Biophysics 2nd AVN Answer Key PDF

Министерство образования и науки Кыргызской Республики Ошский государственный университет Международный медицинский факультет Кафедра естественных наук и математики **«Утверждено» «Согласовано»** на заседании кафедры ЕНМ председатель УМС ММФ прот. №\_\_\_\_от \_\_\_\_\_\_2024г. к.э.н., доц. А....

Министерство образования и науки Кыргызской Республики Ошский государственный университет Международный медицинский факультет Кафедра естественных наук и математики **«Утверждено» «Согласовано»** на заседании кафедры ЕНМ председатель УМС ММФ прот. №\_\_\_\_от \_\_\_\_\_\_2024г. к.э.н., доц. А.М.Базиева зав. каф. А.Ы.Курбаналиев\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Фонд тестовых заданий предназначен для контроля знаний студентов направления 560001 «Лечебное дело GM» по дисциплине «Медицинская биофизика» на 2024-2025 учебный год Курс -1 Сетка часов по учебному плану +--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+ | Наимен | Всего | Ауд. | Аудит. | СРС | Отчетн | | | |. | | зан. | зан. | | ость | | | | | | | | | | | | | дисцип | | | | | | | | | -лины, | | | | | | | | | семест | | | | | | | | | р | | | | | | | | +--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+ | | | | лекции | лаб. | | 1,2сем | 1,2 | | | | | | | |. | сем. | +--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+ | Мед. | 120ч | 48ч | 20ч | 28ч | 72ч | РК-2 | Экз. | | | | | | | | | | | биофиз | (4кр) | | | | | | | | ика | | | | | | | | +--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+ | 1,2сем | 120 | 48 | 20 | 28 | 72 | РК-2 | Экз. | |. | | | | | | | | +--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+--------+ Составили: д. ф-м.н., проф. Курбаналиев А.Ы., к.п.н., доц. Алиева Ч.М., к.ф-м.н., ст.преп. Баатыров Р.Т. Ош- 2024 г. 1. For what all purposes is diathermy principal used? a. Surgical and Therapeutic b. Therapeutic and Diagnostic c. Diagnostic and surgical d. Diagnostic and rehabilitative 2. What surgical functions are performed by the diathermy machine? a. cutting, coagulation, fulguration b. cutting, fulguration c. cutting, coagulation d. coagulation, fulguration 3. The types of therapeutic diathermy machines that exist are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. Short wave, micro wave and ultrasound b. Short wave, ultrasound and cold compress c. Cold compress, microwave and electrical impulse d. Electrical impulse, microwave and ultrasound 4. Which of the diathermy machine is good for deep tissue healing? a. short wave b. ultrasound\ c) cold compress d\) electrical impulse 5\.  What is the frequency range of the sound used for ultrasound diathermy? a\) 0.1 -- 0.7 MHz b\) 0.7 -- 3.3 MHz c\) 3.3 -- 5 MHz d\) 5 -- 15 MHz 6\. What precaution is used in diathermy? a\) the patient is made to lie on a soft pillow b\) pads are used for grounding and completing the circuit c\) the patient is made to drink a large number of fluids d\) wooden blocks are used for grounding 7\. In heat wave diathermy, the maximum power given out is 500 W and the maximum voltage possible is 4000V. Thus, what is the highest resistance that heat wave diathermy machine can deal with? a\) 3.2 K ohm b\) 32 K ohm c\) 320 K ohm d\) 3200 K ohm 8\. Which of the following is used to measure the biological damage caused by radiation? a\) Curie b\) Rem c\) Rad d\) Roentgens 9\. Beyond what dose is the cerebral system shows signs of failure? a\) 25 -- 200 rad b\) 200 -- 600 rad c\) 600 -- 1000 rad d\) \> 1000 rad 10\. What is the relation between 1 Rad, 1 Rem and 1 R? a\) 1 Rad ≈ 1.5 Rem ≈ 1000 R b\) 1 Rad ≈ 10 Rem ≈ 1.8 R c\) 1 Rad ≈ 1 Rem ≈ 1 R d\) 1 Rad ≈ 10 Rem ≈ 100 R 11\. The two known units of radioactivity and the relation between the two are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a\) Curie and Becquerel 1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 Bq b\) Curie and Becquerel 1 Bq = 3.7 x 1010 Ci c\) Curie and Roentgens 1 Ci = 1000 R d\) Roentgen and Becquerel 1 R = 1000 Bq 12\. In a hypothetical radioactive material, the total number of active photons are 20000 and the decay constant is found out to be 4.916 X 10^-17^ per second. How much of the material will be left in a 100 years? (1 year = 365 days. Leap year is not assumed in the calculations) a\) 1589.99999 b\) 19,999.9999 c\) 19.999999 d\) 123.99999 13\. If the half life is found to be 100 msec, what is the decay constant? a\) 693 per second b\) 24948 per hour c\) 0.1155 per minute d\) 59875.2 per day 14\. With what energy must the radiation be given to image a bone of thickness 5 cm which has covering of skin of thickness of 2 cm on the both sides and the emerging intensity of the X -- Ray is 200MeV. (impedance for bone = b for skin = s ) a\) 2000e^9^ b\) 200e^(4s\ +\ 5b)^ c\) 20/e d\) 2e 15\. In the induction field diathermy, the heating effects are done by a\) Using magnetic field b\) Induce an electrical current within body parts c\) Using an electric field d\) Made of metal that is shaped into a coil 16\. A low dielectric