UNISA COS2626-24-Y Assessment 2 (2024) PDF
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This UNISA COS2626-24-Y assessment covers network protocols for 2024.
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UNISA 2024 COS2626-24-Y Welcome Message Assessment 2 QUIZ Started on Tuesday, 11 June 2024, 6:43 AM State Finished Completed on Wednesday, 12 June 2024, 8:00 AM Time taken 1 day 1 hour Grade 57.00 out of 60....
UNISA 2024 COS2626-24-Y Welcome Message Assessment 2 QUIZ Started on Tuesday, 11 June 2024, 6:43 AM State Finished Completed on Wednesday, 12 June 2024, 8:00 AM Time taken 1 day 1 hour Grade 57.00 out of 60.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 1. Which of the following are NOT Application layer protocols (More than one protocol applies)? a. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) b. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) c. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) d. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) e. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) f. IP (Internet Protocol) v6 The correct answers are: ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol), TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), UDP (User Datagram Protocol), ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), IP (Internet Protocol) v6 Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 2. Which one of the following is a function of the Application layer? a. Provides frame error detection in the form of a CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) code. b. Routes packets through an internetwork. c. Protects data with a checksum. d. Data formatting and translation. The correct answer is: Data formatting and translation. Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 3. Which one of the following statements regarding e-mail protocols is NOT TRUE? a. E-mail clients use POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) to download incoming messages from an e-mail server to their local desktops. b. POP3 uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 121. c. IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol version 4) has the capability to manage messages locally yet store them on a server. d. IMAP4 uses TCP port 143. e. POP3 is used to retrieve e-mail and SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used to send it. f. SMTP uses TCP port 25. The correct answer is: POP3 uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 121. Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 4. Which protocol uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 21 for sending control commands? a. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) b. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) c. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) d. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) The correct answer is: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 5. ________is an Application-layer protocol used to monitor and manage network devices, and operates on ________ ports, ________and ________. a. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), 67 and 68 b. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), UDP (User Datagram Protocol), 161 and 162 c. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), TCP, 25 and 26 d. FTP (File Transfer Protocol), UDP, 20 and 21 The correct answer is: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), UDP (User Datagram Protocol), 161 and 162 Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 6. The first packet in the four-packet exchange between a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) client and server is the DHCPRequest. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE? a. True b. False The correct answer is: False Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 7. Which part of the address www.marketing.localdomain.org is the top-level domain name? a. org b. www c. localdomain d. marketing The correct answer is: org Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 8. What does the SRV (Service) record do in a DNS (Domain Name System) zone? a. Allows DNS clients to request the address of a server that provides a specific service instead of querying the server by name. b. It identifies the authoritative name server for a domain. c. It identifies the e-mail server to be used for e-mail traffic for the domain. d. It holds the alternative names for a host. The correct answer is: Allows DNS clients to request the address of a server that provides a specific service instead of querying the server by name. Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 9. Where does a DNS (Domain Name System) server look when it cannot resolve a query from its zone records or cache? a. Root hints b. Alternate server c. Top-level domain d. BIND The correct answer is: Root hints Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 10. Which statements regarding IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) or IP are INCORRECT (More than one statement applies)? a. IP is a Network access-layer protocol. b. IP is a connection-oriented protocol, so it is efficient and reliable. c. IPv4 defines a 64-bit dotted decimal address. d. The protocol field in an IP header is a numeric code specifying the type of IP packet or the next-layer protocol contained in the packet. The correct answers are: IP is a Network access-layer protocol., IP is a connection-oriented protocol, so it is efficient and reliable., IPv4 defines a 64-bit dotted decimal address. Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 11. Which statements regarding TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) are CORRECT (More than one statement applies)? a. TCP and UDP are both Transport layer protocols. b. TCP is connection-oriented and unreliable. c. UDP is connection-oriented and reliable. d. TCP and UDP protect data with a checksum. The correct answers are: TCP and UDP are both Transport layer protocols., TCP and UDP protect data with a checksum. Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 12. Which one of the following is used by TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol) to specify the source and destination Application-layer protocols? a. Segment numbers b. Window size headers c. Port numbers d. IP addresses The correct answer is: Port numbers Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 13. Which of the following features are NOT found in UDP (User Datagram Protocol) (More than one feature applies)? a. Establishing a connection b. Port numbers c. Checksum d. Ensuring flow control with acknowledgements The correct answers are: Establishing a connection, Ensuring flow control with acknowledgements Question 14 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 14. From the list below, HOW MANY are improvements and changes of IPv6 over IPv4? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 The correct answer is: 4 Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 15. Which of the following are tasks performed by the Network Access layer (More than one task applies)? a. Verifies that incoming frames have the correct destination MAC (Media Access Control) address. b. Defines and verifies IP (Internet Protocol) addresses. c. Transmits and receives bit signals. d. Resolves MAC addresses by using IP addresses. e. Delivers packets efficiently. The correct answers are: Verifies that incoming frames have the correct destination MAC (Media Access Control) address., Transmits and receives bit signals. Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 16. Which subnet mask should you use if you want 16 bits of host address space? a. 255.255.0.0 b. 255.16.0.0 c. 255.255.255.16 d. 255.255.255.0 The correct answer is: 255.255.0.0 Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 17. What is the network ID of the IP (Internet Protocol) address 172.19.48.16 with subnet mask 255.255.240.0? a. 172.19.0.0 b. 172.19.32.0 c. 172.19.48.0 d. 172.19.240.0 The correct answer is: 172.19.48.0 Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 18. Which one of the following is an invalid IP address/prefix to assign to a host? a. 172.31.0.255/16 b. 172.16.255.128/25 c. 201.18.149.32/26 d. 10.255.0.0/8 The correct answer is: 172.16.255.128/25 Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 19. The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10000001 is 133. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE? a. True b. False The correct answer is: False Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 20. Which IPv4 address is a Class C address? a. 225.100.149.20 b. 125.88.1.66 c. 193.19.101.11 d. 177.14.23.19 The correct answer is: 193.19.101.11 Question 21 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 21. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)/IP (Internet Protocol)’s technical governing body reserved a series of addresses for private networks – this is networks whose hosts cannot be accessed directly through the Internet. Which one of the following is NOT a reserved address? a. For Class A, all addresses beginning with 10 b. For Class B, addresses from 172.16 to 172.31 c. For Class C, addresses from 201.168.0 to 201.168.255 The correct answer is: For Class C, addresses from 201.168.0 to 201.168.255 Question 22 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 22. Which IP (Internet Protocol) address expressed in CIDR (Classless Inter- Domain Routing) notation has the subnet mask 255.255.255.0? a. 10.100.44.123/24 b. 172.16.88.222/16 c. 192.168.100.1/26 d. 172.29.111.201/18 The correct answer is: 10.100.44.123/24 Question 23 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 23. If your original network address with prefix is 172.16.0.0/16, what should your new network address with prefix be if you need 16 subnets? a. 172.16.16.0/16 b. 172.16.0.0/24 c. 172.16.0.0/28 d. 172.16.0.0/20 The correct answer is: 172.16.0.0/20 Question 24 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 24. How many bits must be reallocated from a host ID to a network ID to create 16 subnets? a. 6 b. 4 c. 16 d. 28 The correct answer is: 4 Question 25 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 25. For the Class C network address 192.168.10.0, which one of the following subnet masks provides 32 subnets? a. 255.255.255.252 b. 255.255.255.248 c. 255.255.255.240 d. 255.255.255.224 The correct answer is: 255.255.255.248 Question 26 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 26. Which IP (Internet Protocol) network address expressed in CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) notation can support a maximum of 1022 hosts? a. 10.100.44.0/24 b. 172.16.4.0/22 c. 192.168.100.64/26 d. 172.29.128.0/18 The correct answer is: 172.16.4.0/22 Question 27 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 27. Your network address is 192.168.100.0. Which prefix allows you to assign 30 host addresses? a. /29 b. /30 c. /27 d. /28 The correct answer is: /27 Question 28 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 28. Your computer's IP address is 201.18.149.37/28. Which one of the following is a valid default gateway for this address? a. 201.18.149.46 b. 201.18.149.17 c. 201.18.149.32 d. 201.18.149.48 The correct answer is: 201.18.149.46 Question 29 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 29. How many host bits are necessary to assign addresses to 62 hosts? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3 The correct answer is: 6 Question 30 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 30. You have just run the ipconfig command and after you did you see that your IP (Internet Protocol) address is 0.0.0.0. What option did you use on the ipconfig command? a. /flush b. /all c. /release d. /renew The correct answer is: /release Question 31 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 31. Which statements regarding NAT (Network Address Translation) and PAT (Port Address Translation) are CORRECT (More than one statement applies)? a. NAT translates a private IP (Internet Protocol) address to a public IP address and there is a one-to-one ratio of private to public addresses. b. PAT includes the port number which is unique for each translation so a single public IP address can be used to translate multiple private IP addresses. c. PAT translates a private IP address to a public IP address and there is a one-to-one ratio of private to public addresses. d. NAT includes the port number which is unique for each translation so a single public IP address can be used to translate multiple private IP addresses. The correct answers are: NAT translates a private IP (Internet Protocol) address to a public IP address and there is a one-to-one ratio of private to public addresses., PAT includes the port number which is unique for each translation so a single public IP address can be used to translate multiple private IP addresses. Question 32 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 32. Which of the following IPv6 features is an enhancement to