AP1 Final Review PDF

You are cold and your body alters the circulation near the skin in order to conserve heat, what characteristic of life is this representing? A. Organization B. Metabolism C. Regulation D. Reproduction Label the image using the correct directional terms. A. Superior, Inferior, Medial, Lateral B. P...

You are cold and your body alters the circulation near the skin in order to conserve heat, what characteristic of life is this representing? A. Organization B. Metabolism C. Regulation D. Reproduction Label the image using the correct directional terms. A. Superior, Inferior, Medial, Lateral B. Proximal, Distal, Anterior, Posterior C. Superficial, Deep, Cranial, Caudal D. Dorsal, Ventral, Ipsilateral, Contralateral When a variable is regulated by negative feedback, its value fluctuates above and below the set point rather than being a constant. A. True B. False Place each of the labels into the proper category to indicate whether they relate to anatomy or physiology. A. Anatomy: Structure-focused labels B. Physiology: Function-focused labels C. Both Anatomy and Physiology: Overlapping concepts D. Neither: Unrelated terms Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis? A. Maintaining blood glucose levels by releasing insulin B. Maintaining blood pH by hyperventilating C. Maintaining body temperature by putting on a hoodie D. Maintaining body temperature by sweating When blood pressure is elevated, the body employs negative feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. Check all of the options below that will be an appropriate response by the body. A. Heart rate is decreased, which will decrease blood pressure. B. Contractility of the heart is increased, which will increase blood pressure. C. Blood vessel diameter is decreased, which will increase blood pressure. D. The kidneys will help increase blood volume, which will increase blood pressure. When there is a change in the internal body environment, how will the body react to maintain homeostasis by negative feedback? A. Do nothing B. Wait and see if the external environment will change C. Oppose the change D. Amplify the change When blood sugar levels increase after a meal, insulin is released. This lowers sugar levels back toward normal. This is an example of A. Negative feedback B. Positive feedback Choose the statement that best exemplifies the interrelated nature of anatomy and physiology. A. The iris of the eye consists of two layers of smooth muscle innervated by the autonomic nervous system. B. The ovaries are involved in the production of gametes as well as the production of hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle. C. The stomach is involved in mechanical and chemical digestion, and secretes many enzymes as well as hormones. D. Simple squamous epithelium consists of a single layer of flattened cells, which is appropriate for organs where filtration and diffusion occur. Serous fluid is contained between the visceral pleura and the lung. A. True B. False Check all of the body section(s) that could include both shoulders in a single section. A. Transverse B. Sagittal C. Coronal D. Midsagittal The skin contains numerous sensory receptors located in both the epidermis and the dermis. A. True B. False Insert the correct word or words into the sentences to test your understanding of the various factors that affect skin color. Not all terms will be used. A. Carotene is acquired from yellow-orange vegetables. B. In the body, carotene is converted into vitamin A. C. The black or brown pigment that is produced in response to light exposure is melanin. D. The amount of melanin in the skin is partially determined by heredity. E. Normal skin color is a result of the combination of hemoglobin, melanin, and carotene. F. The oxygen-binding protein that gives skin its reddish tint is hemoglobin. Milk and ear wax A. Are secreted from modified sebaceous glands. B. Are synthetic substances. C. Are not secretions. D. Are in the blood. E. Are secreted from modified sweat glands. Which is not a function of nails? A. Assist in grasping objects B. Help us to walk properly C. Prevent damage or extensive distortion during jumping, kicking, or catching D. Protect the distal tips of the digits Drag and drop the correct words into the sentences to demonstrate your understanding of the protective functions of the epidermis. Not all terms will be used. A. The epidermis protects deeper tissues from solar radiation through the action of melanin. B. The release of water vapors from the skin when we are not sweating is called insensible perspiration. C. It is critical that when the skin is burned, dehydration is one of the main dangers. D. Water evaporates out of the body due to the function of the skin. Sweat cools the body by A. Radiation B. Evaporation C. Convection D. Hydration E. Conduction Check all the statements that are true regarding the subcutaneous layer (hypodermis). A. The subcutaneous layer is not part of the integument. B. The subcutaneous layer consists of areolar and adipose connective tissue. C. The subcutaneous layer is avascular. D. One of the functions of the subcutaneous layer is thermal insulation. Insert the words into the sentences to identify the significance of lines of cleavage. Not all terms will be used. A. The image in the bottom box, in which the incision runs parallel to the lines of cleavage, would result in a faster healing time. B. The image in the top box, in which the incision runs perpendicular