Anatomy and Physiology I Practice Exam 5 PDF

Anatomy and Physiology I Test 5 1. Which of the following is responsible for problem-solving skills? A) central nervous system B) peripheral nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) autonomic nervous system E...

Anatomy and Physiology I Test 5 1. Which of the following is responsible for problem-solving skills? A) central nervous system B) peripheral nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) autonomic nervous system E) none of the above 2. The central nervous system includes the A) ganglia B) spinal cord. C) spinal nerves. D) cranial nerves E) sensory receptors 3. The peripheral nervous system includes the A) brain. B) spinal cord. C) cranial nerves. D) blood-brain barrier. E) cerebellum. 4. There are __ pairs of cranial nerves and __ pairs of spinal nerves A) 10; 30 B) 31; 12 C) 12; 31 D) 30; 10 E) 12; 32 5. Cell bodies of the peripheral nervous system are located in A) ganglia. B) Schwann cells. C) the motor division. D) the sensory division. E) nerves. 6. The sensory (afferent) division of the peripheral nervous system A) transmits action potentials to sensory organs. B) transmits action potentials towards the CNS. C) stimulates glands to release hormones. D) stimulates muscle contractions. E) does not involve sensory receptors. 7. The motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system A) is a division of the CNS. B) regulates the digestion of food. C) transmits impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscle. D) has nerve cell bodies located in ganglia near the spinal cord and brain. E) detects a stimulus 8. Digestion of food is regulated by the A) sensory division. B) sympathetic division of the ANS. C) parasympathetic division of the ANS. D) somatic nervous system. E) none of the above. 9. Nissl bodies are A) part of the dendrite. B) also called gemmules. C) lipid droplets. D) ribosomes associated with rough endoplasmic reticulum. E) part of the Golgi apparatus. 10. Dendrites A) are the input part of the neuron. B) conduct action potentials away from the cell body. C) are generally long and unbranched. D) form synapses with the microglia. E) contain the trigger zone. 11. Axons A) contain the nucleus. B) are numerous extensions from each neuron. C) do not have a trigger zone. D) have a distal portion that branches to form the axonic terminals. E) contains the trigger zone. 12. Myelinated axons contain A) Schwann cells. B) foot processes. C) Nissl bodies. D) the soma. E) the rough endoplasmic reticulum 13. Synaptic vesicles that contain neurotransmitters are present in the A) dendrites. B) cell body. C) axolemma. D) presynaptic terminals or axonic terminals. E) trigger zone. 14. A neuron that carries action potentials from one neuron to another is called a(n) ___. A) motor neuron B) sensory neuron C) afferent neuron D) efferent neuron E) interneuron 15. A neuron that conducts pain sensations to the central nervous system would be classified as a(n) A) motor neuron. B) sensory or afferent neuron. C) efferent neuron. D) association neuron. E) interneuron 16. Neurons that have a single axon and a single dendrite are A) unipolar. B) bipolar. C) multipolar. D) pseudopolar. E) monopolar. 17. Neurons in the skin that are responsible for detecting pain are A) apolar. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) multipolar. E) pseudopolar. 18. A neuroglial cell that is a major component of the blood-brain barrier is the A) astrocyte. B) microglial cell. C) oligodendrocyte. D) ependymal cell. E) macrophage. 19. Overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid could be the result of the overactivity of the A) astrocytes. B) microglial cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) macrophages. E) ependymal cells. 20. Gaps or interruptions in the myelin sheath are called A) internodes. B) tight junctions. C) neurofilaments. D) nodes of Ranvier. E) gap junctions. 21. Depolarization of the nerve cell membrane occurs where there is a rapid influx (inflow) of A) potassium ions. B) chloride ions. C) calcium ions. D) sodium ions. E) proteins. 22. During the absolute refractory period, the cell A) generates many local potentials. B) is insensitive to further stimulation. C) responds to even weak stimuli. D) reverses the direction of the action potential. E) is very sensitive. 23. Chemical synapses are characterized by A) the release of neurotransmitters by the presynaptic terminal. B) protein channels that connect the pre- and postsynaptic cells. C) the presence of receptors for neurotransmitters on the presynaptic terminal. D) the absence of gap junctions. E) receptors located only on the presynaptic terminal. 24. Arrange the events of synaptic transmission in the correct sequence. 1) sodium ions diffuse into the postsynaptic cell and cause a local potential 2) neurotransmitter binds with receptor on postsynaptic cell 3) neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft 4) ligand gated sodium ion channels open on postsynaptic cell 5) action potential causes release of neurotransmitter A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 B) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 C) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 E) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 25. There are __ enlargements of the spinal cord where nerves supplying the extremities enter and leave. A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six 26. The thickest of the meninges is the A) pia mater B) arachnoid mater. C) subdural space. D) subarachnoid space. E) dura mater. 27. There are __ cervical spinal nerves. A) eight B) twelve C) six D) five E) fourteen 28. Dermatomal maps are important clinically because they A) can be used to check for motor function. B) locate the position of cranial nerves C) can be used to help locate nerve damage. D) indicate what muscles are innervated by each spinal nerve. E) can be used to detect cranial nerve damage. 29. Spinal nerves C5-T1 make up the __ plexus. A) sacral B) lumbar C) brachial D) cervical E) radial 30. Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to about S4 for the A) lumbar plexus B) femoral plexus C) sacral plexus D) pelvic plexus E) brachial plexus 31. When you walk up behind someone and tap their right shoulder, they will reflexively A) raise their arms. B) hit you. C) turn their head toward the left. D) sneeze. E) turn their head toward the right. 32. The central sulcus separates the A) two parietal lobes. B) frontal and parietal lobes. C) occipital and temporal lobes. D) temporal and frontal lobes. E) parietal and occipital lobes. 33. The lateral fissure separates the __ from the rest of the cerebrum. A) frontal lobe B) parietal lobe C) occipital lobe D) temporal lobe E) cerebellum 34. The gray matter on the outer surface of the cerebrum is called the A) cortex. B) pia mater. C) reticular formation. D) arbor vitae. E) cerebral medulla. 35. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the choroid plexus in the walls and roofs of the A) subarachnoid space. B) dural sinuses. C) fissure of Sylvius. D) ventricles of the brain. E) subdural space. 36. Which of the following cranial nerves is exclusively sensory? A) vestibulocochlear (VIII) B) hypoglossal (XII) C) trochlear (IV) D) facial (VI) E) trigeminal (V) 37. Facial expression is regulated by A) facial nerve. B) vagus nerve. C) abducens nerve. D) trigeminal nerve. E) accessory nerve. 38. The glossopharyngeal nerve A) innervates the larynx. B) is involved in the sense of taste. C) innervates intrinsic tongue muscles. D) transmits sensory information from the abdominal viscera. E) controls facial expressions. 39. Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera? A) facial nerve B) vagus nerve C) trigeminal nerve D) glossopharyngeal nerve E) accessory nerve