Biology MCQ 1-10 PDF

## Multiple Choice Questions 1. Cell was discovered from- - a) Cork section - b) Leaf - c) Saliva - d) Bacteria 2. The first living cell was discovered by- - a) Robert Hooke - b) Schleiden & Sohwann - c) Watson & Crick - d) Leeuwenhoek 3. Simple microscope was discov...

## Multiple Choice Questions 1. Cell was discovered from- - a) Cork section - b) Leaf - c) Saliva - d) Bacteria 2. The first living cell was discovered by- - a) Robert Hooke - b) Schleiden & Sohwann - c) Watson & Crick - d) Leeuwenhoek 3. Simple microscope was discovered by- - a) Robert Hooke - b) Leeuwenhock - c) Knoll & Ruska - d) None of them 4. Modern cell theory was proposed by- - a) Robert Hooke - b) Schleiden & Schwann - c) Watson & Crick - d) Virchow 5. Structural & Functional unit of living organisms are- - a) Cell - b) Nucleus - c) Protoplasm - d) Tissue 6. One of the following said that cell originate from pre-existing cells? - a) Virchow - b) Schleiden - c) Robert Hooke - d) Dujardin 7. One of the following is an exception to cell theory- - a) Virus - b) mycoplasma - c) algae - d) all of these 8. The plasma membrane of an animal cell is composed of- - a) Glycoproteins - b) Phospho lipoproteins - c) Phosphoproteins - d) None of these 9. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by - a) Singer and Nicholson - b) De Robertis and Franchi - c) Davson and Danielli - d) None of them 10. Cell membrane is- - a) Permeable - b) impermeable - c) Selectively permeable - d) Semi permeable 11. Cell drinking is also called as- - a) Pinocytosis - b) Phagocytosis - c) Endosmosis - d) Diffusion 12. Plant cells are distinguishable from animal cell in containing- - a) Mitochondria - b) Ribosomes - c) Endoplasmic reticulum - d) Cell wall 13. Which of the following structure of cell is dead? - a) Golgi bodies - b) Lysosomes - c) Cell wall - d) Endoplasmic reticulum 14. Middle lamella contains- - a) Sucrose - b) Pectate - c) Lignin - d) Cutin 15. The continuity of cytoplasm from one cell to other cell is maintained by- - a) plasmodesmata - b) tracheids - c) cell wall - d) sieve tubes 16. The main function of plasmodesmata is- - a) selective permeability - b) permits circulation of fluid and passage of solutes between the cells - c) helps in contraction - d) none of these 17. Who used the word 'Protoplasm' for the first time? - a) Purkinje - b) Strassburger - c) R. Virchow - d) Hogo Von Mohl 18. Protoplasm is the seat for all- - a) anabolic function - b) catabolic function - c) metabolic function - d) physiological functions 19. Cytoplasm is one type of- - a) Fluid - b) Solution - c) Colloid - d) None of these 20. The largest cellular organelle of cell is- - a) Nucleus - b) Lysosome - c) Plastid - d) Glyoxysome 21. Nuclear envelope is composed of- - a) Single membrane - b) Two membrane - c) Protcinaccous strand - d) Both (a) and (c) 22. Nucleolus helps in synthesis of- - a) Microbodies - b) Ribosomal RNA - c) Transfer RNA - d) Golgibodies 23. Multinucleated plant cells are called- - a) Syncitium - b) Multi cell - c) Poly cell - d) Cocnocyte 24. A prokaryotic cell does not possess- - a) nuclear membrane - b) plasma membrane - c) cell wall - d) both (a) and (b) 25. Prokaryotic nucleus is known as- - a) nucleoid - b) genophore - c) both (a) & (b) - d) None of these 26. Which of the following carries extranuclcar genetic material (they used in genetic engineering)- - a) Plastid - b) Plasmid - c) Golgi Complex - d) Both (a) and (b) 27. "A cell within a cell” is applicable to - a) mitochondria - b) chloroplast - c) virus - d) both (a) & (b) 28. The term, "mitochondria" was introduced by- - a) Benda - b) Altmann - c) Portar - d) C.D. Duve 29. Which of the following is called the "powerhouse” of the cell? - a) Nucleus - b) Nucleolus - c) Chloroplast - d) Mitochondria 30. Cristae are related with-(Cristae is found in mitochondria) - a) Photosynthesis - b) Protein