to the lines of cleavage, would result in a slower healing time. C. Lines of cleavage indicate the predominant orientation of collagen fibers in the skin. Insert the correct words into the sentences regarding the structure and function of the subcutaneous layer. Not all terms will be used. A. The subcutaneous layer consists of areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue. B. The subcutaneous layer is deep to the dermis. C. The connective tissue fibers that extend from the dermis into the subcutaneous layer help anchor the skin in relation to underlying structures. D. The components of the subcutaneous layer allow it to provide insulation for the body. E. The subcutaneous layer is usually thicker in women than in men. Select the way in which sweat glands function in homeostasis. A. Production of vitamin D3 B. Protection C. Sensory perception D. Temperature regulation Lines of cleavage partition the skin and indicate the predominant direction of underlying elastic fibers in the dermis. A. True B. False Nails are scalelike modifications of which layer of the integument? A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum granulosum C. Stratum basale D. Stratum spinosum Which of the following are functions of the skin? Check all that apply. A. Absorption of oils or lipid-soluble chemicals or drugs, such as estrogen or nicotine, through transdermal patches B. Excretion of sebum that lubricates the skin surface and hair C. Secretion of the waste product urea during sweating D. Secretion of water and salt during sweating, which plays a role in electrolyte homeostasis Differences in skin pigmentation are due to varying numbers of melanocytes within each individual. A. True B. False Insert the words into the sentences regarding the effects of vasoconstriction and vasodilation of dermal blood vessels. A. In response to cold temperatures outside, dermal blood vessels constrict. B. Vasodilation of dermal blood vessels results in loss of body heat. C. In response to hot temperatures outside, dermal blood vessels dilate. D. If a person is experiencing vasoconstriction of the dermal blood vessels, their skin will look more pale than usual. E. Vasoconstriction of dermal blood vessels results in conservation of heat. F. If a person is experiencing vasodilation of dermal blood vessels, their skin will look more red than normal. When the body temperature drops below normal, dermal blood vessels dilate. A. True B. False Complete each sentence by dragging the proper word or phrase into the appropriate position. Not all terms will be used. 1. The medullary cavities are found deep in the diaphyses of long bones and are filled with yellow marrow in the adult. 2. Located in the middle of osteons, the perforating canals contain the arterial, venous, and nervous supply of the compact bones. 3. Filled with osteocytes, which are osteoblasts encased in matrix, lacunae are found between layers of concentric lamellae.  4. Osteocytes maintain contact with neighboring osteocytes in adjacent lamellae via dendrite-like extensions called canaliculi. Select the features unique to long bones. A. Epiphyses B. Diaphysis C. Compact bone D. Medullary cavity Complete each sentence by dragging the proper word or phrase into the appropriate position. Not all terms will be used. 1. When levels of blood calcium increase above normal, calcitonin is released from the C cells of the thyroid gland. 2. This circulating calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts and osteoblasts within hours. 3. The effects on osteoclasts cause a decrease in bone resorption and a concurrent increase in bone deposition due to osteoblasts. 4. The decline in bone breakdown and increased mineralization causes blood calcium to decrease back to normal levels. If calcium levels are low and intramembranous ossification is halted during calcification of osteoid, select all the events that will not occur. A. Development of ossification centers B. Formation of trabeculae C. Osteoblasts become osteocytes D. Mesenchyme condenses Activity of _________ results in the formation of hydrochloric acid used to dissolve bone minerals in a process called _________. A. osteoblasts; mineral resorption B. osteoclasts; mineral resorption C. osteoclasts; mineral deposition D. osteoblasts; mineral deposition Check all of the bones that are formed by intramembranous ossification. A. Flat bones of the skull B. Vertebrae C. Long bones of the limbs D. Mandible Indicate whether each bone is a long, short, irregular, or flat bone. Scapula: Flat bone Carpal bone: Short bone Femur: Long bone Vertebrae: Irregular bone Fill in the blanks with the terms provided. Not all terms will be used. Appositional growth occurs within the periosteum. In this process, osteoblasts in the inner cellular layer of the periosteum produce and deposit bone matrix within layers parallel to the surface, called external circumferential lamellae. These lamellae are analogous to tree rings: As they increase in number, the structure increases in diameter. Thus, the bone becomes wider as new bone is laid down at its periphery. As this new bone is being laid down, osteoclasts along the medullary cavity resorb bone matrix, creating an expanding space. Fill in the blanks with the terms provided. Not all terms will be used. Bone marrow is the soft connective tissue of bone that includes red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow. Red bone marrow is hematopoietic (forms blood cells) and contains