IPv4 (More than one feature applies)? a. Larger address space b. Works at the Internetwork and Transport layers c. Built-in support for security d. Connectionless communication The correct answers are: Larger address space, Built-in support for security Question 33 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 33. What is the hexadecimal number F equal to in binary? a. 0011 b. 1011 c. 1001 d. 1111 The correct answer is: 1111 Question 34 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 34. The last 64 bits of an IPv6 address are the interface identifier. An IPv6 interface ID can be assigned to a host in which of the following ways (More than one option applies)? a. Using the IP (Internet Protocol) address. b. Using a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server. c. By means of an ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) broadcast. d. Using the 48-bit MAC (Media Access Control) address. e. By means of a randomly generated permanent interface identifier. The correct answers are: Using the 48-bit MAC (Media Access Control) address., By means of a randomly generated permanent interface identifier. Question 35 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 35. How many bits are available in an IPv6 network for creating subnets when the prefix is /48 and the host ID is 64 bits? a. 48 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64 The correct answer is: 16 Question 36 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 36. The Application layer in the TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) is equivalent to the Network, Application and Presentation layers of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE? a. True b. False The correct answer is: False Question 37 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 37. The segmenting of the data is important because every network technology has a maximum frame size called the ________. a. MFU (Maximum Frame Unit) b. MPU (Maximum Packet Unit) c. MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) d. MSU (Maximum Segment Unit) The correct answer is: MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) Question 38 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 38. Given the following functions/descriptions, identify the layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model responsible for the function. a. (i) Network; (ii) Application; (iii) Presentation; (iv) Session b. (i) Presentation; (ii) Application; (iii) Session; (iv) Transport c. (i) Session; (ii) Network; (iii) Application; (iv) Presentation d. (i) Physical; (ii) Network; (iii) Transport; (iv) Application The correct answer is: (i) Session; (ii) Network; (iii) Application; (iv) Presentation Question 39 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 39. What is a PDU (Protocol Data Unit)? a. It is an Application layer protocol that handles delivery of messages. b. It is a unit of measurement for the maximum amount of data that can be transferred. c. It is the name given to the unit of information used by each layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model. d. It is a Network layer protocol that handles path determination. The correct answer is: It is the name given to the unit of information used by each layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model. Question 40 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 40. Which field would you find in the Transport-layer header? a. Destination IP (Internet Protocol) address b. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) c. Source MAC (Media Access Control) address d. Window size The correct answer is: Window size Question 41 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 41. Encoding is a process performed by the Physical layer that takes the frame from the Data Link layer and changes it into 1s and 0s to be transmitted onto the medium. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE? a. True b. False The correct answer is: True Question 42 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 42. Which statements regarding the PDU (Protocol Data Unit) at each layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model is INCORRECT (More than one statement applies)? a. The PDU for the Application, Presentation, and Session layers is data. b. The PDU at the Transport layer is a packet. c. The PDU at the Network layer is a segment. d. The PDU at the Data Link layer is a frame. e. The final PDU is in the form of bits at the Physical layer. The correct answers are: The PDU at the Transport layer is a packet., The PDU at the Network layer is a segment. Question 43 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 43. In the IEEE 802 standards, each number after the dot represents which one of the following? a. The year the standard was drafted. b. The year the standard was revised. c. A different technology or subset of a technology. d. A subset of another standard. The correct answer is: A different technology or subset of a technology. Question 44 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 44. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to Wireless Networks? a. 802.2 b. 802.3 c. 802.4 d. 802.5 e. 802.11 The correct answer is: 802.11 Question 45 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 45. What function does the LLC (Logical Link Control) sublayer of the Data Link layer provide? a. Coordinates communication between applications b. Error recovery and flow control c. Physical device addressing d. Controls access to network media The correct answer is: Error recovery and flow control Question 46 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 46. Which one of the following statements regarding the properties of a switch is FALSE? a. Switches determine the path used based on the destination IP (Internet Protocol) address. b. Switches broadcast frames out all connected ports except the port where the frame was received. c. Each port on a switch represents a separate collision domain. d. Switch ports can operate in full-duplex mode. The correct answer is: Switches determine the path used based on the destination IP (Internet Protocol) address. Question 47 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 47. When a switch attempts to set a port’s operating mode to the highest performance setting the device supports, what mode is the switch operating in? a. auto-negotiate mode b. auto-MDIX (Media-Dependent Interface Crossed) c. auto-generate mode d. auto-sync mode The correct answer is: auto-negotiate mode Question 48 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 48. There can be only one MAC (Media Access Control) address per port in a switching table. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE? a. True b. False The correct answer is: False Question 49 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 49. Which of the following definitions regarding the three types of switching methods is/are CORRECT? a. Cut-through switching is the fastest; it reads only enough of the incoming frame to determine the frame’s source and destination addresses. b. Store-and-forward switching is the slowest; the entire frame must be read, stored in memory, and examined before it can be forwarded. c. Fragment-free switching is the middleman; it reads enough of the frame to guarantee that it is at least the minimum size for the network type. The correct answers are: Cut-through switching is the fastest; it reads only enough of the incoming frame to determine the frame’s source and destination addresses., Store-and-forward switching is the slowest; the entire frame must be read, stored in memory, and examined before it can be forwarded., Fragment- free switching is the middleman; it reads enough of the frame to guarantee that it is at least the minimum size for the network type. Question 50 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 50. Which are TWO ways whereby a switch can process multicast frames? a. A switch can process multicast frames by treating them as broadcasts and flooding them to all ports. b. By forwarding the frames only to ports that have registered the multicast address. c. A switch can process multicast frames by treating them as broadcasts and sending them to select ports. d. By forwarding the frames to all ports regardless of if they have registered the multicast address. The correct answers are: A switch can process multicast frames by treating them as broadcasts and flooding them to all ports., By forwarding the frames only to ports that have registered the multicast address. Question 51 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 51. Which of the following is NOT a function that would be found in a managed switch? a. The ability to stop switching loops using STP (Spanning Tree Protocol). b. The ability to transfer its switching table with neighbouring switches. c. The creation of VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) to logically separate resources. d. To limit access to the network by enabling security on individual ports. The correct answer is: The ability to transfer its switching table with neighbouring switches. Question 52 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 52. When a router's interface is configured to connect with a switch trunk port to route packets between VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks), this is called ________. a. multi-homed router b. dynamic router c. link-state router d. router on a stick The correct answer is: router on a stick Question 53 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 53. What term is used to describe the total number of routers a packet must travel through? a. metric b. hop count c. next hop count d. TTL (Time to Live) The correct answer is: hop count Question 54 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 54. Which of the following is found in a routing table (More than one option applies)? a. Destination MAC (Media Access Control) address b. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port number c. Metric d. Next hop e. Domain name The correct answers are: Metric, Next hop Question 55 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 55. What is the DIFFERENCE between the way that a distance-vector routing protocol and a link-state routing protocol update their networks? a. A distance-vector routing protocol sends out information about the network's status to all its neighbours on a set schedule. b. A link-state protocol only sends out information to other routers when there is a change in the status of the network. c. A link-state routing protocol sends out information about the network's status to all its neighbours on a set schedule. d. A distance-vector routing protocol only sends out information to other routers when there is a change in the status of the network. The correct answers are: A distance-vector routing protocol sends out information about the network's status to all its neighbours on a set schedule., A link-state protocol only sends out information to other routers when there is a change in the status of the network. Question 56 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 56. Study the following list of characteristics and identify the routing protocol. a. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) b. RIP (Routing Information Protocol) c. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) d. IGP (Internal Gateway Protocol) The correct answer is: BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) Question 57 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 57. ACLs (Access Control Lists) can be configured to filter traffic based on which of the following (More than one option applies)? a. Protocol b. Source address c. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port d. Destination address e. Acknowledgements The correct answers are: Protocol, Source address, Destination address Question 58 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 58. If you do not want wireless clients to connect to your wireless network, what feature should you use? a. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) b. Disabling SSID (Service Set Identifier) broadcasts c. MAC filtering d. AP (Access Point) isolation The correct answer is: MAC filtering Question 59 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 59. What type of hacker uses a scanning device to find unsecured wireless networks and breaks into the computers connected to the network? a. white hat b. wardriver c. script kiddy d. phisher The correct answer is: wardriver Question 60 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 60. Which advanced feature of a NIC (Network Interface Card) allows a computer to download an OS (Operating System) from the network instead of booting it from a local drive? a. Onboard co-processor b. ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) c. Shared system memory d. PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) The correct answer is: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment)