constant & conductivity is to a\) High water content, muscle nerve, blood vessels, internal organs & moist skin b\) Low water content, bone, capsule, ligaments, fat, dry skin c\) All of the above 17\. A high dielectric constant & conductivity is to a\) High water content, muscle nerve, blood vessels, internal organs & moist skin b\) Low water content, bone, capsule, ligaments, fat, dry skin c\) All of the above 18\. The electric field will a\) Converge onto substance with high dielectric constant b\) Converge onto substance with low dielectric constant c\) Diverge within substances with high dielectric constant d\) Diverge within substances with low dielectric constant 19\. The process of destroying cancer cells with the help of radiation is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a\) radiotherapy b\) physiotherapy c\) uroplasty d\) rehabilitation 20\. Which of the following pair of scattering is important for diagnostic purposes? a\) Coherent and Compton b\) Photoelectric and Pair Production c\) Compton and Photoelectric d\) Pair Production and Disintegration 21. Which technique separates charged particles using electric field? a. Hydrolysis b. Electrophoresis\ c) Protein synthesis d\) Protein denaturing 22. Electrophoresis was developed by: a. Tswett b. Tsvedberg\ c) Tiselius d\) Sanger 23. The speed of migration of ions in electric field depends upon: a. Shape and size of molecule b. Magnitude of charge and shape of molecule c. Magnitude of charge shape and mass of molecule d. Magnitude of charge and mass of molecule 24. Which of the following statements is true about migration of biomolecules? a. The rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of medium b. Rate of migration is directly proportional to current c. Low voltage is used for separation of high mass molecules d. Rate of migration is inversely proportional to current 25. What does the electrophoresis apparatus consist of? a. Gel, buffer chamber and fire pack b. Buffer chamber and electrophoresis unit c. Electrophoresis unit and gel separator d. Power pack and electrophoresis unit 26. If proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic mobility then the type of electrophoresis is: a. SDS PAGE b. Affinity Electrophoresis c. Electro focusing d. Free flow electrophoresis 27. The electrophoretic mobility denoted as µ is mathematically expressed as: a. VE b. E/V\ c) 1/EV d\) V/E 28. Which of the following factors does not influence electrophoretic mobility? a. Molecular weight b. Shape of molecule c. Size of molecule d. Stereochemistry of molecule 29. When is electrophoresis not used? a. Separation of proteins b. Separation of amino acids c. Separation of Lipids d. Separation of nucleic acids 30. What cannot be a reason for using electrophoresis? a. Comparing two sets of DNA b. Organizing DNA by shape of backbone c. Organizing DNA fragments from largest to smallest d. Organizing DNA in order we can see 31. **In electrophoresis, DNA will migrate towards** a\) cathode or positive electrode b\) anode or negative electrode c\) cathode or negative electrode d\) anode or positive electrode 32. **The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends on** a\) magnitude of charge and mass of molecules b\) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules c\)  shape and size of the molecule d\) magnitude of charge, shape and mass of molecules 33. **Which of the following statement is true regarding migration of bio molecules?** a\) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the current b\) the rate of migration is inversely proportional to current c\) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of the medium d\) Low voltage is used for the separation of high molecular weight compounds **34. The most common type of gel used for DNA separation is** a\) Agar b\) Polyacrylamide c\) Agarose d\) All of the above **35. Which is the technique suited for the separation of large DNA fragments** a\) AGE b\) PAGE c\) PFGE d\) SDS-PAGE **36. What is the role of SDS in SDS-PAGE?** a\) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge b\) imparting overall negative charge to the protein c\) imparting equal mass to all proteins d\)  protein unfolding and imparting net positive charge **37. In SDS-PAGE, separation is based on** a\) molecular weight b\) shape c\) charge d\) all of the above **38. The electrophoresis technique that used isoelectric focusing is** a\) AGE b\) PFGE c\) 2D-PAGE d\) SDS-PAGE 39\. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA is moved towards the a. cathode b. anode c. DNA doesn\'t move d. Moves slowly 40. A technique which separates charged particles using electric field is a. Hydrolysis b. electrophoresis c. protein synthesis d. protein denaturing 41. Sounds of frequency higher than 20,000 Hz which are inaudible to normal human ear are called a. noise b. frequency c. ultrasonics d. amplitude 42\. SONAR is abbreviation of a. small navigation and random b. sky navigation and ranging c. sun nuclear ranging d. sound navigation and ranging 43. A ship sends ultrasound that returns from seabed and is detected after 3.42 s. If speed of ultrasound through seawater is 1300 ms^-1,\ then\ distance\ of\ seabed\ from\ ship\ would\ be^ a. 3000 m b. 2600 m c. 2200 m d. 2800 m 44. Ultrasonic waves carry more a. energy b. frequency c. heat d. both frequency and energy 45. Wavelength of ultrasonic waves is a. more than audible sound b. less than audible sound c. equal to audible sound d. greater than light wave 46. Ultrasound is also useful for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\ i. detecting fault in metal sheets ii. imaging marine depths iii. looking for metals beneath the earth's surface iv. detecting distances v. detecting earthquakes a. ii, iii, v b. i, iv, v c. i, ii, iv d. ii, iii 47. What property of sound waves acts like the principle of ultrasound? a. Reflection and Refraction b. Reflection only c. Refraction only d. Propagation 48. Which of the following medical imaging modality other than ultrasound does not use any form of radiation? e. PET Scan f. SPECT Scan g. CT Scan h. MRI 49\. For which of these areas can the ultrasound be taken for an infant but not for an adult? a\) Cranium b\) Chest c\) Arms d\) Legs 50\.  A piezoelectric crystal is used to produce the ultrasound waves. What kind of ultrasound is produced? a\) Pressure wave ultrasound b\) Electrical wave ultrasound c\) Sound wave ultrasound d\) Simple ultrasound 51. How is a medium characterized? a\) By its thickness b\) By its acoustic impedance c\) By its water content d\) By its density 52\. The wave velocity of ultrasound in soft tissues is 1540m/s and the impedance offered by it is 1.63 X 106 kg/m^2^s. What is the density of the soft tissue? a\) 0.1058441 kg/m^3^ b\) 10.58441 kg/m^3^ c\) 1058.441kg/m^3^ d\) 105844.1 kg/m^3^ 53\. Which of the following relations are true? a\) γ increases, penetration of sound increases, resolution decreases b\) γ increases, penetration of sound decreases, resolution decreases c\) γ increases, penetration of sound decreases, resolution increases d\) γ decreases, penetration of sound increases, resolution increases 54\. When an abdominal ultrasound is done, why is it advised to have a full bladder? a\) To have a good acoustic window b\) To increase the water content c\) To lower impedance d\) To allow for better propagation of waves 55\. What does the red dot on the probe help within the produced image? a\) To check if the correct probe was used b\) To check the probe orientation c\) To check the depth of the probe that was used d\) To check the plane of the image. 56\. The rate at which an ultrasound pulse is absorbed (attenuated) as it passes through tissue is affected by:  a) The pulse amplitude.  b)     The pulse intensity.  c)     The pulse frequency.  d)     Characteristics of the tissue. 57\.  The parameters spatial-peak, temporal-average, and pulse-average must be considered when expressing values for ultrasound:  a)     Intensity.  b)     Absorption. c\)     Velocity.  d)     Pulse rate 58\.    The lowest rate of ultrasound absorption occurs in:  a)     Fat  b)     Air  c)     Bone.  d)     Lung. 59\.  The principal advantage of an annular-array transducer is that it provides:  a)     Faster imaging.  b)     Better penetration.  c)     Variable frequency.  d)     Variable focal depth. 60\.    One or more ghost-images of a body structure displayed at different depths within an ultrasound image are signs of: a\)     Shadowing. b\)     Reverberation. c\)     Refraction. d\)     Enhancement. 61. The \'filter\' in filtered backprojection refers to a. Bowtie filter between the beam and patient b.  Conversion between attenuation and Hounsfield units c.  Conversion between fan-beam and parallel geometry d.  Fix for the blurring inherent to backprojection 62. Changing filters (aka kernels) in filtered backprojection results in a. Trade-off between image sharpness and noise b. Different window levels in CT images c. Different patient dose d. Different reconstructed field of view (FOV) 63. The main advantage of iterative reconstruction techniques versus filtered backprojection is a. Better depiction of bone detail b. Does not require specification of reconstruction kernel or filter c.  Better handling of noisy images d. Faster reconstruction 64. In helical CT, a single transverse slice represents a. A plane through the body perpendicular to the scan axis b. A plane through the body oblique to the scan axis c. A reconstruction made from projections at neighboring scan axis positions 65. In helical CT, pitch is defined as a.  Table movement in 360 degrees / beam width b.  Patient dose in 360 degrees / beam width c.  Reconstructed slice thickness / beam width d.  Gantry angle with respect to the scan axis 66. High-pitch techniques are useful for a.  Very small findings (e.g. nondisplaced fracture) b. Gated cardiac CT c.  Accurate multiplanar reconstructions d. Fast scans 67. In helical CT, a low-pitch technique might be most helpful for a. Scanning a tachypneic patient b.  