reticular connective tissue, immature blood cells, and fat. In children, red bone marrow is located in the spongy bone of most of the bones in the body as well as the medullary cavity of long bones. Much of the red bone marrow degenerates and turns into yellow bone marrow as children mature into adults. As a result, adults have red bone marrow only in selected portions of the axial skeleton. Some of these include the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, the ribs, the sternum, and the hip bones. Complete each sentence by dragging the proper word or phrase into the appropriate position. Not all terms will be used. When levels of blood calcium decrease , parathyroid hormone is released from the four nodular parathyroid glands located on the posterior thyroid. Parathyroid hormone causes an increase in the number of osteoclasts and greater rates of bone resorption. At the level of the kidney, parathyroid hormone will decrease the amount of calcium excreted by increasing reabsorption from the kidney tubules. Parathyroid hormone increases the renal conversion of cholecalciferol to calcidiol , which secondarily works to increase calcium levels in the blood. Inhibition of osteoblasts by parathyroid hormone occurs as a result of a decreased production of organic matrix. As a result of direct actions on the target cells of the bone and kidneys along with an indirect action on the small intestine (calcitriol), parathyroid hormone works to increase blood calcium levels. Which step in the formation of calcitriol is regulated by parathyroid hormone? A. Conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to Vitamin D3 B. Conversion of Vitamin D3 to calcidiol C. Conversion of calcidiol to calcitriol D. Conversion of calcidiol to cholecalciferol Complete each sentence by dragging the proper word or phrase into the appropriate position. Not all terms will be used. The bones of the skeleton provide structure to the body and serve as a support to hold up the body and maintain proper positioning of some organs. The skull, pelvis, ribs, vertebral column, and sternum provide protection to many delicate organs of the body by encasing them in hardened shell-like or caged structures. The movement of the entire skeleton or skeletal elements utilizes the anchoring of muscles to attachment sites on the bones, which then serve as levers. Minerals can be stored in the skeleton, which acts as a reservoir, storing or releasing minerals as needed to maintain electrolyte balance throughout the body. Contained within the spongy sections of bones, marrow is responsible for nutrient delivery to the body. Select all that are true of calcitonin. A. Helps decrease blood calcium. B. More effective in children than adults. C. Inhibits osteoclast activity. D. Signals the kidneys to decrease the loss of calcium in the urine. Select all the events unique to endochondral ossification. A. Formation of a medullary cavity B. Appearance of bone marrow C. Multiple ossification centers D. Epiphyseal plate ossification Select all that are true of bone remodeling. A. Remodeling occurs at about the same rate everywhere in the skeleton. B. Osteoclasts are involved in the remodeling process. C. Bone remodeling is a combination of bone deposition and resorption. D. Bones are remodeled to accommodate the stresses put on them. The hard palate is composed of the: A. zygomatic and lacrimal bones. B. nasal conchae and palatine bones. C. nasal conchae and vomer bones. D. maxillary and palatine bones. E. sphenoid and ethmoid bones. The acetabulum is: A. a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur. B. formed anteriorly by the joining of the pubic bones. C. the anterior portion of the hip bone. D. a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur. E. the prominence of the hip. Select all the features that are major landmarks in the os coxae: A. Obturator foramen B. Arcuate line C. Iliac fossa and ala D. Iliac crest The pelvic inlet is covered with muscles and skin, forming the body region called the perineum. A. True B. False Check all of the following that are facial bones. A. Maxilla B. Nasal C. Occipital D. Zygomatic E. Lacrimal F. Sphenoid G. Vomer The hallux is the most medial digit of the foot and is referred to as the "great toe." A. True B. False A middle phalanx is not present in the thumb. A. True B. False Indicate whether each statement is true or false. 1. The thoracic cage consists of the thoracic vertebrae, the ribs, and the sternum. A. True B. False 2. The superior seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs because they directly attach to the sternum through their costal cartilages. A. True B. False  3. Two of the false ribs, the eleventh and twelfth ribs, are called floating ribs because they do not have a posterior attachment to the spine. A. True B. False 4. Most ribs have two articulations with the vertebrae, the head articulates with the body and the tubercle articulates with the transverse process. A. True B. False Match the following features of the tibia and fibula with their definitions: 1. Lateral malleolus A. The bony prominence on the outside of the ankle, formed by the distal end of the fibula. 2. Medial malleolus B. The bony prominence on the inside of the ankle, formed by the distal end of the tibia. 3. Tibial tuberosity C. A roughened area on the anterior surface of the tibia, just below the knee, where the patellar ligament attaches. 