ATPL Air Law and ATC Procedures PDF

Aır Law and ATC Procedures Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? A) Annex 17 B) Annex 16 C) Annex 15 D) Annex 18 What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? A) Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace B)...

Aır Law and ATC Procedures Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? A) Annex 17 B) Annex 16 C) Annex 15 D) Annex 18 What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide? A) Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace B) Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to territorial airspace C) Modern radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace D) Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force? A) The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation B) The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft C) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown D) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944? A) Geneva B) Chicago C) Montreal D) Rome The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the: A) Montreal convention 1948 B) Chicago convention 1944 C) Warsaw convention 1929 D) Geneva convention 1936 Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for: A) Facilitation B) Security C) none of the above D) Aerodromes Where there is an amendment to an International Standard a State must give notice to:  A) The ICAO Assembly within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment B) The ICAO Council within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment C) The ICAO Council within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment D) The ICAO Assembly within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights: A) To aircraft of scheduled air services only B) To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only C) To aircraft on non-commercial flights only D) To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services The Paris Convention of 1919 defined the status of international airspace and gave the authority to the Commander of the aeroplane to act in accordance with what law? A) International Law B) The law of the state of registration C) The law of the state of the aerodrome bf departure D) The law of the state of the operator The Air Navigation Commission consists of: A) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly B) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly C) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Council D) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: A) approve new international airlines B) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft C) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies D) develop principles and techniques for international aviation Which of the following concerning aviation, applies in areas where international law is applicable? A), The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane applies B), ICAO rules apply C), Law as agreed by the Geneva Convention on Territorial Waters and Contiguous Zones applies D), ICAO Law applies For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable?  A) For international flights B) For national carriers C) For domestic flights D) For cargo flights The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: A) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states B) binding for all air line companies with international traffic C) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference D) binding for all member states Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers: A) Facilitations B) Operation of aircraft C) Aerodromes D) Security Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944: A) All states in the world attended B) Only 52 nations were permitted to attend C) Each state was required to recognise the other states attending D) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard? A), The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only B), Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO C), The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP D), The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? A), ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections B), ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations C), ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention D), ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard: A), It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard B), It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard C), It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard D), It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: A), aeronautical standards adopted by all states B), proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes C), standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states D), standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rules of the Air over the high seas? A) The rules as defined by ICAO (Annex 2 to the Chicago Convention) apply B) The rules applicable are the rules as defined by the state of registration C) Rules are only applied where Oceanic Control is applied (i.e. Shanwick OCA etc.) D) There are no rules over the high seas What is the definition of HIGH SEAS? A) Sea areas more than 12 nm from the closest shore B) Sea areas outside of territorial waters of any state C) Sea areas where there is more than one state bordering the sea D) Sea state 6 or abov Where is the headquarters of ICAO? A) Montreal B) London C) Paris D) New York Non-scheduled aircraft of one contracting state have the right: A), To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non- traffic purposes, however, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight B), To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission C), To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic purposes, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight D), To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non- traffic purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly? A) The President of the Assembly B) The Air Navigation Commission C) The Council D) The Secretary General of ICAO An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must: A), Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying B), Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness C), Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration D), Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? A) the Assembly B) the Air Navigation Commission C) the Council D) the Regional Air Navigation meeting Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS: A) the Contracting States B) the ICAO Air Navigation Commission C) the ICAO Council D) the ICAO Assembly The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:  A) Montreal B) Warsaw C) The Hague D) Chicago Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)? A) Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS) B) ICAO Technical Manuals C) Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS) D) Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Licensing of Aircrew? A) Annex 9 B) Annex 2 C) Annex 1 D) Annex 6 The president of the ICAO Council is elected for: A) 10 years B) 1 year C) 3 years D) 5 years Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to... A) United Nations B) International Civil Aviation Organization C) the other Contracting States D) all States Members of United Nations The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: A) Montreal Convention B) Hague Convention C) Tokyo Convention D) Warsaw Convention The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from: A), The date of arrival at the destination B), The date of arrival at the destination, or from the time at which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased C), The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived, or from the date