Detecting a non-displaced fracture c.  Detecting a subtle liver lesion d.  Scanning a young child 68. Which of the following numbers reported by the scanner best reflects the *total amount* of radiation delivered to the patient a.  Dose b.  Pitch c. Dose-length product (DLP) d. Effective mAs 69. The following term refers to a measure designed to reflect stochastic (cancer) risk from radiation a. Dose b. Average dose c.  Effective dose d. Dose-length product (DLP) 70. Deterministic effects in CT would best be measured by looking at a.  CT Dose Index (CTDI) b. Dose-length product (DLP) c. Effective dose d. Pitch 71. Dose in CT can be reduced by which of the following parameter adjustments (assuming other factors constant): a.  Increasing kV b. Increasing mAs c.  Increasing Pitch d.  Increasing scan length 72. How is radiation dose distributed in the patient\'s body in CT? a. Mostly at the skin surface b. Mostly in the center of the body c.  More at the skin surface than in the center d. Entirely uniformly from the skin to the center of the body 73. With the same CTDI (i.e. same scan parameters), what happens to radiation dose with changing the patient size? a.  Increasing patient size causes increased dose b. Increasing patient size causes decreased dose c.  Increasing patient size does not change dose 74. The dose parameter used to correct CTDI for patient size is the a. Effective dose b. Dose-area product (DAP) c.  Size-specific dose estimate (SSDE) d.  CTDI Volume (CTDIvol) 75. Positioning the patient off-center within the CT gantry will result in a. Decreased dose b.  Increased dose c.  Reconstruction artifacts d.  Incorrect Hounsfield unit numbers 76. Decreasing kV in CT is advantageous because a. X-ray penetration improves b. Tissue contrast improves c. Scan times are reduced d. Metal streak artifacts are improved 77. Automated exposure compensation uses the topogram (or scout) image to determine a. Tube current (mA) b.  Pitch c.  Reconstruction filter d. Bowtie filter 78. The goal of automated exposure compensation is a. To generate images of similar noise in different patient sizes b. To scan patients of different sizes with the same kV and mAs settings c. To obtain pretty, low-noise images d. To eliminate the radiation risks from CT examinations 79. The major technical challenge in cardiac CT is a. Spatial resolution b. Temporal resolution c. Contrast resolution d. Three-dimensional reconstruction 80. The major determinant of temporal resolution in CT is a. Gantry rotation speed b. Reconstruction algorithm c.  Fan-beam angle d.  Detector collimation e. Computer processing power 81. One small square on an EKG is equivalent to how much time (and what distance)? a. 0.04 sec (2mm) b. 0.20 sec (1mm) c. 0.04 sec (1mm) d. 0.01 sec (1mm) 82\. One large square is equal to what amount of time (and distance) on EKG? a\) 2 sec/.5mm b\) 20 sec/5 mm c\) 0.02 sec/0.5mm d\) 0.2 sec/5mm 83\. What leads are considered inferior leads? a. II, III, aVF b. II, III, aVR c. I,II,III d. V1,II 84\. What leads are considered (left) lateral leads? a. I aVR b. I, aVL c. V5,V6 d. II,III 85\. Choose the correct placement of V1 : a. 5th right intercostal space b. V2 c. 4th right intercostal space d. Where the sun don\'t shine 86\. Name the correct placement of V2: a. 4th left intercostal space b. 4th right intercostal space c. 5th left intercostal space d. 5th right intercostal space 87\. Name the placement for V4 a. 4th left intercostal space b. 5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line c. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line d. 5th intercostal space midaxillary line 88\. Please choose the lead placement for V5/V6 9.What view of the heart does V1-V4 give ? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Lateral 89. What view of the heart does V5-V6 give ? a. Left lateral view b. Right lateral view c. Mid axillary view 90. In which lead is the P wave best seen? a. II b. III c. AvF d. V1 91. In which leads would you see a positive P wave? a. I, II, III b. AVL, AVF, V4-V6 c. V4-V6 d. I, II, AVL, AVF, V4-V6 92. In which lead would you see a BIPHASIC P wave? a. V2-V3 b. V5-V6 c. V1 d. V3 93. Regarding the QRS complex: In which leads would you see a Deep S wave ? a. V1 b. V1, V2 c. V3, v4 d. V5,v6 94. Regarding the QRS complex: In which lead(s) would you see a TALL R wave? a. V5 b. V6 c. V1,V2 d. V5,V6 95. Regarding the QRS complex: In which lead(s) would you see a biphasic complex, reflection a \"transition zone\"? a. V1,V2 b. V2,V3 c. V3, V4 d. V4,V5 96. In what leads do you see an \"R wave progression\"? a. V1 to v6 b. V2 to v4 c. V5 to v6 d. V1 to v4 97. What part of the EKG is known as the \"plateau phase\", and represents the initial part of ventricular repolarization? a. S Wave b. ST Segment c. PR interval 98. What segment, if elevated or depressed, reveals a sign of serious pathology? a. ST b. PR c. R-R d. QT 99. What wave represents ventricular repolarization? a. U wave