4. Condyle D. A rounded projection at the end of a bone, typically part of a joint, such as the tibial condyles that articulate with the femur. If you palpate the bony projection on the lateral side of your wrist, just proximal to the thumb, what part of the radius are you feeling? A. Radial Head B. Radial Tuberosity C. Styloid Process D. Olecranon Process Which of the following features is the most proximal feature of the ulna? A. Styloid process B. Olecranon C. Ulnar notch D. Radial tuberosity When the bones of the forearm are supinated (palm of the hand faces anteriorly), the radius is crossing over the ulna. A. True B. False Primary ossification centers begin to form in limb bones during week 8 of development. A. True B. False If you palpate the medial side of your ankle, what prominent process of the tibia are you feeling? A. Fibular notch B. Medial condyle C. Medial malleolus D. Tibial tuberosity The fibula is the only weight-bearing bone of the crural region. A. True B. False Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called A. Floating ribs B. Direct ribs C. True ribs D. False ribs Check all of the following that are a function of the paranasal sinuses. A. Warm and humidify inhaled air B. Make some skull bones lighter C. Provide resonance to the voice D. Provide nerve sensation to the face The largest of the three coxal bones is the: A. Ilium B. Ischium C. Pubis D. Sacrum Check all of the following that form the lateral walls of the nasal complex: A. Ethmoid bone B. Sphenoid bone C. Maxilla D. Inferior nasal conchae E. Perpendicular plates of the palatine bones F. Lacrimal bones The fibula does not bear any weight during walking or standing. A. True B. False Which statement is false regarding the general features of the vertebral column? A. It protects the spinal cord. B. It absorbs stresses produced by walking, running, and lifting. C. It consists of a chain of 30 vertebrae with intervertebral discs of fibrocartilage between most of them. D. It allows for the movement of the skull and trunk. E. It physically supports the skull and trunk. Check all that are true statements regarding the sexual dimorphic features of the pelvis: A. The female ilium flares more laterally than the male ilium. (Correct) B. The body of the pubis is longer in females than in males. (Correct) C. The greater sciatic notch is much narrower in females than in males. (Incorrect) D. The female coccyx projects vertically, while the male coccyx has a more posterior tilt. (Correct) The hip joint is also known as the _________ joint. A) Hinge B) Ball-and-socket C) Pivot D) Saddle A lever is a rigid object that rotates around a fixed point called the _________. A) Axis B) Fulcrum C) Joint D) Pivot Select all that are classified as special movements. Check All That Apply A) Depression B) Circumduction C) Inversion D) Dorsiflexion Which of the following fibrous joints allows for slight movement, and the articulating bones are joined by long strands of dense regular connective tissue? A) Suture B) Syndesmosis C) Gomphosis In a gliding joint, the angle between bones does not change. A) True B) False The talocrural joint is also known as the _________blank joint. A) Elbow B) Knee C) Ankle D) Wrist The elbow joint is composed of two articulations. A) True B) False The glenohumeral ligaments provide most of the stability and strength of the glenohumeral joint. A) True B) False A _______ resembles a “peg in a socket.” The only example of these types of joints in the human body are the articulations of the roots of individual teeth with the sockets of the _______ (lower jaw) and the _______. A tooth is held firmly in place by fibrous _______. This joint is functionally classified as a _______. A) gomphosis B) mandible C) maxilla D) periodontal ligament E) synarthrosis F) diarthrosis Symphyses can be found in the: A) knee joints. B) intervertebral joints. C) joints between the sternum and the ribs. D) glenohumeral joints. Symphyses are slightly mobile joints where the articulating bones contain a pad of A) fibrocartilage B) hyaline cartilage C) elastic cartilage D) bone Angular motion changes the angle between two bones. A) True B) False Is the following statement true or false? If the mechanical advantage is greater than 1.0, the lever produces more force, but less speed or distance, than the force exerted on it. If the mechanical advantage is less than 1.0, the lever produces more speed or distance, but less force, than the input. A) True B) False Fill in the blanks with the terms provided. Not all terms will be used. Syndesmoses are __________ joints in which articulating bones are joined by long strands of __________ connective tissue only. Because syndesmoses allow __________ mobility, they are classified as __________. An example of a syndesmosis can be found between the __________. The __________ of the two articulating bones are bound by a broad ligamentous sheet called a(an) __________ membrane. This membrane provides a __________ so the bones involved in the joint can move against one another. A) Fibrous, Dense, Slight, Synovial, Tibia and fibula, Synovial, Cushion B) Cartilaginous, Fibrous, Little, Cartilaginous, Tibia and fibula, Interosseous, Joint capsule C) Synovial, Dense, More, Cartilage, Radius and ulna, Ligamentous, Fluid D) Fibrous, Regular, Some, Synarthrosis, Tibia and fibula, Interosseous, Padding Fill in the blanks with the terms provided. Flexion is movement in an anterior-posterior plane of the body that __________ the angle between the bones. Extension __________ the angle