on which the carriage ceased D), The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the carriage ceased In which area of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essential role to play? A) National airspace management within Europe B) Regional air navigation planning in Europe C) Air Traffic Flow Management in Europe D) Regulation of civil aviation in Europe The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called: A) 5th freedom rights B) 1st freedom rights C) 3rd freedom rights D) 4th freedom rights The convention of Tokyo applies to damage: A), only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state B), the above convention does not deal with this item C), caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state D), caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised? A) 1st freedom B) 4th freedom C) 3rd freedom D) 2nd freedom The JAA is controlled by: A) The JAA Committee  B) ECAC C) The joint steering committee D) The JAA board The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is called: A) the First Freedom B) the Second Freedom C) the Third Freedom D) the Fourth Freedom The problems of hijacking were discussed at: A) the Tokyo convention B) the Montreal convention C) the Chicago convention D) the Geneva convention Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers? A) No B) Yes but only to internal, not international flights C) Yes, but only mail and international cargo D) Yes, but only to scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and 5th freedom flights) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: A) operator's license for international scheduled aviation B) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods C) the security system at airports D) limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-à -vis passenger and goods transported Which of the following is one of the main objectives of the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA)? A), To ensure common high levels of aviation safety in JAA states B), To take over the responsibility for aviation regulation in Europe from ICAO C), To establish the European Aviation Authority D), To ensure through regional legislation that European based aviation industry operations have preference within Europe Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the event of an act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state? A), The responsibility of the state is limited to the safety of the passengers only B), The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful Commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft C), Nothing D), The responsibility rests with the Commander not the contracting state The first freedom of the air is: A), The right to overfly without landing B), The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states C), The right to land for a technical stop D), The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state What did the Conference of Cyprus in 1990 establish? A) ECAC B) Eurocontrol C) The European Civil Aviation Organization D) The JAA In 1955 an intergovernmental organization was founded in Europe to promote the continuing development of a safe, efficient and sustainable European air transport system. What is the name of this organization? A) ECAC B) Joint Aviation Authority C) European Aviation Authority D) Eurocontrol Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state: A) the 1st freedom B) the 3rd freedom C) the 2nd freedom D) the 4th freedom 5th Freedom of the Air is: A), The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D) B), Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B) C), The right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’ s territory (B) to carrier’ s base nation (A) D), The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A What is the status of IATA? A), It is an associate body of ICAO B), It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation C), It represents the air transport operators at ICAO D), It is the international legislative arm of ICAO The Warsaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents. Specifically what was agreed with regard to passengers? A), That a limit of liability be applied in all cases where a claim was made against the carrier B), That a passenger was carried at his/her own risk C), That claims for compensation, except claims involving gross negligence, be limited to an agreed sum D), That compensation would be payable only in the event of death in a crash Is the JAA membership restricted to the members of the European Union? A) No B) Yes, but non EU member states may apply for associate status C) No, but only non EU states that have applied for membership of the EU may join D) Yes without exception The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following freedom of the air: A) 4th freedom B) 3rd freedom C) 1st freedom D) 2nd freedom An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy condition if: A) It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred B) It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft C) It receives permission of the State of Registry  D) The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away The second freedom of the air is the: A), right to overfly without landing B), right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states C), right to " cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic) D), right to land for a technical stop The convention which deals with offences against penal law is: A) the convention of Warsaw B) the convention of Tokyo C) the convention of Madrid D) the convention of Rome Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying or damaging any air navigation facility punishable? A) The Chicago convention B) The Tokyo convention C) The Montreal convention D) The Warsaw convention If a state applied CABOTAGE, what would be prevented? A), Internal scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A B), Privately operated air taxi services C), International operations from state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A D), Non-scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A What does the second Freedom of the Air permit? A), To put down passengers mail and cargo in a state have taken them on in another state B), To fly across the territory of another state without landing C), To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state D), To transport passengers, mail and cargo for valuable consideration from one aerodrome in a state to another in the same state What is the relationship between the JAA and ECAC? A) ECAC is a part of the JAA administration division B) The JAA is part of ECAC C) The JAA is an associate body of ECAC D) The JAA is another name for ECAC According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise jurisdiction over acts committed on board an aeroplane? A) The Commander B) The State of the Operator C) The State of Registration D) The State over which the aeroplane was flying when the act took place How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention? A) By informing Japanese Civil Aviation Administration B) By informing all ICAO member states C) By informing all ICAO member states and ICAO D) By informing ICAO According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft? A) The Convention of Rome B) The Convention of Tokyo C) The Convention of Chicago D) The Convention of Warsaw The privilege to fly across the territory of another participating state without landing is called: A) the fifth freedom of the air B) the fourth freedom of the air C) the first freedom of the air D) the second freedom of the air A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the accident that caused the damage: A), Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking or after the booking in of the passenger B), Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking C), Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking including time spent after the passenger has checked in for flight D), Took place on board the aircraf What privilege does the first 'Freedom of the Air' grant? A), To pick up passengers, mail or cargo in a state and deliver to another aerodrome in that state B), To fly across the territory of a state without landing in that state C), To take on passengers, mail and cargo in the territory of another state destined for the territory of another state D), Technical (non-commercial) landings in the territory of another state The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within: A) 2 years B) 5 years C) 6 months D) 1 year 6th Freedom of the Air is: A), Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B) B), A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carrier’ s base nation (B) C), The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D) D), The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A) The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft is called: A) the convention of Rome B) the convention of Chicago C) the convention of Tokyo D) the convention of Paris " Cabotage" refers to: A) a flight above territorial waters B) domestic air services C) crop spraying D) a national air carrier Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where the limit of compensation is limited to US$10 000 except in cases of gross negligence?  A) Paris B) Warsaw C) Rome D) Tokyo Which convention on international air navigation resulted in the agreements concerning the responsibilities with illegal acts committed on board aircraft? A) The Geneva Convention B) The Tokyo Convention C) The Montreal Convention D) The Chicago Convention What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not destined for the state in which the aeroplane has landed in, known as? A) Duty free zoning B) Open skies policy C) Green Channel operations D) Facilitation When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expedious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: A), two aforementioned States and the ICAO B), two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO C), two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO D), two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft and the ICAO What is cabotage? A) Flying over territorial waters B) Domestic air services by an operator within another State C) A severe form of sabotage D) The fourth freedom of the air What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act? A) Military flights only B) Public transport flights only  C) Private flights only D) All flights What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for? A), The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing B), The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of refueling C), The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state D), Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas The privilege of landing in another state for a technical stop only is called: A) the first freedom of the air B) the second freedom of the air C) the third freedom of the air D) the fifth freedom of the air Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface? A) The Rome convention B) The Tokyo Convention C) The Montreal convention D) The Guatemala Convention The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law... A) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members B) may request such person to disembark C) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person D) may deliver such person to the competent authorities Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined? A) In the Air Navigation Order B) In the Ops Manual C) In Annex 6 with additional JAR-OPS 1 requirements taking precedence D) In Annex 1 with additional responsibilities detailed in Annex 6 What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law? A) Land in any country and off-load the offender B) Answers a, b and c are all correct C) Deliver the person to the competent authority D) Use force to place the person in custody The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: A) the Tokyo Convention B) the Rome Convention C) the Paris Convention D) the Warsaw Convention The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: A) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods B) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft C) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface D) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the ground, held? A) Tokyo B) Paris C) Rome D) Warsaw If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in another state, which convention covers this? A) Tokyo B) Rome C) Paris D) Chicago Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: A) the Montreal Convention B) the Warsaw Convention C) the Chicago Convention D) the Rome Convention Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the ground? A), The Commander is responsible providing that no other person can be held responsible B), The aerodrome manager authority, if the incident happened inside the boundary of the aerodrome C), The Operator D), The pilot actually flying or at the controls when the incident happened What is a JAA operator required to do before he is permitted to WET LEASE IN an aeroplane from a non JAA operator? A) Obtain the permission of the JAA B) Demonstrate that there is no JAA operator who has an aeroplane available for lease C) Subject the aeroplane to a major overhaul in accordance with JAR 145 D) Check that the crew licences are valid If a JAA operator (A) provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to another JAA operator (B) (a wet lease-out situation), who is the operator of the aeroplane? A), B - providing they absolve operator A of any responsibility in the manner in which the aeroplane is operated B), B - because they are charging the passengers for carriage C), A - because it is their crew flying the aeroplane D), A - providing the functions and responsibilities of JAR OPS 2 are retained The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes: A) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass B) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass C) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass D) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if: A), the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy B), the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy C), the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy D), the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness? A), The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements B), Only such qualified Contracting States specifically listed in Annex 7 C), Always the Contracting State in which the power plants have been designed, manufactured and approved D), None of the listed here Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness: A) The nationality or common mark and registration mark B) The aircraft serial number C) The name and address of the owner D) The category of aircraft The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to: A), aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of passengers only B), aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation C), aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or mail in international air navigation D), aeroplanes of over 25,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane? A) The Commander B) The certifying manager for the JAR 145 approved maintenance operation C) The State of Registry D) The Owner/Operator The standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to: A) Aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700kgs B) Passenger carrying aeroplanes C) Large turbojet powered aeroplanes D) Large airplanes Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness? A) The