b. P wave c. Q wave d. T wave 100. Which of the following best represents the normal height of the T WAVE? a. 1/2-2/3 height of corresponding R wave b. 1/3-2/3 height of corresponding R wave c. 1/3-2/3 height of corresponding T wave d. 1/2-2/3 height of corresponding T wave 101. What portion of the EKG represents the duration of ventricular systole? a. QT interval b. PR segment c. QRS complex d. ST segment 102. The QT interval varies with heart rate, and thus must be corrected. This corrected QT interval is also abbreviated as (QTc). This value is considered normal when it\'s less than half of the \_\_\_\_\_ interval at normal rates. a. P-R b. Q-R c. R-R d. P-P 103. An R-R interval represents what on the EKG? a. Two complete cardiac cycles b. Rest and Relaxation c. One complete cardiac cycle d. Inferior MI 104\. What does the Sympathetic system do to the heart, and what receptors are associated with it? a. Constrict arteries (alpha 1 adrenergic receptors) b. Constrict veins(beta 1 adrenergic receptors) c. Relax arteries (alpha 1 adrenergic receptors) d. Relax arteries (beta 1 adrenergic receptors) 104. What does the Parasympathetic system do to the heart, and what receptors are associated with it? a. Constriction of arteries (alpha 1-adrenergic receptors) b. Dilation of arteries (alpha 1-adrenergic receptors) c. Constriction of arteries (cholinergic receptors) d. Dilation of arteries (cholinergic receptors) 105\. Vasovagal syncope is a reflex of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_response (dilates systemic arteries causing hypotension and slows SA node). a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic c. Pathetic 106. Scattered x-ray beams approach detector screen a. perpendicularly b. parallel c. anti-parallel d. at an angle 107. Type of x-rays used to detect break in bone is a. hard b. soft c. both A and B d. moderate 108. Intensifier screens reduces patient\'s exposure to x-rays by a factor of a. 500-600 b. 1000-2000 c. 100-500 d. d.10-100 109. Contrast media consist of elements with a. lower atomic number b. higher atomic number c. metalloids d. inert gases 110. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and a. parallel x-rays b. perpendicular x-rays c. anti-parallel x-rays d. anti-perpendicular x-rays 111. The frequency range of ECG is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. 0.05-150H b. 500-1500Hz c. 5-500kHz d. 0.5-150MHz 112\. Which of the following amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by the power supply in the ECG circuit? a. Bandpassfilters b. Highpassfilters c. Notchfilters d. lowpassfilter 113\. The branch of medicine that deals with the provision and use of artificial devices such as splints and braces is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. prosthetics b. orthotics c. laproscopic d. augmentative.communication\ 114. The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. secondary.volume b. quarterly.volume c. priming.volume d. relative blood volume 115\. The ideal membrane should possess \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to water. a. low.permeability.to.water b. high.permeability.to.water c. medium.permeability.to.water d. high.permeability.to.waste\ 116. Which of the following is the commonly used membrane for hemodialysis? a. cupraphan b. Cotton c. Cellulose d. Calcium\ 117. Which of the following is not the property of instrumentational amplifier? a. Extremely.high.input.impedance b. Low.bias.and.offset.currents c. High.slew.rate d. Very.high.CMRR\ 118. To achieve optimum performance and to enable the relationship of change in resistance with volume of the cell to hold good, it is recommended that the ratio of the aperture length to the diameter of the aperture should be a. 75:1 b. 0.75:100 c. 0.75:1 d. 0.5:10\ 119. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency. a. band.stop.filter b. high.pass.filter c. band.pass.filter d. low.pass.filter 120\. Which of the following filter amplifies frequencies with a certain band? a. band.pass.filter b. band.stop.filter c. low.pass.filter d. high.pass.filter\ 121. Recording electrical activities associated with heart is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. EEG b. EOG c. EMG d. ECG\ 122. Which of the following is considered to be the primary pacemaker of the heart? a. sino-atrial.node b. atrio-ventricular.node c. purkinje.fibres d. bundle.of.his\ 123. Buffer amplifier converts \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. low impedance signals to high impedance signals b. high impedance signals to low impedance signals c. ac impedance signals to dc impedance signals d. dc impedance signals to ac impedance signals 124\. Which of the following is a wireless ECG acquiring system? a. pregelled.disposable.electrodes b\) limb.electrodes c\) pasteless.electrodes d\) smart.pad 125\. Before placing the electrodes the skin should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a\) wet b\) dry c\) hairy d\) oily 126\. For protons, gyromagnetic