between the articulating bones. Abduction is a __________ movement of a body part __________ from the body midline. The opposite of abduction is adduction. This is the __________ movement of a body part __________ the body midline. Circumduction is a sequence of movements in which the __________ end of an appendage remains relatively stationary while the __________ end makes a circular motion. The resulting movement is cone-shaped. Circumduction is a complex movement that occurs as a result of a continuous sequence of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction. A) Decreases, increases, lateral, away, opposite, toward, distal, proximal B) Increases, decreases, angular, toward, opposite, away, proximal, distal C) Increases, decreases, medial, away, opposite, toward, proximal, distal D) Decreases, increases, lateral, toward, opposite, away, distal, proximal The multiaxial joint in which the spherical end of one bone fits into the cuplike socket of the other bone is called a _________blank joint. A) plane B) pivot C) ball-and-socket D) condylar Select all the reasons why the glenohumeral joint is unstable. A) It has a loose articular capsule. B) Its superior aspect is unsupported by the rotator cuff muscles. C) There are only two rotator cuff muscles. D) It is destabilized by the biceps brachii muscle tendons. The temporomandibular joint is limited to protraction and retraction due to its articular disc. A) True B) False If the humerus is pivoting on its own longitudinal axis, it is exhibiting A) Adduction B) Rotation C) Flexion D) Extension In a third-class lever, the effort is always farther from the fulcrum than the resistance. A) True B) False Which of the following joints is the least stable? A) Costochondral joint B) Glenohumeral (shoulder) joint C) Radioulnar joint D) Skull suture Smooth muscle found in both the iris and ciliary muscle of the eye and arrector pili muscles in the skin is _________blank smooth muscle. A) multiunit B) varicosity-controlled C) single-unit D) visceral Which of the following will increase during strenuous muscular activity? A) Lactate B) Carbon monoxide C) Actin D) Myosin E) Oxygen Sprinting is a sport that requires an explosion of energy more than endurance. The best type of muscle fibers for this activity would be A) fast-twitch fibers with many mitochondria and a higher blood supply. B) slow-twitch fibers with many mitochondria and a higher blood supply. C) fast-twitch fibers with fewer mitochondria and a lower blood supply. D) slow-twitch fibers with a reserve of glycogen and fat. E) slow-twitch fibers with fewer mitochondria and a lower blood supply. The component of a muscle fiber that quickly transports a muscle impulse from the sarcolemma throughout the entire muscle fiber is called the A) terminal cisternae. B) titin. C) transverse tubule (T-tubule). D) sarcoplasmic reticulum. Your school wins the homecoming football game against its biggest rival. You watch as the smallest cheerleader tries to lift up the heaviest linebacker in her excitement. As she strains against his 300-pound load and does not move him, what type of muscle contraction are her muscles experiencing? A) Concentric B) Isometric C) Isotonic D) Eccentric Which is a characteristic of skeletal muscle from the selections below? A) Under autonomic nervous control B) Lack of striations C) Multinucleated D) Contains intercalated discs One of the five important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is heat production. A) True B) False Which of the following refers to a sustained muscle contraction? A) Fatigue B) Relaxation C) Latency D) Summation E) Tetanus The amount of additional oxygen that must be inhaled following exercise to restore pre-exercise conditions is called A) Glycolysis B) Muscle failure C) Oxygen debt D) Fatigue Correct order with appropriate words filled in: 1. Contraction is the step in which the muscle fiber develops tension and may shorten. 2. The myosin head must have a(n) ADP molecule bound to it to initiate the process. 3. The head extends to expose a(n) active site on the thin filament. 4. The attachment of the myosin head and thin filament forms a crossbridge between the two filaments. 5. The power stroke then pushes the myosin head forward, moving the thin filament across. 6. Once additional ATP binds, myosin will release the actin and hydrolyze another ATP in what is called the relaxation stroke. Correct order with appropriate words filled in: 1. A quick cycle of contraction and relaxation of the muscle is called a twitch. 2. When the frequency is progressively higher, the muscle does not have time to relax.  3. At an even higher frequency, the muscle exhibits a state of continual contraction, called tetanus. 