Inhibits synthesis of angiotensin II in the bloodstream and various tissues, and decreases angiotensin II mediated vasoconstriction and vascular structural changes: A. alpha adrenergic B. diuretics C. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors 80. What condition is most commonly seen in clinics or rehab? A. Status epilepticus B. Asthma encephalopathy C. Hypertensive crisis D. Alzheimer’s 81. Which of the following is the least likely symptom of a heart attack? A. Chest pain B. Abdominal pain C. SOB D. Headache 82. What is the right sequence? A. Sensation, Motor, Communication, Reception b. Communication, Reception, Sensation, Motor c. Motor, Communication, Sensation, Perception d. Communication, Sensation, Perception, Motor 83. Least common site of bursitis. A. Shoulder B. Elbow C. Glenohumeral joint D. SI joint 84. Location of substantia gelatinosa:  A. Dorsal column B. Lateral column C. Anterior horn D. Posterior horn 85. Which of the following presents with ptosis? (except?) A. Myasthenia Gravis If NO EXCEPT A B. 5th nerve paralysis , C. 3rd nerve paralysis D. Horner's syndrome 86. The following statements apply to the 7th cranial nerve, EXCEPT: A. Innervates the musculature of the face and the platysma B. The platysma is tested by pulling down the corners of the subject’s mouth C. Minor degrees of unilateral weakness are often best seen at rest or during expressional changes during conversation and in blinking D. This nerve via its division called the chorda tympani conveys the taste from the posterior tongue Aut 2/3 of tongue. e. The strength of the frontalis can be estimated by smoothing the wrinkles with the fingers 87. What can a 23-year-old female with complete T4 SCI do? EXCEPT , A. Can arouse while having intercourse (If EXCEPT no B. Can bear a child C. Can do psychogenic orgasm Sympa ~ D. Can do reflexogenic orgasm para - 88. A patient has acalculia, finger agnosia, agraphia where is the lesion? A. Cerebellum B. Parietal lobe  C. Frontal lobe D. Cerebrum 89. An individual is unable to recognize everyday objects and name them correctly. This is known as: A. Prosopagnosia B. Anomia C. Aphosonomia D. Agnosia 90. Autoimmune disease with ptosis: A. GBS B. PD C. MS D. MG 91. Injury to the basis pontis causes which of the following syndrome? A. Clumsy hand B. Wallenberg C. Lateral medullary D. Horner’s syndrome 92. A therapist instructs a patient diagnosed with C6 tetraplegia in functional activities. Which of the following activities would be least appropriate? A. independent raises for skin protection B. manual wheelchair propulsion C. assisted to independent transfers with a sliding board D. Independent self-range of motion of the lower extremities 93. Which of the following has an unrealistic functional ambulation.  A. T9 complete paraplegia B. Cauda equina critical 13 down C. Post cord * level ambulation - D. Brown Sequard 94. If you are rubbing salt to stimulate the taste receptors, you increase the sensitivity of the receptors for sweetness. This principle is known as _____________. A. Simultaneous Contrast * B. Accommodation C. Compensation D. Successive Contrast 95. What structure separates the cerebral cortex from the cerebellum? A. Falx cerebri B. Tentorium cerebelli C. Falx cerebelli D. Diaphragma sellae circular fold - of dura that forms the root of sella turnica 96. Most common treatment used in stroke: A. Shock therapy * Gold standard treatment B. Blood thinning medication for ischemic stroke is C. Potassium APA (tissue plasminogen D. Aerobic exercise Activator) 97. Type of fiber predominant in _____, sustained, gross actions/movements? A. Ia and Ib B. Ia C. Ib D. I 98. A patient was given sour, bitter, and spicy food. What cranial nerve is being tested? A. 11 B. 10 C. 6 D. 9 99. In degeneration of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord there would be: A. All of these B. Weakness & spasticity in legs C. Positive Babinski sign D. Positive Romberg’s sign 100. True in a right hemispheric stroke A. Language and/or speech disorder B. Right hemiparesis/hemiplegia C. Right facial hemi-sensory loss D. Impulsive, no insight into deficits  GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2023 TEST TAKING STRATEGIES AUGUST 1998 1. The following apply to anteromedial rotatory instability of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Anterior subluxation of the medial tibial condyle occurs with anteromedial rotatory subluxation b. May be accentuated by a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament c. Occurs with tears of the medial and lateral compartment ligaments d. Result of abduction stress test is positive with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion as is the result of the