ratio has value A. 3 × 10^8^ rads^-1^ T^-1^ B. 2.68 × 10^8^ rads^-1^ T^-1^ C. 4 × 10^8^ rads^-1^ T^-1^ D. 5 × 10^8^ rads^-1^ T^-1^ 127\. Larmor frequency depends upon the A. individual nucleus B. magnetic flux density C. both A and B D. energetic flux unit 128. Fatty tissues have A. relaxation time of several seconds B. relaxation time of several hundred nanoseconds C. intermediate relaxation times D. relaxation times of several hundred milliseconds 129. Angular frequency of precision is called A. Lower frequency B. higher frequency C. Larmor frequency D. linear frequency 130. Increasing the magnetic field? a. produuces less susceptibility artifacts b. Reduces the risk of tissue heating. c. Increase the signal to noise. d. Reduces the danger from metallic projectiles. 131. Which of the following represents radio frequency range? a. Less.than100Hz b. Less.than100KHz c. Less.than100MHz 132. Between100MHz.to.2000MHz\ Which of the following represents RF? a. Relativefrequency b. Radiofrequency c. Recursivefrequency\ d) Reducedfrequency 133. High frequency amplifier in FM telemetry have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. Zero.frequency b. Infinite.frequency c. Variable.frequency\ d) Fixed.frequency 134. Cathode ray oscilloscope uses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. Wide band amplifier b. Narrow band amplifier c. Zero band amplifier d. None of the mentioned 135\. Ideal op-amp have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ input impedance. a. Zero b. Low c. High d. Infinite 135. Gain of wide band amplifiers are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ e. Very low f. Less than100 g. 100 to 300 h. 300 to 600 136. Wide band amplifiers are most commonly \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ i. Single.ended j. Double.ended k. Unpredictable 137. Noneof.the.mentioned\ Which of the following can be used as amplifier? l. IC8870 m. IC741 n. IC4047 138. IC4041\ Which of the following op-amp configurations are not possible? o. Differential.amplifier p. Inverting.amplifier q. Non-inverting.amplifier r. All of the mentioned 139. Uhf therapy based in the use of a. Microwave b. Radio wave c. Electromagnetic wave d. Magnetic field 140\. Millimetric wave therapy penetrates up to a\) 0.2- 0.6 mm b\) 1-2mm c\) 2-4mm d\) 0.8-1.0mm 141. In X-ray spectrometers, the specimen or the sample is placed after which of the following components? a. X-ray tube b. Monochromator c. Collimator d. Detector 142. Which of the following components are used to generate X-rays? a. Meyer tube b. West tube c. Anger tube d. Coolidge tube 143. Using which of the following components is the generated x-rays focussed upon the specimen? a. X-ray tube b. Monochromator c. Collimator d. Detector 144. The cathode in the Coolidge tube is made of which of the following elements? a. Quartz b. Iron c. Tungsten d. Barium 145. Which of the following is not a target metal used in the Coolidge tube? a)Rhodium b\) Cobalt c\) Gold d\) Silver 146\. How can the resolution of the collimator be increased? a\) By reducing the separation between the metal plates of the collimator b\) By increasing the separation between the metal plates of the collimator c\) By increasing the number of metal plates d\) By decreasing the number of metal plates 147\. When x-rays emitted from molybdenum are allowed to pass through a zirconium filter, which of the following occurs? a\) It absorbs radiation of shorter wavelength b\) It absorbs radiation of longer wavelength c\) It allows radiation of shorter wavelength to pass through d\) It allows radiation in a particular band to pass through 148\. Which of the following crystals are not suited for x-ray grating? a\) Topaz b\) Lithium fluoride c\) Calcium fluoride d\) Sodium fluoride 149\. Given below is the block diagram of X-ray spectrometer. Identify the unmarked component.\ analytical-instrumentation-questions-answers-instrumentation-xray-spectroscopy-q11\ a) Filter b\) Monochromator c\) Specimen d\) Amplifier 150\. The x-rays generated come out of the Coolidge tube through which of the following?\ a) Beryllium window b\) Tungsten window c\) Collimator d\) Target material 151\. In a normal X-Ray machine, X -- Rays are produced by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a\) bombardment of cathode rays on a radioactive material b\) nuclear fission c\) nuclear fusion d\) super heating of an element 152\. How much of the generated energy actually utilized for taking an X-Ray? a\) 0.1% b\) 1% c\) 10% d\) 100% 153\. Dental X-Ray is also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a\) Orthopedics b\) Orthopentology c\) Orthology d\) Orthopantomography 154\. Which of the following machines is often placed together with an X-Ray machine?\ a) Endoscopy b\) Ultrasound c\) Fluoroscopy d\) C -- Arm 155\. Up to what intensity of radiation is used for mammography? a\) \< 10keV b\) \< 20keV c\) \< 30keV d\) \< 40keV 156\. What should be the minimum distance maintained when an X-Ray is being taken?