4. The muscle will eventually fatigue, and the muscle tension will then decline. Myoglobin provides muscle fibers with a means of supplying ATP anaerobically. A) True B) False What part of a muscle twitch begins as a repetitive power stroke, then pulls the thin filaments past the thick filaments, shortening the sarcomeres? A) Latent period B) Threshold C) Relaxation period D) Contraction period The source of energy for bonding between myosin and actin is A) ADP B) Lactic acid C) ATP D) Creatine phosphate During relaxation, passive tension in _________ is released. A) Myoglobin B) Dystrophin C) Myosin D) Connectin Which of the following muscles does not elevate the pharynx and larynx? A) Salpingopharyngeus B) Palatopharyngeus C) Inferior constrictor D) Stylopharyngeus From superficial to deep, place the muscles of the abdominal wall in the correct order. A) External oblique B) Internal oblique C) Transversus abdominis Is the diaphragm the most important muscle associated with respiration? A) True B) False Check all that is true about the abductor pollicis longus muscle based on its name. A) It has a long shape. B) Its fibers run parallel to the longitudinal axis of the body. C) It is located in the thumb region. D) It acts to abduct a body part. E) It is located in the region of the great toe. What is/are the proximal attachment(s) of the highlighted muscle? A) Deltoid tuberosity B) Trochlea and capitulum of humerus C) Radial tuberosity D) Olecranon process E) Clavicle and scapula The collection of muscles in the pelvic floor that function to support the pelvic viscera and act as a sphincter at the anorectal junction, urethra, and vagina is the A) Levator ani B) Coccygeus C) External anal sphincter D) Gluteus maximus The abdominal wall muscle that forms the inguinal ligament is the A) Transverse abdominis B) Internal oblique C) External oblique D) Rectus abdominis The superior oblique eye muscle is innervated by A) Oculomotor nerve B) Trochlear nerve C) Abducens nerve D) Optic nerve The medial, inferior, and superior rectus muscles, as well as the inferior oblique, are all innervated by A) Oculomotor nerve B) Trochlear nerve C) Abducens nerve D) Optic nerve The lateral rectus is innervated by A) Oculomotor nerve B) Trochlear nerve C) Abducens nerve D) Optic nerve Which of the following muscles is the longest muscle in the body and is nicknamed the "tailor's muscle" because it flexes and laterally rotates the thigh while also flexing and medially rotating the leg (helping us to sit cross-legged, as tailors used to do)? A) Vastus lateralis B) Rectus femoris C) Gracilis D) Sartorius The type of muscles in which the fascicles are at an oblique angle to the tendon and the muscle fibers resemble a large feather is called A) Convergent B) Parallel C) Pennate D) Circular The large, three-headed muscle that is the prime extensor of the forearm at the elbow joint is the _________blank. A) Biceps brachii B) Triceps brachii C) Brachialis D) Deltoid The muscle that flexes the leg and medially rotates the tibia to unlock the knee is the _________. A) Popliteus B) Gastrocnemius C) Flexor hallucis longus D) Tibialis posterior The muscle that flexes the leg and plantar flexes the foot is the _________. A) Popliteus B) Gastrocnemius C) Flexor hallucis longus D) Tibialis posterior The muscle that plantar flexes the foot and flexes metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints of the great toe is the _________. A) Popliteus B) Gastrocnemius C) Flexor hallucis longus D) Tibialis posterior The muscle that plantar flexes the foot and inverts the foot is the _________. A) Popliteus B) Gastrocnemius C) Flexor hallucis longus D) Tibialis posterior Which of the following muscles elevate the ribs during inhalation? Check all that apply. A) Serratus posterior superior B) External intercostals C) Transverse thoracis D) Internal intercostals Check all that are a bilateral action of the erector spinae muscles. A) Move the upper limbs B) Maintain posture C) Rotate the neck D) Extend the vertebral column Check all that are functions of the muscles of the abdominal wall. A) Flexion of the vertebral column B) Extension of the vertebral column C) Compression of the abdominal wall D) Rotation of the hips The supinator works synergistically with the biceps brachii to supinate the forearm. Insert the correct word into each sentence to test your knowledge of the functions of the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Not all terms will be used. The muscles of the thenar group all act to move the thumb The muscles in the hypothenar group in the hand all act on finger 5 If you severely injured your adductor pollicis, which movement might be affected? A) Adduction of the pinky finger B) Adduction of the wrist C) Adduction of the thumb D) Adduction of fingers 2-5 The most powerful flexor of the forearm at the elbow is the A) Anoceus B) Brachialis C) Brachioradialis D) Biceps Brachii When you wrinkle your eyebrows together as you concentrate on your quiz in class, the muscle that is pulling the eyebrows together and creating the vertical wrinkle around the nose is the A) Nasalis B) Procerus C) Occipitofrontalis D) Corrugator Supercilii During normal, relaxed exhalation, the internal intercostals contract to assist with this process. A) True B) False The ________ muscles of the tongue curl, squeeze, and fold the tongue during chewing and speaking; the ________ muscles of the tongue are used in various combinations to accomplish the precise, complex, and delicate movements required for proper speech. A) Extrinsic, Intrinsic B) Intrinsic, Extrinsic Check all of the muscles that flex the arm at the glenohumeral joint. A) Supraspinatus B) Teres minor C) Pectoralis major D) Deltoid E) Latissimus dorsi F) Coracobrachialis G) Biceps Brachii Which of the following muscles abduct the hip joint/thigh? Check all that are correct. A) Gluteus Maximus B) Gluteus medius C) Gluteus Minimus Supinators in the forearm perform their action by rotating the radius across the surface of the ulna. A) True B) False The most common type of neuron contains many dendrites and a single axon. Structurally, this is classified as a(n) _________ neuron. A) Bipolar B) Anaxonic C) Unipolar D) Multipolar Which terms