synthesis - c) ATP synthesis - d) Fat synthesis 31. Which of the following structure is present in mitochondria? - a) Oxysomes - b) Dictyosomes - c) Quantosomes - d) Polysomes 32. Mitochondria have- - a) DNA - b) RNA - c) Both (a) and (b) - d) None of these 33. Pigment free plastids are- - a) Chloroplast - b) Chromoplast - c) Lysosomes - d) Leucoplasts 34. Which one of the following is not a kind of plastid? - a) Chloroplast - b) Anthoplast - c) Leucoplast - d) Chromoplast 35. Sugar Factory of cell is- - a) Ribosome - b) Chloroplastid - c) Golgi bodies - d) Endoplasmic Reticulum (E.R.) 36. Plastid contains- - a) Porous membrane - b) Cristac - c) Thylakoids - d) Microtubules 37. Cell's cytoskeleton is formed by- - a) Cytosol - b) Endoplasmic Reticulum - c) Golgi bodies - d) Lysosomes 38. E.R. is absent in- - a) Animal Cells - b) Prokaryotes - c) Plant cells - d) Protista and Fungi 39. Golgi apparatus is made of- - a) Cisternae - b) Tubules - c) Vesicles - d) All of these 40. Cisterny associated with - a) Mitochondria - b) Nucleus - c) Centrosome - d) Golgi body 41. The main function of Golgi complex is- - a) Fermentation - b) Translocation - c) Detoxification - d) Secretion 42. Golgi apparatus functioning as a secretory organelle, mostly found in- - a) Muscle cells - b) Neurons - c) Red blood cells - d) Pancreatic cells 43. The acrosome of the sperm is formed by- - a) Golgi complex - b) Cytoplasm - c) Nucleolus - d) E.R. 44. Dictyosomes are present in-(Plant golgi body is dictyosomc) - a) virus - b) Cytoplasm - c) higher animals - d) E.R. 45. Lysosome was discovered by- - a) Benda - b) W. H. Lewis - c) C. D. Duve - d) A. Claude 46. Suicidal bag of cell is- - a) Peroxysome - b) Ribosome - c) Lysosome - d) Nucleusome 47. Autolysis is related to- - a) Lysosomes - b) Centrosome - c) Sphaerosome - d) Phagosome 48. Lysosome is filled with [this enzyme helps in lysis of lysosomal cells] - a) hydrolytic enzymes - b) basic nucleases - c) transferases - d) Synthetases 49. The molecular and cellular programmed cell death is known as- - a) Apoptosis - b) Gene mutation - c) Metabolism - d) None of these 50. Which of the following cell organelle is considered to be rich in oxydative enzyme? - a) Mitochondria - b) Peroxysome - c) Lysosome - d) Chloroplast 51. The function of peroxisome is- - a) H₂O, destruction - b) Conversion of fats to carbohydrates - c) detoxification of heavy metals - d) oxidative phosphorylation 52. Which can be called as plant lysosomes? - a) Spherosomes - b) Aleurone grains - c) Vacuoles - d) All of these 53. Organelle covered by a single membrane is- - a) Sphaerosomes - b) Peroxisomes - c) Glyoxisomes - d) All of these 54. The smallest cell organelles are - a) Mitochondria - b) Ribosomes - c) Chloroplasts - d) Lysosomes 55. Which of the following structure is not bounded by cell membrane? - a) Spherosomes - b) Mitochondria - c) Ribosomes - d) Lysosomes 56. Proteins are synthesized by - a) Mitochondria - b) Chloroplast - c) Ribosomes - d) Centrosomes 57. Which of the following ribosomes are engaged in protein synthesis in animal cell? - a) Ribosomes which occur on nuclear membrane and ER - b) Ribosomes of only cytosol - c) Ribosomes of only nucleolus and cytosol - d) Ribosomes of only mitochondria and cytosol 58. If all the cell ribosomes are destroyed-[Main function of ribosome protein synthesis] - a) Fat will not be stored - b) Respiration will stop - c) Proteins will not be formed - d) Photosynthesis will cease 59. Which of the following organelles is present in bacteria or prokaryotic cell? - a) Vacuoles - b) Mitochondria - c) Ribosomes - d) Golgi bodies 60. In prokaryotes the ribosomes are - a) 50S - b) 80S - c) 70S - d) 30S 61. Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane which surrounds the- - a) Cytoplasm of Prokaryotes - b) Mitochondria - c) Nucleus of Eukaryotes - d) Vacuole 62. Ribosomes are found in - a) Mitochondria only - b) Nucleus only - c) Nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria and chloroplast - d) Nucleus, mitochondria and centriole 63. Cell sap contains--[Liquid present in vacuole is known as cell sap] - a) water only - b) water & minerals - c) gas - d) enzymes 64. The maximum no. of vacuoles are found in- - a) Animal coll - b) Plant cell - c) Both (a) & (b) - d) None of these 65. The membrane of Vacuoles is known as- - a) Tonoplast - b) Leucoplast - c) Chromoplast - d) None of these 66. A microtubule is made of- - a) Tubulin Protofilaments - b) Microfilament - c) Microfibrils - d) Elementary fibrils 67. Basal bodies are associated with the formation of - a) Phragmoplast - b) Cilia and Flagella - c) Cell plate - d) Kinetochore 68. One of the following is not a protoplasmic cell inclusion? - a) Cystolith - b) Starch grain - c) Raphide - d) Mitorchondria 69. The longest unicellular plant cell is- - a) Fiber of Ramie - b) Acetabularia - c) Fiber of Jute - d) None of these 70. Each cell capable of division passes through a cycle; known- - a) Mitotic cycle - b) Kerbs cycle - c) Cell cycled - d) Meiotic cycle 71. Interphase is also known as- - a) Telophase - b) Anaphase - c) Metaphase - d) Synthesis phase 72. Phase of cell cycle unique for DNA replication is- - a) G₁ - b) G₂ - c) S - d) M 73. DNA replication is controlled at which of the following check point? - a) G₁ phase - b) G₂ phase - c) M phase - d) S phase 74. Which of the following is the part of the M phase? - a) Karyokinesis - b) Cytokinesis - c) Both (a) & (b) - d) DNA replication 75. The spindle forms in the- - a) G₁ phase - b) G₂ phase - c) M phase - d) S phase 76. In which phase preparations for genome separation are made? - a) S phase by G, phasec - b) G₂ phased - c) M phase 77. Go state of cell denotes- - a) Exit of cell from cell cycle - b) Check point before entering next phase - c) Death of cell - d) Temporary pause 78. Go stage found in- - a) Pancreatic cell - b) Nerve cell - c) Liver cell - d) Both (b) and (c) 79. Which cells cannot divide following birth in humans? - a) Erythroblast - b) Osteoblast - c) Neuron - d) None of these 80. Cell division or mitosis is a normal process in a living cell but sudden and abnormal mitosis in an organ will frequently result in a- - a) New organ - b) Gastrula - c) Zygote - d) Cancer 81. One very common use of polyploidy in agriculture is/are- - a) Polyploid varieties of crops take short time to hervest - b) Polyploid crops are pest resistant - c) Polyploid fruits and vegetables generally are larger in size hence more marketable - d) All of these 82. If the cells of paddy leave have 24 chromosomes in them then how many chromosomes will be there in their edible portion (endosperm)? - a) 12 - b) 24 - c) 36 - d) 48 83. If a person has 3 × 18th chromosome in his cell the condition can be classified as- - a) Euploidy - b) Aneuploidy - c) Haploidy - d) Diploidy 84. How many chromosomes will there in the somatic cells of a patient with 'Down Syndrome'? - a) 23 - b) 46 - c) 47 - d) 45 85. Persons with 'Turner Syndrome' will have- - a) 47 chromosomes in his cells - b) 45 chromosomes in his cells - c) 47 chromosomes in her cells - d) 45 chromosomes in her cells 86. The cause of aneuploidy in human is mainly due to - a) Disjunction - b) Non- disjunction - c) Crossing over - d) Linkage 87. Which plant was chosen by Mendel for his experiment? - a) Drosophila - b) Arabidopsis - c) Chlorella - d) Pisum 88. How many contrasting characters of pea plant was chosen by Mendel for his experiment? - a) Two - b) Four - c) Six - d) Seven 89. Which of the following pair of characters of pea plant was not considered by Mendel for his experiment? - a) Tall pea plant × Dwarf pea plant - b) Purple flowered plant × White flowered pea plant - c) Yellow seeded pea × Green seeded pea - d) Climbing pea plant × Erect pea plant 90. Phenotype