\ a) 10 m b\) 15 m c\) 35 m d\) 50 m 157\. Which of the following needs the longest exposure for an X-Ray image? a\) Thoracic b\) Abdomen c\) Spine d\) Pelvis 158\. The X-Ray is recorded on a plate coated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a\) Gold Halide b\) Silver Halide c\) Copper Halide d\) Iron Halide 159\. Darsonvalization is s. method of electrotherapy based on the use of high-voltage alternating pulse current and low power. t. electrotherapy method using a sinusoidal pulse current with a frequency in the range of 20-2000 Hz, the amplitude and frequency of which vary randomly u. method of electrotherapy, which consists in affecting the body with a modulated sinusoidal current of audio frequency d\) the method of electrotherapy with the use of electromagnetic fields 160\. The therapeutic effect of darsonvalization is manifested: a\) in inflammatory diseases of the cranial nerves; diseases of the musculoskeletal system b\) analgesic, antipruritic effect, improvement of peripheral blood circulation, increased trophic tissue at the site of exposure c\) endogenous heat release in tissues d\) anti-inflammatory effect in acute inflammatory processes 161\. What does the acronym LASER stand for? a\) Light Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation b\) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c\) Light Alteration by Stimulated Emission of Radiation 162\. What does the acronym MASER stand for? a\) Microwave Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation b\) Molecular Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c\) The name of Albert Einstein's dog 163\. What is one way to describe a Photon? a\) Solid as a rock b) A wave packet c) A torpedo 164\. What determines the color of light? a\) its intensity b) its wavelength c) its source 165\. Which scientist first came up with the idea of stimulated emission ? a\) Alexander Graham Bell b) Isaac Newton c) Arthur Schalow d) Albert Einstein 166\. Which laser is considered "eye safe"? a\) Laser bar-code scanners b) The eximer laser c) Communications lasers 167\. Why are lasers used in fiber optic communications systems a\) The government has mandated it b) They can be pulsed with high speed data c\) They are very inexpensive 168\. What type of laser is used in CD and DVD players? a\) Semiconductor b) YAG c) Alexandrite 169\. Why are lasers used in "Laser Printers" a\) They can be focused down to very small spot sizes for high resolution b\) They are cheap c) They are impossible to damage 170\. As wavelength gets longer, the laser light can be focused to... a\) Larger spot sizes b) Smaller spot sizes 171\. Which color of light has the shortest wavelength ? a\) Yellow b) Blue c) Red d) Green 172\. What property of laser light is used to measure strain in roadways? a\) Intensity b) Power c) Coherence 173\. What is the type of laser used most widely in industrial materials processing applications? a\) Dye Laser b) YAG laser c) Ruby Laser d) Carbon Dioxide Laser 174\. Why are lasers used for cutting materials a\) It never gets dull b) It has a small "heat affected zone" c\) Smoother cuts d) All of the above 175\. The Eximer laser produces light with what wavelength? a\) Visible b) Ultraviolet c) Infrared 176\. Laser energy is used to break up kidney or gallstones in process called? a\) Trbecularplasty b) Lithotripsy c) Viscocanalostomy 177\. The National Ignition Facility will use what type of laser for fusion power experimentation? a\) Neodymium-glass b) Argon gas c) Rhodamine Dye 178\. Which of the following is a unique property of laser? a\) Directional b) Speed c) Coherence d) Wavelength 179\. Chemical lasers use\_\_\_\_ to produce their beams. a\) Excessive amounts of electrical power b) Small amounts of electrical power c) No electrical power 180\. What type of laser could cause skin cancer if not used properly? a\) Red semiconductor laser b) Blue semiconductor c) Eximer laser d) YAG laser 71. **The image formed by retina of human eye is:**\ A. Virtual and erect\ B. Real and inverted\ C. Virtual and inverted\ D. Real and erect 72. ** The change in focal length of human eye is caused due to - **\ A. Ciliary muscles\ B. Pupil\ C. Cornea\ D. Iris 73. **  The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is:**\ A. 25m\ B. 20m\ C. 25cm\ D. 20cm 74. ** The persistence of vision for human eye is-**\ A. 1/10th of a sec\ B. 1/16th of a sec\ C. 1/6th of a sec\ D. 1/18th of a sec 75. ** The light sensitive cell present on retina and is sensitive to the intensity of light is:**\ A. cones\ B. Rod cell\ C. Both cone and rod cells\ D. None 76.  **The phenomenon of light responsible for the working of human eye is:**\ A. Reflection\ B. Refraction\ C. Power of accommodation\ D. Persistence of vision 77. **Which of the following colors is least scattered by fog, dust or smoke:**\ A. Violet\ B. Blue\ C. Red\ D. Yellow 78. ** The colored light that reflects most while passing through a prism is:**\ A. yellow\ B. Violet\ C. Blue\ D. Red 79. ** The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by:          **\ A. Ciliary muscles\ B. Pupil\ C. Cornea\ D. Iris 80. ** The part of the eye which refracts light entering the eye from external objects:**\ A. Lens\ B. Cornea\ C. Iris\ D. Pupil 81. ** The variation of focal length to form a sharp image on the retina is called \-\-\--.