complete the blanks in the paragraph correctly? A) Synaptic knob, neurotransmitter, calcium pumps, calcium, outside, inside B) Axon, hormone, sodium channels, sodium, inside, outside C) Dendrite, ion, potassium channels, potassium, outside, inside D) Soma, enzyme, chloride channels, chloride, inside, outside On a graph of an action potential, the small depolarizations that lead to threshold are from: A) Chemically gated chloride channels opening, allowing chloride to enter the neuron B) Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) C) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) D) Voltage-gated potassium channels opening, allowing potassium to exit the neuron Which terms complete the blanks in the paragraph correctly? A) Structural, CNS component, brain, spinal cord, functional, CNS, mixed B) Functional, PNS component, brainstem, spinal cord, motor, PNS, sensory C) Structural, nerve endings, brainstem, vertebral column, sensory, brain, mixed D) Anatomical, cranial component, cortex, spinal column, reflex, receptors, motor Which is the correct sequence of statements in the order of a localized depolarization event? A) The presynaptic membrane releases (via exocytosis) acetylcholine (ACh) into the synaptic cleft → ACh binds to chemically gated sodium channels → Sodium channels open, allowing sodium to diffuse → Positive charges move to the ICF → The relative charge across the membrane becomes positive B) The postsynaptic membrane is polar with a greater negative charge → Action potential arrives at the synapse → Synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane → ACh binds to chemically gated sodium channels → Sodium diffuses, causing positive ICF charges C) Action potential arrives at the synapse → Synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane → ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft → Sodium channels open → Positive charge increases inside the cell D) The postsynaptic membrane is polar with a greater negative charge → The presynaptic membrane releases ACh → Sodium channels open → Sodium ions move to the ICF → The relative charge across the membrane becomes positive Which word completes each sentence correctly? A) Voltage, neurotransmitters, presynaptic, ligand, ions B) Ligand, calcium, synaptic, voltage, ions C) Action, calcium, postsynaptic, neurotransmitters, receptors D) Synaptic, ions, axon, ligand, membrane Pain receptors in the skin send signals to the CNS for processing. These pain receptors are an example of _________ neurons. A) Multipolar B) Afferent C) Association D) Efferent Which terms correctly complete the blanks? A) Communication, integrating, neurons, receptors, stimuli, sensory, motor, effectors B) Regulation, evaluating, synapses, sensors, triggers, reflex, output, muscles C) Control, processing, axons, transmitters, signals, input, output, tissues D) Coordination, transmitting, dendrites, activators, inputs, integration, efferent, organs What type of neuronal circuit caused this single reaction from the multiple stimuli you experienced? A) Converging circuit B) Parallel-after discharge circuit C) Diverging circuit D) Reverberating circuit Which part of a neuron contains calcium pumps and channels? A) Synaptic bulbs B) Axon C) Dendrites D) Soma The most direct effect of severing the corpus callosum would be that: A) Visual reflexes would be lost B) The cerebral hemispheres could not directly communicate C) The body would be paralyzed D) Emotional problems would develop A patient was found to have damage to his amygdala and is therefore more likely to exhibit exaggerated emotions. A) True B) False The primary motor cortex controls voluntary skeletal muscle activity, with neurons that project ipsilaterally. A) True B) False Where will the memory of a motor skill likely be stored? A) Visual association cortex B) Primary motor cortex C) Thalamus D) Premotor cortex Check all that are functions of the cerebellum: A) Receives sensory plans for movements B) Acts as the "principal" of unconscious physical actions by regulating functions of motor pathways C) Directly controls the influences of hormones and enzymes on skeletal muscles D) Indirectly affects the excitability of motor neurons As you read these words, which part of your brain is interpreting the words that you read? A) Lingual area B) Representational hemisphere C) Wernicke area D) Broca area After reaching into her purse, a woman identifies an object based solely on its shape and texture. Which cortical region is highly involved with this action? A) Somatosensory association area B) Visual association area C) Primary visual cortex D) Primary olfactory cortex CSF helps control the chemical environment surrounding the brain. A) True B) False A patient with damage to the _________ will very likely have difficulty in forming new memories. A) Olfactory bulbs B) Inferior cerebellar peduncles C) Hippocampus D) Primary somatosensory cortex Select all that are true regarding cerebral lateralization. A) Speech centers are usually in the left hemisphere. B) It is highly correlated with handedness. C) Due to their specialized nature, the right and left hemispheres rarely communicate. D) The categorical hemisphere is involved with musical and artistic skill. Difficulty comprehending speech may indicate a problem with the: A) Somatosensory association area B) Motor speech area C) Wernicke area D) Primary olfactory cortex The area of the cerebrum that integrates information from the sensory, motor, and