of an organism is- - a) All total genes present in an organism - b) All the alleles of a gene - c) The genetic arrangement of alleles of a gene - d) Expressions of a genotype 91. Mating between two plants with contrasting character is called as- - a) Crossing over - b) Linkage - c) Fortification - d) Hybridization 92. To make pea plants unisexual Mendel had to remove the stamens from some pea plants; this is called- - a) Castration - b) Orchidectomy - c) Emascultion - d) Anandrousization 93. If we are interested to observe the change in only one phenotype in a particular hybridization then that kind of hybridization is termed as- - a) Mono hybrid crosses - b) Monogamy - c) Monoecious - d) Dioecious 94. What are alleles? - a) Alternative forms of a gene - b) Alternative phenotypes of an organisnı - c) Genes with same phenotype - d) All of these 95. Homozygous individuals are— - a) Two organisms with same genotype. - b) An organism with two identical alleles of a gene. - c) Two organisms with two different copies of alleles of a gene. - d) An organism with two different allele of a gene. 96. An organism with two different alleles of a gene is called as- - a) Homozygous - b) Heterozygous - c) Hybrid - d) Both (b) and (c) 97. The phenotype of an heterozygous individual will be- - a) Intermediate of both parents - b) Like any one parent - c) Like the dominant allele - d) Like the recessive allele 98. What percent of F1 generation plants were heterozygous in Mendel's monohybrid cross? - a) 100% - b) 75% - c) 50% - d) 25%. 99. What percent of F2 generation plants, were heterozygous in Mendel's monohybrid cross? - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75% - d) 100%. 100. What percent of plants of F1 generation in Mendel's monohybrid cross were of dominant phenotype? - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75% - d) 100% 101. What percent of plants of F2 generation in Mendel's monohybrid cross were of dominant phenotype? - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75% - d) 100%. 102. The total percentage of homozygous (for both dominant and recessive alleles) individuals obtained in F2 generation in Mendel's Monohybrid cross were- - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75%. - d) 100% 103. Genotypic ratio obtained from Mendel's monohybrid cross was- - a) 3:1 - b) 1:2:1 - c) 9:3:3:1 - d) 1:1 ## Multiple Choice Questions 1. What is the study of Heredity called as? - a) Hereditology - b) Inheritance - c) Genetics - d) Genomics 2. What is heredity? - a) The passing of genes from one generation to next - b) The study of genes - c) Scattering pollen from one flower to other - d) All of these 3. Genes are found in - - a) DNA - b) RNA - c) m RNA - d) Protein 4. DNAs are found in ___________ of a eukaryotic cell. - a) Nuclear membrane - b) Nucleolus - c) Chromatin - d) Protoplasm 5. The structural units of DNA are - a) Ribo-nucleotides - b) Deoxyribonucleotide - c) Phosphate - d) Nucleosides 6. Nucleosides are composed of- - a) Phosphate + Sugar - b) Sugar + Base - c) Base + Phosphate - d) Purine + Pyrimidine 7. DNA are- - a) Single stranded helix - b) Double stranded helix - c) Single stranded double helix - d) Double stranded single helix 8. Complementation theory of Double Stranded DNA was discovered by- - a) Rosalyn Yalow - b) G. J. Mendel - c) Watson and Crick - d) E. Chargaff 9. If a DNA strand has a base sequence TTAACGTC then the base sequence of the opposite strand should be - a) AATTGCAG - b) CTGCAATTA - c) GACGTTAA - d) AATTGCGA 10. The two strands of a DNA remain tethered to each other by- - a) Covalent Bond - b) Electromotive Force - c) H-Bonds - d) Ionic Bonds 11. The number of bonds between Adenine and Thymine is/are- - a) 1 - b) 2 - c) 3 - d) 4 12. The structure of double stranded DNA was discovered by- - a) Rosalyn Yalow - b) G. J. Mendel - c) Watson and Crick - d) E. Chargaff 