authority of the state of the Operator B) The authority of the state of registration C) The Operator D) The authority of the state of manufacture According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the: A) Laws of the State of registry and operation B) Laws of the State of registry C) Requirements laid down by ICAO D) Laws of the State in which is operated Who is responsible for the issuance of a certificate of airworthiness? A) The authority of State of Registration B) ICAO C) The Operator D) The JAA The continuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon what? A), The continued use of the aeroplane for the purpose stated on the certificate of registration B), The continued airworthiness of the aeroplane as determined by periodic inspections C), The establishment of a schedule for servicing and repair of the aeroplane in accordance with JAR 145 D), The continued registration of the aeroplane The loading limitations shall include: A) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity  B) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading C) all limiting mass and centers of gravity D) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loading Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft? A) Annex 14 B) Annex 11 C) Annex 6 D) Annex 7 When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example: A) PAN B) RCC C) DDD D) LL According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: A) the International Telecommunication Union B) the state of registry only C) the state of registry or common mark registering authority D) the International Civil Aviation Organization Regarding an aircraft Certificate of Registration: A) Aircraft can only be registered in one country B) Aircraft registration cannot be changed from one state to another C) Aircraft can be registered in more than one state D) Aircraft may only have one owner Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Markings). These include: A) XXX PAN TTT B) OOO MAY DAY C) LLL ZZZ YYY D) EEE LLL NHQ The certificate of registration shall: A) Be carried on board the aircraft at all times B) Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger C) Be visible to the passengers at all times  D) Both a) and c) are correct Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains: A) SARPS B) Recommendations only C) Standards only D) PANS Visual Flight Rules:Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the: Ceiling is less than 2000' or the ground visibility is less than 5 km Ceiling is less than 1000' or the ground visibility is less than 5 km Ceiling is less than 1000' or the ground visibility is less than 8 km Ceiling is less than 1500' or the ground visibility is less than 5 km While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan Squawk 7700 The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case: It is a deviation from the track. The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes. The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan. Of an emergency. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: Must stop. Must vacate the landing area in use. May continue to taxi to the take-off area. Must return to its point of departure. Approach procedures - Final approach segmentIn a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: FAF. MAP. FAP. IF. Aerodrome traffic is: All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. All traffic in the aerodrome circuit. All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. All traffic on the manoeuvring area. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: Achieving separation between IFR flights Achieving separation between controlled flights Providing advisory service Providing flight Information Service The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: 10 minutes. 3 minutes. 15 minutes. 5 minutes An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted, IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as Airspace D Airspace B Airspace E Airspace A The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: To provide radar separation. To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory. To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment. To assist aircraft on the location storms. The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is: 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: 3.0 NM. 5.0 NM. 3.5 NM. 10.0 NM. Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate DME-frequencies OCA or OCH AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP? AD ENR MET GEN 'TODA' take-off distance available is: The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way. How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? 3. 2. 1. None. Runway threshold lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. Fixed lights showing green or white colours. Fixed lights green colours. AuthorityThe final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft is the: ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace Pilot-in-command Operator Aircraft owner Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights Switching on and off four times the navigation lights Switching on and off four times the landing lights Switching on and off three times the landing lights Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: Must stop. May continue to taxi towards the take-off area. Is cleared for take-off. Must return to its point of departure Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight DeparturesA straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: 30°. 45°. 15°. 12.5°. Altimeter setting (change during climb)On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the: Transition altitude. Level specified by A Transition level. Transition layer. SSR - TransponderWhen an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code 7500. 7000. 7600. 7700. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: Providing advisory services Providing flight Information Service Providing alerting services Achieving separation between controlled flights The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes. 15 minutes. 10 minutes. 3 minutes. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified Airspace G Airspace E Airspace F Airspace D Separation Methods and Minima - GeneralWhat are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC? Vertical, horizontal and angular separation. Time separation and track separation. Vertical and horizontal separation. Composite separation. Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa Only in airspace class A Above the transition altitude when applicable If the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises 'on Track' DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is: 25 NM 10 NM 40 NM 20 NM AIPWhich part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? METEO ENR AD GEN An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements AIP, including amendment service Supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries AIP, supplements to AIP NOTAM and PIB AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue? GEN SAR AD ENR 'Clearway' is defined rectangular area established to: Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off. Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: Fixed lights showing blue. Fixed lights showing yellow. Fixed lights showing green. Fixed lights showing white Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: Fixed lights showing variable white Flashing white Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow Fixed lights, white or yellow colour Avoidance of collisionsThe highest priority for landing has: An aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing). An Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention. An aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state). A military aircraft OCAAn OCA is referenced to: The Aerodrome Reference Point The relevant Runway Threshold Mean Sea Level An Aerodrome Elevation Altimeter setting procedures - Transition AltitudeThe transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than: 2500 ft. 3000 ft. 1000 ft. 1500 ft. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes. 3 minutes. 10 minutes. 6 minutes. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? Annex 14 Annex 11 Annex 17 Annex 6 Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in: Have to be as indicated by ICAO council Has to be the same as the underlying flight information region Have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings Need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as Airspace F and G Airspace F Airspace C Airspace E and F An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is A NOTAM A SIGMET information An En-Route Meteo Report An AIRMET information Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is: 2000 feet (600 m). 500 feet (150 m). 1000 feet (300 m). 2500 feet (750 m) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM. To conduct precision radar approach (PAR). To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima. To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights. Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 5 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes 10 minutes AIP Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available? AD FAL GEN ENR The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures? GEN ENR MAP AD In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: Flashing lights showing variable white. Fixed lights showing variable green. Flashing lights showing variable green. Fixed lights showing variable white. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: Flashing green Fixed green Fixed white Flashing white Visual Flight RulesAn aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least A distance from cloud of 1000 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km. A distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 8 km. A distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km. A distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: Come back and land. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. Dangerous airfield. Do not land. Approach Procedures - Missed Approach - PhasesA complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases? Arrival, intermediate and final. Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. Initial and final. Initial, intermediate and final. Altimeter setting procedures - Transition LevelThe vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported: As Height. As Flight Level. According to pilot's choice. As Altitude. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: Flight Information Service and Alerting Service. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service. Flight Information Service only. Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR Otherwise hourly Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 3 minutes. 5 minutes. 2 minutes. 10 minutes. General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delayIn the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of: 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure. 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks. 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks. Separation methods and minima - vertical separationThe Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is: 1000 feet (300 m). 2000 feet (600 m). 4000 feet (1200 m). 500 feet (150 m). Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be 10 minutes 3 minutes 2 minutes 5 minutes AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas? GEN AD ENR The AIP does not contain this information An AIRAC is: A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations. An acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures. A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation. A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries. The abbreviation PAPI stands for: Precision Approach Path Index. Precision Approach Power Index. Precision Approach Power Indicator. Precision Approach Path Indicator. The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be: Blue colour identification given by Morse Code. Green colour identification given by Morse Code. White colour identification given by Morse Code. White and green colour identification given by Morse Code. In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation: Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence. Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and CPL. Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. Is only considered for PPL The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10000' MSL are: 1500 m horizontally and 1000' vertically from clouds 8 km visibility 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000' vertically from clouds 8 km visibility 2000 metres horizontally, 1000' vertically from clouds 8 km visibility 1 mile horizontally and 1000' vertically from clouds 5 km visibility A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling The airport is unsafe, do not land Continue circling and wait for further instructions Give way to other aircraft in emergency Approach Procedures - CirclingThe term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: Visual manoeuvring (circling). Aerodrome traffic pattern. Contact approach. Visual approach. SSR special codesATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320.In case of losing two way radio communication, you have to squawk: Mode A Code 7700 Mode A Code 5320 Mode A Code 7500 Mode A Code 7600 Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the Earth. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1.000 feet above the Earth. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified limit. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds: 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10000') AMSL and clear of clouds 8 km below 3050 m (10000') AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5 km below 3050 m (10000') AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc444 4)A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) true air speed, 5) flight level or altitude, 6) next position and time over. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over. 1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point. Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircra A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in: Weather noted A position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time Urgent messages Flight identification and weather noted Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be 10 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes 15 minutes A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: AIRA Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). NOTAM. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration. Six months or longer Three months or longer Two months or longer One year or longer Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud. VULTAM ASHTAM VOLCAM NAVTAM In the 'Aerodrome Reference Code' the code element 2 shall identify: Only the aircraft wing span. The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span. The length of the aircraft fuselage. The width of the aircraft wing. The 'PAPI' shall consist of: A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced. Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. In the 'VASIS' , how many light units are in each wing bar? 3. 5. 4. 2. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: The state of registry only The International Civil Aviation Organisation The state of registry or common mark registering authority The International Telecommunication Union Visual Flight RulesAbove an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class 'G' in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima: A distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km. A distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km. A distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km. A distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km. Arrival and Approach segments, GeneralWhat are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure? Initial, intermediate, final. Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach. Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach. Descend, holding arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if The state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy The state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy The state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy The state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds Separation methods and minima - vertical separation (non-RVSM)Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is 3000' 2000' 1500' 4000' Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME- distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend 12 NM 15 NM 10 NM 20 NM Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: NOTAM PANS AIRAC IFPS In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: Above the approach slope. On or close to the approach slope. Only on the approach slope. Below the approach slope. The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is: Annex 11 Annex 2 Annex 12 Annex 1 A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: 3% 5% 10 % 2% Altimeter setting procedures - Definitions The Transition Level: Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude. Is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command. Is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP. Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is: Control zone. Control area. Flight information region. Advisory airspace. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. Uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. Uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft 'on track' uses DME stations, is: 10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM. 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as: Airspace E Airspace D Airspace B Airspace C General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delayIn the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original Estimated off-block time by 30 minutes. Estimated off-block time by 60 minutes. Estimated departure time by 30 minutes. Estimated departure time by 60 minutes. Which code shall be used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? Code 7500. Code 2000. Code 7600. Code 7700. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? 500 feet 1000 feet 2000 feet 1500 feet The letter 'L' is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: 14 000 kg. 7 000 kg. 5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters. 20 000 kg. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: Only NOTAMs and Circulars. Only AIP and NOTAMs. Integrated Aeronautical Information Package. AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRA A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: Not more than one month Not more than 2 months Not more than 28 days Not more than three months The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows: NOTAM AIP Amendments Trigger NOTAM AIP Supplements In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' - for 3 'L', 'C' and 'R'. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' and the central has no letter. By a letter for 2 parallel runways. By a number like '0' and '01' for 2 parallel runways High intensity obstacle lights should be: Fixed orange. Flashing white. Fixed red. Flashing red Interception An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A Code 7600 Code 7500 Code 7000 Code 7700 VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050 m (10000') MSL are: 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds No minima, VFR flights are not permitted 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. Give way to another aircraft. Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. Not land because the airport is not available for landing. Approach Procedures - Non-precision - straight-inA so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is: 40° or less 30° or less 10° or less 20° or less A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is: Control zone. Advisory airspace. Control area. Air traffic zone. The units providing Air Traffic Services are: Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower. A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case: The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted. To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E : A clearance is required. A clearance and two-way radio communication is required. Two way radio communication is not required. A clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as Airspace B Airspace E Airspace D Airspace C The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be: 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class: E airspace C, D and E airspace D airspace D and E airspace If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 1 6) of a flight plan form... Write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport. Write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport. Write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a list with 'Location Indicators'? ENR AD GEN LOC A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: No more than 15 days Not more than one month Not more than 10 days Not more than 28 days 'Instrument runways' are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures Precision approach runways category I, II and III. Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. Precision approach runways in general. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped. A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency. A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway. Taxiway edge lights shall be: Fixed showing blue. Flashing showing blue. Fixed showing yellow. Fixed showing green Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: Fixed red or preferably blue. Fixed red or preferably orange. Flashing blue. Flashing red or preferably yellow. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: Operator's licence for international scheduled aviation The regulation of transportation of dangerous goods The security system at airports Limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft: Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. Must land immediately and clear the landing area. Must give way to another aircraft. Is cleared to land. Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segmentsIn an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: Intermediate approach segment. Initial approach segment. Arrival segment. Final approach segment. SSR - TransponderWhen an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace. Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. Only when directed by AT At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Alert phase is defined as follows: A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted. A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants. A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency. An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: Airspace B Airspace D Airspace A Airspace E Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of The meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s) Both air traffic services and the meteorological office The air traffic services The unit as prescribed by the state A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is: Medium / Poor Good Poor Medium The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: NOTAM, AIP and MAL. Only in AIP. Only in NOTAM. In NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is YELLOW RED ORANGE GREEN 'ASDA' (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided). The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway. Runway end lights shall be: Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway. Fixed lights showing variable white. Fixed lights showing variable red. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: Flashing red. Flashing yellow. Fixed orange. Fixed red. A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes: Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers Provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land Only permission to land The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width. The longest aeroplane maximum width only The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? Annex 14 Annex 10 Annex 11 Annex 6 A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference, Until their journey can be continued If is requested by an individual passenger And arrange for them to return to their country of origin During a period of investigation Accident, Incident notification and reporting.After landing, while taxiing towards the apron the landing gear sinks into a hole. Nobody gets injured, but the aircraft sustains a structural failure. This obliges the crew to delay the departure. This is an irregularity in the operation. The crew must inform the operator of the aerodrome and establish a report. Since there is no person injured and the flight is terminated, a damage report has to be made out with the services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and taxiways for the insurance company. This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 h. This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II: 300m 150m 600m 900m The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is: Annex 8 Annex 6 Annex 9 Annex 15 The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by: ECAC ICAO ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned Each contracting state Accident investigationWho is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation? The Operators of the same aircraft type. The Authority of the State in which the accident took place. The State of design and manufacturer. The aircraft manufacturer. What is a 'barrette'? A high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway. Three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights. A frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed. A CAT II or III holding positio The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is: Annex 8 Annex 9 Annex 16 Annex 15 When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft The persons not subjected to security control shall be identified Only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened Only the passengers are to be re screened The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted into the Contracting State of destination. The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator. The operator has no obligation. The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane. The stated above is correct. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply: Only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo To all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights Only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: Always of a straight row of lights towards the runway Of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway Of an arbitrary amount of green lights Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: Cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms Cargo and is covered by a traffic document Cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment Accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme, At each airport Only for administrative staff of airport For every airline operating in the State That is common for all airports within State The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers Checked baggage, cargo and other goods And baggage Checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design Search and RescueThe unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service is the: Rescue Co-ordination Centre Area Control Centre Flight Information Centre Alerting Centre SSR - Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace. Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. Only when directed by AT At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. SSR - Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code 7500. 7000. 7600. 7700. Which one of the statements is correct? Contracting States shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers. Contracting States shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew. Contracting States shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew. Contracting States may not accept oral declaration of baggages. Which of the following signals is a distress signal? The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights. A parachute flare showing a red light. In radiotelephony the spoken words PAN, PAN. The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: At every ATS facility. At every international airport. If they are adjacent to the sea. In each search and rescue region. At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these search and rescue ground signals, the pilot shall: Fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible. Make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty. Switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice. Transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency? 121.5 MHz 243 MHz 243 kHz 2182 kHz Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure? Both passengers to pass through security. Passenger A to pass through security again. Passenger B to pass through security. Both passengers and their luggage to pass through security. Where unaccompanied baggage is carried on board an aircraft: The baggage is to be place in a secure and isolated area in the baggage hold. The baggage must be searched before loading aboard the aircraft. Quarantine procedures are to be applied. Additional security measures are to be applied. If unidentified baggage is found at an airport: The baggage must be placed in a secure and isolated area in case it contains explosive devices. It is not to be transported by air. The baggage is to be subject to additional security measures. The baggage must be searched before loading on to an aeroplane. Definition of Security, the ICAO Annex 17, is a combination of measures: Intended to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. Intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation. And human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference. Each Contracting State shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken. These measures are of the discretion of the Contracting State. The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings. Correct. The above question statement is incomplete. The pilot-in-command and the aircraft operator are to be informed. The aim of aviation security is the following: Ensure that adequate maintenance standards are applied by all operators. Safeguard international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference. Ensure that commercial flight operations are safe end secure. Regulate the transportation of dangerous goods by air. A passenger's sporting shotgun may be carried on an aircraft: With the commander's permission, unloaded in an overhead locker. But not if it is a public transport flight. With the operator's permission, the commander's knowledge, unloaded and in a place where the passengers have no access. With the operator's permission.