**\ A. Accommodation\ B. Aperture\ C. Retina control\ D. Sutter 82. ** In human eye image is formed:**\ A. Behind retina\ B. In front of retina\ C. On retina\ D. In between lens and retina 83. **Light enters eye through a transparent membrane called:**\ A. Cornea\ B. Pupile\ C. Iris\ D. Retina 84. ** Colored portion of eye that controls amount of light reaching retina is called:**\ A. Cornea\ B. Pupil\ C. Retina control\ D. Iris 85. ** Human eye acts like a \-\-\-\-\-\--.**\ A. Endoscope\ B. Camera\ C. Telescope\ D. Microscope 86.  **The passage through which tears pass is:**\ A. Cornea\ B. Tear gland\ C. Tear duct\ D. Eyeball 87. ** The part of eye that is a messenger of electrochemical signals from eye to brain is called:**\ A. Blood vessel\ B. Optic nerve\ C. Iris\ D. Cornea 88. ** Thing that shuts automatically to protect eyes is known as:         **\ A. Eyelash\ B. Eyelid\ C. Iris\ D. Cornea 89. ** Ability of combination of dual vision of eyes is called:       **\ A. Dim vision\ B. Concave vision\ C. Binocular vision\ D. Bright vision 90. ** For a young adult with normal vision the far point is:         **\ A. 20cm\ B. 20m\ C. 20Km\ D. Infinity 91. ** Sunlight is a mixture of \_\_ visible colors**\ A. 5\ B. 6\ C. 7\ D. none 92. **The effect of glass prism is only to separate the seven colors of**\ A. White light\ B. light from bulb\ C. Sunlight\ D. All 93. ** The \_\_ color is at the top and   \_\_\_\_ color is at the bottom of spectrum.**\ A. Red, Violet\ B. Red, Blue\ C. Violet, red\ D. None 94. **  Who discovered the experiments with glass prism that white light consists of seven colors**\ A. Newton\ B. Faraday\ C. Maxwell\ D. Young 95. **The light that refracts most while passing through a prism**\ A. Red\ B. Violet\ C. Indigo\ D. Yellow 96. **The rod cells responds to**\ A. Color of light\ B. Low light levels\ C. Intensity of light\ D. None 97. ** Which of the following colors is the least deviated on passing through a prism:**\ A. Red\ B. Yellow\ C. Violet\ D. Indigo 98. ** Cornea is a transparent spherical structure which \_\_\_\_      **\ A. Reflects light\ B. Refracts light\ C. Scatters light\ D. None 99. **The image on the retina remains for 1/16th of sec. This is called as:**\ A. Accomodation\ B. Persistence of vision\ C. Both a and b\ D. None 100. ** The middle vascular layer that darkens the eye from inside and prevents internal reflection is:**\ A. Choroid\ B. Sclera\ C. Retina\ D. Cornea 101.  **The eye lens is a**\ A. Transparent double convex lens\ B. Transparent double concave lens\ C. Transparent concave convex lens\ D. None 102. **The eye lens contains a liquid called:**\ A. Aqueous humour\ B. Peroxide\ C. Vitreous humour\ D. None 103. **Long sightedness is caused by eyeball being too short. It can be corrected by:**\ A. Using convergent lens\ B. Plane mirror\ C. Divergent lens\ D. None 104. **Astigmatism occurs when the cornea does not have a truly spherical shape. The defect can be cured by:**\ A. Concave lens\ B. Cylindrical shape\ C. Convex lens\ D. Plane convex lens 105. **The power of lens being +4 D, suggests that it is:**\ A. Convex lens\ B. Plane convex lens\ C. Concave lens\ D. none 106. ** When an object moves towards a convex lens the size of image \_\_\_\_\_.**\ A. Decreases\ B. Increases\ C. First decreases then increases\ D. Remains the same Ответы: 1. A) 2. A) 3. A) 4. A) 5. B) 6. B) 7. B) 8. B) 9. D) 10. C) 11. A) 12. B) 13. B) 14. B) 15. C) 16. B) 17. A) 18. A) 19. A) 20. C) 21. B) 22. C) 23. B) 24. B) 25. D) 26. A) 27. D) 28. D) 29. C) 30. B) 31. D) 32. B) 33. A) 34. C) 35. C) 36. A) 37. A) 38. C) 39. A) 40. B) 41. C) 42. D) 43. B) 44. D) 45. C) 46. A) 47. C) 48. D) 49. A) 50. A) 51. B) 52. C) 53. A) 54. A) 55. B) 56. B) 57. A) 58. A) 59. D) 60. B) 61. D) 62. A) 63. C) 64. C) 65. A) 66. D) 67. B) 68. D) 69. D) 70. A) 71. C) 72. C) 73. B) 74. D) 75. B) 76. B) 77. A) 78. A) 79. B) 80. A) 81. C) 82. D) 83. A) 84. B) 85. A) 86. A) 87. C) 88. A) 89. C) 90. A) 91. A) 92. C) 93. A) 94. C 95. B) 96. C) 97. A) 98. A) 99. D) 100. A) 101. C) 102. C) 103. C) 104. D) 105. A) 106. D) 107. A) 108. C) 109. B) 110. A) 111. A) 112. C) 113. B) 114. D) 115. C) 116. C) 117. D) 118. C) 119. D) 120. C) 121. D) 122. A) 123. B) 124. D) 125. B) 126. B) 127. C) 128. D) 129. C) 130. C) 131. D) 132. D) 133. D) 134. A) 135. D) 136. A) 137. B) 138. D) 139. A) 140. A) 141. A) 142. D) 143. C) 144. C) 145. C) 146. A) 147. B) 148. D) 149. C) 150. A) 151. A) 152. B) 153. D) 154. C) 155. C) 156. D) 157. C) 158. B) 159. A) 160. B) 161. B) 162. A) 163. B) 164. B) 165. D) 166. A) 167. B) 168. A) 169. A) 170. B) 171. B) 172. C) 173. D) 174. D) 175. B) 176. B) 177. A) 178. C) 179. C) 180. C) 181.