13. The length of a single turn of a double stranded DNA is - a) 3.4A - b) 10A - c) 34A - d) 3.4µm 14. The number of base-pairs on a single turn of double stranded DNA- - a) 3.4 - b) 10 - c) 34 - d) 3.4 15. What is the distance between two nucleotides on a DNA strands? - a) 3.4A - b) 10A - c) 34A - d) 3.4µm 16. Diameter of a double stranded DNA is about- - a) 3.4A - b) 20A - c) 3.4µm - d) 20µm 17. A gene is specified as- - a) A specific base sequence of DNA - b) A specific base sequence of m-RNA - c) A specific base sequence of r-RNA - d) A specific base sequence of t-RNA 18. Which of the following statements is/ are true? - I. Genes are units of inheritance. - II. A gene codes for a specific protein. - III. A DNA contains more than one gene. Codes: - a) I only - b) I & II only - c) I & III only - d) I, II, III all are true 19. Flow of genetic information from DNA to Protein is termed as- - a) Central Dogma - b) Inheritance - c) Transcription - d) Translation ## MCQs/NGC/2ND CLASS/BIO-SCIENCE 20. Transcription is- - a) Synthesis of DNA from preexisting DNA - b) Synthesis of proteins from DNA - c) Synthesis of RNA from DNA - d) Synthesis of protein from RNA 21. Synthesis of protein from a specific RNA is called as- - a) Central Dogma - b) Inheritance - c) Transcription - d) Translation 22. Reverse transcription takes place in- - a) Bacteria - b) Prokaryotic cells - c) Protozoa - d) Retro-viruses 23. Which type of RNA is/are translated to protein? - a) m (messenger) RNA - b) r (ribosomal) RNA - c) t (transfer) RNA - d) All of these 24. rRNAs form- - a) RER - b) Centrosome - c) Ribosome - d) DNA 25. What is the function of t-RNAs in Central Dogma? - a) To form m-RNA - b) To form protein - c) To form ribosome - d) To transfer amino acids to ribosome during translation 26. Which cell organelle is involved with translation? - a) Ribosome - b) Centrosome - c) R.E.R. - d) Golgi apparatus 27. Polysomes are formed during- - a) Central Dogma - b) Inheritance - c) Transcription - d) Translation 28. Transcription is a/an- - a) Nuclear Event - b) Cytoplasmic Event - c) Golgi bodies Event - d) Both (a) and (b) 29. Translation is a/an- - a) Nuclear Event - b) Cytoplasmic Event - c) Golgi bodies Event - d) Both (a) and (b) 30. Proteins are consist of- - a) Chain of ribo-nucleotides - b) Chain of deoxyribo- nucleotides - c) Chain of base pairs - d) Chain of amino acids 31. Bonds formed between amino acids in protein are- - a) Glycosidic bond - b) Ionic bonds - c) Covalent bonds - d) Peptide bonds 32. Transcription of active genes can take place from- - a) Chromatin - b) Eu-chromatin - c) Hetero-chromatin - d) Nucleolus 33. Inactive genes are present in- - a) Chromatin - b) Eu-chromatin - c) Hetero-chromatin - d) Nucleolus 34. Balbiani Rings are found, in- - a) Polytene chromosomes - b) Lamp brush chromosome - c) Dictyate chromosome - d) Both (a) and (b) 35. Polytene chromosome are characters of- - a) Oocytes of mammals - b) Oocytes of insects - c) Salivary glands of frogs - d) Salivary glands of fruit flies 36. Lamp brush chromosomes are found in- - a) Oocytes of mammals - b) Oocytes of frogs - c) Salivary glands of frogs - d) Salivary glands of fruit flies 37. Mutation can be defined as- - a) Sudden inheritable change in the genetic makeup of an organism. - b) Predictable change in the genetic makeup of an organism. - c) Sudden genetic change in an organism that will not inherit. - d) Sudden change in the phenotype of an organism. 38. Deletion and Inversion can be classified as- - a) Point mutation - b) Molecular mutation - c) Structural mutation - d) All of these 39. What is genome? - a) The number of chromosome present in the gamete of an organism. - b) The number of chromosome present in the somatic cell of an organism. - c) The number of chromosome present in the zygote of an organism. - d) The number of chromosomes present in the seeds of a plant. 