association areas to enable an individual to plan and execute appropriate responses is the prefrontal cortex. A) True B) False The thalamus: A) Serves as an information filter B) Is connected to the pituitary gland C) Is part of the basal nuclei D) Secretes melatonin In what way does the cerebellum coordinate and "fine tune" skeletal muscle movements? Check all that apply. A) It consciously coordinates minute muscle movements. B) It stores memories of previously learned movement patterns. C) It regulates activity along the voluntary and involuntary motor pathways. D) It initiates voluntary skeletal muscle movement. Match the component of the limbic system with its function: 1. Cingulate gyrus – Focuses on emotionally significant events 2. Parahippocampal gyrus – Function is associated with the hippocampus 3. Hippocampus – Essential for the formation of long-term memory 4. Amygdaloid body – Involved in emotion, especially fear Damage to the ventral root of a spinal nerve would mean that the sensory input of the reflex arc would be interrupted. A) True B) False Correct order of events in a reflex arc: 1. A sensory receptor detects a stimulus 2. A sensory neuron conducts action potentials through the nerve to the spinal cord 3. The sensory neuron synapses with an interneuron 4. The interneuron synapses with a motor neuron  5. The motor neuron conducts action potentials through the anterior root and spinal nerve to an effector organ A monosynaptic reflex is the simplest of all reflexes. The sensory axons synapse directly on the motor neurons, whose axons project to the effector organ. Very minor synaptic delay is incurred in the single synapse of this reflex arc, resulting in a very prompt reflex response. A polysynaptic reflex has more complex neural pathways that exhibit a number of synapses involving interneurons within the reflex arc. Because this reflex arc has more components, a more prolonged delay occurs between stimulus and response. After leaving the intervertebral foramen (spinal nerve), a typical spinal nerve almost immediately splits into branches called rami (rami). The posterior (ramus) is the smaller of the two main branches. It innervates the deep muscles of the back (muscles) and the skin of the back. The anterior (ramus) is the larger of the two main branches. This splits into multiple other branches, which innervate the anterior and lateral portions of the trunk (trunk), the upper limbs, and the lower limbs. Many of the anterior rami go on to form nerve plexuses (plexuses). Most nervous system pathways share several general characteristics: Most pathways decussate (cross over) from one side of the body to the other side at some point in their travels. The term contralateral (contralateral) is used to indicate the relationship to the opposite side, whereas the term ipsilateral (ipsilateral) means the same side. All pathways are composed of paired tracts (tracts). A pathway on the left side of the CNS has a matching tract on the right side of the CNS. Most pathways are composed of a series of two or three neurons (neurons) that work together. Primary neurons, secondary neurons, and sometimes tertiary neurons are seen in sensory pathways (sensory pathways) that facilitate the pathway’s functioning. In contrast, motor pathways (motor pathways) use an upper motor neuron and a lower motor neuron. The cell bodies of these neurons are located in the nuclei (nuclei) associated with each pathway. The gray matter in the spinal cord is located in the center (center), and its shape resembles a letter H, or a butterfly. The cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are primarily housed in the anterior (anterior) horns, which innervate skeletal muscle. The cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons are found in the lateral (lateral) horns and innervate cardiac and smooth muscle, and glands. Left and right masses of gray matter (gray matter) are the posterior horns. The axons of sensory neurons (axons) and the cell bodies of interneurons (interneurons) are located in the posterior (posterior) horns. The gray commissure (gray commissure) is a horizontal bar of gray matter that surrounds a narrow central canal. Stepping on a piece of glass with the left foot will result in extension of the right leg to help maintain balance. This is an example of a(n) _________ reflex. A) Ipsilateral B) Contralateral Fill in the blanks with the terms provided. Not all terms will be used. Multiple anterior rootlets arise from the spinal cord and merge to form a single anterior (anterior) root, which contains motor (motor) axons only. These axons arise from cell bodies in the anterior and lateral (lateral) horns of the spinal cord. Posterior rootlets arise from a single posterior (posterior) root, which contains sensory (sensory) axons only. The cell bodies of these neurons are located in a posterior root ganglion (ganglion), which is within the posterior root. Each anterior root and its corresponding posterior root unite within the intervertebral foramen (foramen) to become a spinal nerve. White matter in the spinal cord is found surrounding the gray matter as well as within the lateral horns. A) True B) False Match the type of abnormal reflex with its description: 1. Hyperactive reflex – Reflex response is abnormally strong. 2. Hypoactive reflex – Reflex response is diminished or absent. Motor pathways are ascending pathways in the brain and spinal cord that control effectors. A) True B) False