anterior drawer test with the tibia externally rotated e. Occurs with a tear of the medial compartment ligaments, including the posterior oblique ligament 8. The following statements describe true leg length discrepancy, EXCEPT: a. To determine true leg length discrepancy, measure the distance from the anterior superior iliac spines to the medial malleolus of the ankles b. With the subjects in supine with knees flexed to 90 degrees and feet flat on the table, if one knee appears higher than other, the femur of that extremity is longer c. With the subject in supine with knees flexed to 90 degrees and feet flat on the table, if one knee projects further anteriorly than the other, the femur of that extremity is longer d. A fracture that crossed the epiphyseal plate during childhood may result in true leg length discrepancy e. Measurement begins at the slight concavity must below the anterior superior iliac spine 15. The following statements are true in supracondylar and condylar fracture, EXCEPT: a. Traction is treatment of choice b. Traction is not indicated in this type of fracture c. For transverse or oblique fractures, and other fractures that aren’t complex, internal fixation may be used d. Rod, nail, plate or screws may be used as internal fixation device e. Internal fixation carries risk of damage to the sciatic or popliteal artery 35. Forward bending is a complex movement of combined lumbar and hip motion, and many of the tasks that occur during everyday activities require trunk flexion. The following statements apply to this movement, EXCEPT: a. Stretching short hamstring may affect lumbar motion during forward bending b. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the spine c. Short hamstring muscles, because of their attachment to the posterior leg and to the ischial tuberosity, may limit hip flexion ROM d. LBP could result from excessive lumbar motion due to their influence on lumbopelvic rhythm during forward bending e. Restricted hip motion is coupled with excessive lumbar motion 38. In radial nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT: a. Extension in drop-wrist position is due to tendon action, not active contraction b. Wrist drop develops c. Grip strength may be good if the wrist is supported in extension by means of a splint d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp 39. The following statements are true of the Stance Phase of gait, EXCEPT: a. A spike of bone protruding from the medial tubercle on the plantar surface of the os calcis may cause the subject to avoid heel strike completely. b. If the gluteus maximus is weakened, the subject must thrust his thorax posteriorly to maintain hip extension c. A flatfooted or calcaneal gait can result from the weakness of the gastrocnemius, soleus and flexor hallucis longus d. Problems in stance phase can cause the subject to walk with an antalgic gait e. A weakened gluteus medius forces the subject to lurch forward to the uninvolved side to place the center of gravity over the hip 66. The following statements describe care of knee extension mechanism injuries, EXCEPT: a. When using stationary bike, resistance should be kept low and a steady pace of about 20 mph maintained b. Running is encouraged because the biomechanical forces of running put great stress upon the extensor mechanism c. Flexion-to-extension motions or heavy resistance may aggravate these type of injuries d. Resistance for straight-leg-raises is kept to an upper limit of 6.8 kg. e. Hamstring stretching is useful in preventing over-compressions of the patella against the underlying bony surface 78. The following statements apply to cane selection, EXCEPT: a. To determine proper sizing, ask patient to stand with the cane’s tip 4” (10 cm) to the side of his foot, the cane should extend from the floor to his hip joint b. A rubber tip keeps the cane from slipping and helps prevent accident c. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 45 degree angle d. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 30 degree angle e. If he has poor balance, he’ll probably need a broad-based cane 109.The following statements are true of erythrocytes, EXCEPT: a. They are produced in red bone marrow and in the spleen and other lymphoid tissues b. A mature red cell is completely filled with hemoglobin, a high specialized compound of protein and iron c. These are formed in bone marrow where they pass through several stages before reaching maturity d. The life of an erythrocyte is about four months, and four million new cells every second of every minute must be produced.  GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2023 TEST TAKING STRATEGIES 110.The following statements apply to the common peroneal nerve, EXCEPT: a. Subject is able to walk on his toes and Achilles reflex is preserved b. Interruption of the nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of ankle and toes and in loss of eversion of the foot c. There is foot drop with hypotonia and atrophy of muscle but not sensory loss d. Received fibers from the L4, L5, S2, and S2 roots e. There is varying sensory loss along the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the foot FEBRUARY 1998 56. The following statements apply in combined anterolateral and anteromedial rotator instability, EXCEPT: a. Result of anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia in the neutral position b. Result of the abduction and adduction stress tests are positive with the knee in 30 degrees of flexion c. Result of anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia internally rotated d. Posterior cruciate ligament remains intact e. Occurs with tears of the middle third of the medial and lateral capsular ligaments 114.Ligament and capsular structures work as a system, interdependent and related to one another. Functional stability is provided by the following factors, EXCEPT: a. Joint geometry b. Active restraints generated by the muscles c. Passive restraints of the ligaments d. Passive restraints by muscles e. Joint compressive forces that occur with activity and force the joint together FEBRUARY 1999 92. The following statements are true of the shoulder joint, EXCEPT: a. The scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament b. An implication of the shoulder’s structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies on ligaments to provide adequate stability c. The ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion d. The joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing 2 to 3 cm. of distraction between articular surfaces e. The articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack congruity AUGUST 1998 2. The following statements characterize vibration syndrome, EXCEPT: a. Common symptoms include intermittent numbness and tingling in the fingers b. Exposure to cold will not trigger vasospasm in the fingers c. There is recurrent episode of finger blanching due to complete closure of digital arteries d. Condition is caused in part by forceful gripping prolonged use of vibrating tools e. Also referred to as white finger or Reynaud’s phenomenon 31. The following statements describe electrical stimulation (ES) in the treatment of chronic wounds, EXCEPT: a. ES involves the application of low-level, therapeutic dose of electricity directly into the wound b. Eliminates many microorganisms that might otherwise inhibit or prevent healing c. ES is not an alternative treatment for a wound that has shown only slow or minimal improvement d. ES is the first alternative treatment for a wound that has not responded to traditional care e. Promotes healing by enhancing tissue proliferation and repair 53. Transfer training after open reduction internal fixation are as follows, EXCEPT: a. If the lower extremities are too weak or painful to be lifted as transfer progresses, wheelchair leg rests are fully elevated to maintain a long sitting position with the knees extended b. The subject is instructed to push with the arms on the supporting surface in order to raise the hips and begin moving to the transfer surface c. Depending on the comfort and ease of the transfer, transfer training may be accomplished with or without a sliding board d. Subjects do not practice wheelchair mobility e. Legs are pulled along with the hips as subjects move 104.The following statements are true of laminectomy, EXCEPT: a. Involved a surgical removal of a portion of the lamina b. Spinal fusion may be performed along with laminectomy for additional vertebral stability. c. The protruding disc fragments are removed to relieve pressure on the nerve root. d. Spinal fusion can only be performed in laminectomy. e. In laminectomy with spinal fusion, the spine is reinforced by using bone chips or inserting a metallic rod, screw or plate.  GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2023 TEST TAKING STRATEGIES FEBRUARY 1998 99. Fat embolism is a common complication of long- bone fractures or surgery, or multiple fractures. The following statements apply to fat embolism, EXCEPT: a. Does not affect the central nervous system b. If signs and symptoms worsen, the patient may require endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation c. Severe cases may lead to coma and death; however, signs and symptoms may remain subtle and undetected d. Signs and symptoms usually occur within 24-72 hours following fracture or surgery, but may appear to 7 to 10 days after it e. An accumulation of fat particles (emboli) which obstruct blood flow and cause inflammatory reactions around affected blood vessels 136.The following signs and symptoms generally accompany a fracture, EXCEPT: a. Deformity but no shortening in the injured area b. Decreases of complete loss of muscle power in the injured areas c. Localized discoloration and edema d. Presence of grafting sound when testing for ROM during assessment e. Presence of crepitation during skin palpation AUGUST 1998 3. Patellofemoral pain (PFP) is a prominent knee complains. The following describes the mechanism most widely thought to cause PFP, EXCEPT: a. Abnormal patellar tracking which can lead to excessive strain on both prepatellar retinacular supports and the articular cartilage b. The vastus lateralis is hypothesized to contract simultaneously as the vastus medialis oblique muscle rather than earlier c. Asynchronous timing of vastus muscle contraction has been postulated to contribute to patellar instability d. A hypothesis suggests that there is an imbalance between the primary dynamic patellar stabilizers, resulting in lateral tracking and malalignment e. The lateral pull of the vastus lateralis muscle is not adequately counteracted by the medial pull of the vastus medialis oblique muscle FEBRUARY 1998 83. The following apply to posterolateral rotator instability of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Caused by a momentary anterior subluxation of the lateral tibial plateau on the lateral femoral condyle b. External rotational recurvatum test is positive because there is excessive hyperextension of the tibia on the femur, with excessive external rotation c. The mechanism of injury is usually a direct blow to the knee from an anteromedial direction d. Resultant injury is characterized by a posterolateral drawer sign e. Injury results in a lesion to the arcuate ligament complex, the popliteal tendon, the fibular collateral ligament, and the lateral head of the gastrocnemius FEBRUARY 1999 194. The following statements describe cumulative trauma disorders, EXCEPT: a. May be related to a single episode incident b. The posture maintained by the worker – including the length of time sustained must be addressed in conjunction with the repetitious motion c. A relatively minor stress, one which has been imposed and successfully sustained numerous times in the past, can result in a significant breakdown of the system d. A combination or series of stresses applied over a period of time from which adequate recovery does not occur.  GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2023 TEST TAKING STRATEGIES FISH AND FEATHER 1. All of the following are true about the carrying angle, except: I. It is more pronounced in females II. It is evident when the elbow is fully flexed III. It disappears when the elbow is fully extended IV. It is more frequent than cubitus varus V. Normal values: 5 to 19 degrees a. I, II, III, V d. III, IV, V b. II, III, V e. I, III, V c. II, III, IV 2. The lateral most structures found at the dorsal compartment of the wrist are: I. APL IV. ECRB II. EPB V. ED III. ECRL VI. ECU a. I, III d. I, II b. I, IV e. I, VI c. I, V 3. Which of the following describe intrinsic plus position? I. MCP flexion II. Interossei and lumbricals are shortened III. Often found in rheumatoid arthritis IV. IP extension a. I, II, III d. IV b. I, III e. I, II, III, IV c. II, IV 4. The cranial nerves that innervate the extraocular muscles: I. III III. V II. IV IV. VI a. I, II, III d. I, IV b. I, II, IV e. all of these c. II, III, IV 5.The following statements are TRUE about the latissimus dorsi: I. Innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6 C7 C8) II. Can act as a hip hiker III. Works with the teres minor in all of its functions IV. Is a string abductor and internal rotator of the arm V. Is capable of scapular depression and pelvic elevation a. All are correct b. I, II, III and IV are correct c. I, III and IV are correct d. I, II and V are correct e. I, III, and V are correct 6. In the gait cycle, the following are correct except: I. Stance phase makes up 60% II. Swing phase makes up 40% III. There are two periods of double support IV. As the velocity of gait increases the stride length increases V. Double leg stance disappears in running a. All of these b. Only IV c. I, II, III d. II, IV and V e. None of these  GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2023 TEST TAKING STRATEGIES 7. Several muscles in the body have dual innervations, which is innervated by more than one nerve. Which of the following muscles do not have dual innervations? I. FDP II. FPB III. Lumbricals IV. FCU a. All are correct b. I, III c. I, II, III d. II, IV e. Only IV 8. The following are intrinsic muscles of