40. If an organism has (4 × n) chromosome the condition can be called as - a) Euploidy - b) Aneuploidy - c) Haploidy - d) Diploidy 41. One very common use of polyploidy in agriculture is/ are- - a) Polyploid varieties of crops take short time to hervest - b) Polyploid crops are pest resistant - c) Polyploid fruits and vegetables generally are larger in size hence more marketable - d) All of these 42. If the cells of paddy leave have 24 chromosomes in them then how many chromosomes will be there in their edible portion (endosperm)? - a) 12 - b) 24 - c) 36 - d) 48 43. If a person has 3 × 18th chromosome in his cell the condition can be classified as- - a) Euploidy - b) Aneuploidy - c) Haploidy - d) Diploidy 44. How many chromosomes will there in the somatic cells of a patient with 'Down Syndrome'? - a) 23 - b) 46 - c) 47 - d) 45 45. Persons with 'Turner Syndrome' will have- - a) 47 chromosomes in his cells - b) 45 chromosomes in his cells - c) 47 chromosomes in her cells - d) 45 chromosomes in her cells 46. The cause of aneuploidy in human is mainly due to - a) Disjunction - b) Non- disjunction - c) Crossing over - d) Linkage 47. Which plant was chosen by Mendel for his experiment? - a) Drosophila - b) Arabidopsis - c) Chlorella - d) Pisum 48. How many contrasting characters of pea plant was chosen by Mendel for his experiment? - a) Two - b) Four - c) Six - d) Seven 49. Which of the following pair of characters of pea plant was not considered by Mendel for his experiment? - a) Tall pea plant × Dwarf pea plant - b) Purple flowered plant × White flowered pea plant - c) Yellow seeded pea × Green seeded pea - d) Climbing pea plant × Erect pea plant 50. Phenotype of an organism is- - a) All total genes present in an organism - b) All the alleles of a gene - c) The genetic arrangement of alleles of a gene - d) Expressions of a genotype 51. Mating between two plants with contrasting character is called as- - a) Crossing over - b) Linkage - c) Fortification - d) Hybridization 52. To make pea plants unisexual Mendel had to remove the stamens from some pea plants; this is called- - a) Castration - b) Orchidectomy - c) Emascultion - d) Anandrousization 53. If we are interested to observe the change in only one phenotype in a particular hybridization then that kind of hybridization is termed as- - a) Mono hybrid crosses - b) Monogamy - c) Monoecious - d) Dioecious 54. What are alleles? - a) Alternative forms of a gene - b) Alternative phenotypes of an organisnı - c) Genes with same phenotype - d) All of these 55. Homozygous individuals are— - a) Two organisms with same genotype. - b) An organism with two identical alleles of a gene. - c) Two organisms with two different copies of alleles of a gene. - d) An organism with two different allele of a gene. 56. An organism with two different alleles of a gene is called as- - a) Homozygous - b) Heterozygous - c) Hybrid - d) Both (b) and (c) 57. The phenotype of an heterozygous individual will be- - a) Intermediate of both parents - b) Like any one parent - c) Like the dominant allele - d) Like the recessive allele 58. What percent of F1 generation plants were heterozygous in Mendel's monohybrid cross? - a) 100% - b) 75% - c) 50% - d) 25%. 59. What percent of F2 generation plants, were heterozygous in Mendel's monohybrid cross? - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75% - d) 100%. 60. What percent of plants of F1 generation in Mendel's monohybrid cross were of dominant phenotype? - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75% - d) 100% 61. What percent of plants of F2 generation in Mendel's monohybrid cross were of dominant phenotype? - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75% - d) 100%. 62. The total percentage of homozygous (for both dominant and recessive alleles) individuals obtained in F2 generation in Mendel's Monohybrid cross were- - a) 25% - b) 50% - c) 75%.