the hand, except: I. Abductor pollicis brevis II. Flexor pollicis brevis III. Palmaris brevis IV. Extensor pollicis brevis a. All of these d. only IV b. I, III e. I, II, III c. II, IV 9. Which of the following is/are not true about the trapezius muscles? I. Its nerve supply is the CN11 plus C3, C4 spinal nerve II. Its insertion is onto the anterior border, medial 1/3 of the clavicle, lateral margin of the acromion process, and inferior lip of the posterior border of the spine of the scapula III. Its bilateral action on the head is extension IV. It rotates the glenoid cavity of the scapula downward a. I, II, III are correct b. II and IV are correct c. All are correct d. All are incorrect 10. The following cranial nerves is affected in myasthenia gravis: I. Occulomotor II. Trochlear III. Abducens IV. Facial a. I, II, III are correct d. all are correct b. Only IV e. all are incorrect c. I, III 11.Lesion of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus affects the following muscles, except: I. Deltoid II. Subscapularis III. Teres minor IV. Supraspinatus a. All are correct b. Only IV c. I, II, III d. All are incorrect e. I, III 12. The following are manifestations of a common peroneal nerve injury, except: I. Paralysis of anterior and lateral compartment muscles of the leg II. Steppage gait III. Complete sensory loss of the 1st dorsal web space IV. Hypesthesia of medial aspect of leg and plantar aspect of the foot a. All of these b. Only IV c. I, II and III d. II, IV e. None of these  GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2023 TEST TAKING STRATEGIES 13. Manual muscles testing for Sartorius the lower extremity is placed into a position of? I. Lateral rotation of the hip II. Hip abduction III. Hip flexion IV. Knee flexion a. All of these d. I, II, III b. None of these e. II, IV c. I, II, III 14. During a postural examination of a patient with a right thoracic scoliotic curve, the therapist should find that the: I. Ribs are pushed anteriorly on the right II. Paraspinal muscles are tight on the right III. Scapula is prominent on the left IV. Spinous processes are rotated to the left a. Only IV d. I, II, III b. All are correct e. II, IV c. All are incorrect 15. Type C fibers: I. Are small fibers II. Are unmyelinated fibers III. Are slow-conducting fibers IV. Are chronic pain fibers a. All are incorrect d. II, IV b. I, II, III e. all are correct c. Only IV 16. The long head of the biceps tendon is: I. Intracapsular II. Intrasynovial III. Extrasynovial IV. Extracapsular a. I, III d. only IV b. II, IV e. all of these c. I, II, III 17. Features of the sympathetic nervous system: I. Fight or flight response II. Short preganglionic fibers III. Norepinephrine as the post-ganglionic neurotransmitters IV. Central nuclei in cranial and spinal portions of the spinal cord a. I, II, III d. I, III b. All of these e. II, IV c. Only IV 18. The following are correct statements about the cubital fossa: I. The lateral boundary is the brachialis II. The medial boundary is the pronator teres III. The superior boundary is an imaginary line between the two humeral condyles IV. Contains the median nerve, brachial artery, biceps tendon and the radial nerve a. All are correct b. I, II and III c. II, IV d. I, III e. All are incorrect  GOLD RANK REVIEW CENTER DECEMBER 2023 TEST TAKING STRATEGIES 19. Contained inside the tunnel of guyon: I. Ulnar Nerve II. Median Nerve III. Ulnar Artery IV. Radial Artery a. I, III b. II, IV c. All of these d. I, II, III e. Only IV 20. Which of the following describe intrinsic minus position? I. MCP flexion II. Inetrossei and lumbricals are shortened III. Often found in rheumatoid arthritis IV. IP extension a. I, II, III b. I, III c. II, IV d. All of these e. None of these 21. The following are determinants of gait, except: I. Knee flexion in stance II. Knee, ankle and foot rotation III. Pelvic rotation IV. Medial displacement of the pelvis a. I, II, III b. All are correct c. I, III d. II, IV e. Only IV 22. The most appropriate positions to stretch the radial nerve is: I. Shoulder flexion II. Elbow extension III. Wrist extension IV. Wrist flexion a. I, III b. II, IV c. All are correct d. I, II, III e. Only IV 23. Which of the following are TRUE of the palmar aponeurosis? I. The Palmaris Longus inserts into this triangular fibrous sheet that occupies the palm of the hand II. It protects underlying structures and prevents the palm of the hand from being readily pinched III. The aponeurosis is present only when the Palmaris longus is present IV. Allow the palm of the hand to be readily pinched V. The aponeurosis is present even when the Palmaris longus is absent a. I, III and IV b. II and V only c. I and II only d. I, II and V e. II, III and IV