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Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM

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clinical chemistry microbiology hematology medical lab science

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This document contains practice questions and answers related to clinical chemistry, microbiology, and hematology, suitable for students studying medical lab science or a similar medical subject.

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ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— A. Glutamate dehydrog...

ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— A. Glutamate dehydrogenase ALP(4) Evende -CLINICAL CHEMISTRY- B. Asparate Aminotrasnferase See C. GGT 1.) Which of the following can cause D. Troponin hypermagnesemia? magnesium diet * * leafy veg A. Vomiting (nypo) 8.) Carbon dioxide ISE measures; B. Hypercalcemia ↑ calium ↓ magnesium A. pCO2 C. Chronic Alcoholism (nypo) B. pH D. Renal Insufficiency C. pO2 Frequent cause of hypermagnesemia (END stage renal disease) D. HC03 * cannot secrete magnesium 2.) Interlaboratory comparison studies can be achieved by? 9) The following laboratory results are consistent with A. Send specimen to each laboratory adrenal Cushing syndrome: B. Participate in an external quality assurance program CQAS A. ACTH decrease, Cortisol Increase B C. Manufacturers sending test specimens to the B. ACTH increase, Cortisol Increase laboratory C. ACTH increase, Cortisol decrease U D. Daily quality specimen management Intralab D. ACTH increase, Cortisol Normal H 3. The following timeline after blood glucose was drawn on a gray top tube: Cushing SYNDROME ACTH Decrease 2-3 days (Adrenal / Primary) CORTISOL Increase W 0700H Blood is collected using Gray top tube Cushing DISEASE ACTH Increase IE 0800H Delivered and centrifuged and to the laboratory (Pituitary /Secondary) CORTISOL Increase 1100H Tested using glucose oxidase method Tertiary ACTH Increase V 1200H Result yielded 60 mg/dL Hypercortisolism CORTISOL Increase E (Hypothalamus) TRH Increase A. Call the doctor and report the abnormal result R B. Test using an alternative method 10.) The physician requested ionized calcium and C. Wrong anticoagulant used parathyroid hormone levels for a patient suspected of D. Repeat testing using a new specimen R hyperthyroidism. Laboratory results reveal an Ionized calcium level of 3 mmol/L (NV: 1.16-1.131 mmol/L) and & 4.) Post-prandial turbidity of the serum is caused by: A and parathyroid hormone level of 40 pg/mL (NV: A. Phospholipids creamy 3 turbid 24 hour overnight 17 15-60mg/mL). Based on the results, the patient might B. Lipoproteins (Chylomicrons VLDL) ref have? M. , C. Fatty Acids eX0 endo * creamy * turbid A. Parathyroid hyperplasia ↓& D. Cholesterol E B. Parathyroid adenoma ↑ C. Metastatic Carcinoma N L 5.) A patient who undergoes surgery exhibits prolonged D. Normal findings apnea after receiving succinylcholine anesthesia. Deficiency of this enzyme is responsible for this. DISEASE CALCIUM PTH A. Cholinesterase B. Pseudocholineesterase Metastatic Carcinoma INCREASE NORMAL C. Glutamate Dehydrogenase D. AST Parathyroid Adenoma INCREASE INCREASE 6.) A tumor marker that is useful for pancreatic mass Parathyroid Hyperplasia DECREASE INCREASE IS A. CA19-9 : * IMMUNO ASSAY B. CA 125 Cervical Ji 11.) The patient is undergoing primidone treatment, C. CA 15-3 Breast * Lipase (pancreas) however, laboratory result still shows a normal level. D. CEA colorectal cancer What to test next? A. Test for Phenytoin 7.) A child was tested for Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) B. Test for Phenobarbital Level and the result was 150 IU/L (NV: 44-147 IU/L). The C. Repeat test doctor suspected that the result was just a physiologic D. Reassay increase due to bone growth. What test can be used to differentiate normal bone growth from liver disease? ALP (4) * Paget's disease LEMAR REVIEW HUB 1 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— DRUG METABOLITE 16.) The early signs and symptoms when there is an accumulation of delta-aminolevulinic acid and PRIMIDONE Phenobarbital porphobilinogen : PROCINAMIDE N-acetyl-procinamide (NAPA) A. Photosensitivity and cutaneous lesions B. Mental impairment and blindness AMITRIPTYLINE Nortryptyline C. Neurological problems and severe abdominal pain COCAINE Benzoylecgonine D. Anxiety and hypotension MARIJUANA Tetrahydrocannabinol carboxyliic acid (THC-COOH) 17.) Principle of operation for pO2 analyzer? METHAMPHETAMINE Amphethamine A. Potentiometry pH 3 pCO2 (Shabu) B. Voltammetry Lead C. Polarography D. Amperometry 12. Most specific analyte for pancreatitis? B A. Lipase 18.) The patient is experiencing lethargy and headache. B. Amylase 100,000 CFU Oxidase Negative 47. Concentration of gentamicin using broth microdilution method for testing high-level Other Beta lactamase aminoglycoside resistance Enterococci is: production A. 1000 ug/mL A. Report Francicella B. 500 ug/mL B. Report Brucella C. 100 ug/mL B C. Ruleout Francisella and Brucella D. 50 ug/mL D. Ruelout Brucella and report Francicella U Methods Gentamicin Streptomycin 41. An agent of bacterial meningitis that is intrinsically H resistant to ceftriaxone: Broth 500 ug/mL 1000 ug/mL A. Haemophilus influenza B. Streptococcus pneumonia developing Agar 120 ug/mL 2000 ug/mL W C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Listeria monocytogenes IE 48. Nitrocefin disk testing is used for: 42. One of the advantages of using the MALDITOF-MS- A. Streptococcus peumoniae B. Haemophilus infuenzae V based instrument for bacterial identification is A. Fewer consumables C. Staphyloccus aureus E B. Rapid AST indentification D. Enterococcus C. Does not require isolated colonies R D. ID can be done in an hour 49. Endolimax nana trophozoite (PICTURE) 43. A MALDITOF-MS is utilized to determine the R bacterial identification of a Gram(-) Anaerobic A microorganism isolated on a positive culture bottle. In the process, what specific component of the microorganism is detected by the said instrument? M A. Cell wall carbohydrates E B. DNA Polypeptides C. Capsule L D. RNA Proteins 44. One of the challenges in performing MALDITOF-MS Endolimax nana trophozoites measure 6–12 µm and have a single is that Escherichia coli is sometimes confused with: nucleus with a characteristically large, irregularly shaped, blot-like A. Salmonella karyosome. The nucleus lacks peripheral chromatin. Their cytoplasm is granular and often highly vacuolated and may contain inclusions of B. Shigella bacteria. Source: CDC C. Klebsiella D. Edwardsiella 50. ESBL-producing isolates be considered resistant to 45. MALDITOF-MS Interference/errors which following agents? A. Cephalosporins, Penicillin, Aminoglycoside 1. Contaminating microbiota (not pure colonies) 2. Smearing between microorganisms on testing plate B. Cephalosporin, Aztreonam, Penicillin ⑭ C. Cephalosporin and B-lactamase inhibitors 3. Failure to properly clean the plates before D. Cephalosporin, Penicillin, Gentamycin subsequent use 4. Solvent & matrix variation 51. Water bath temperature: 5. Culture Conditions 30-35 degrees Celsius 6. Biologic Variations 7. Poorly developed quality-control strategies LEMAR REVIEW HUB 5 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— Hippurate Broth 37’C 56 Initial AST result: “ER- CS” Fletcher Medium 56’C Erythromycin Resistant, Clindamycin Susceptible (complement inactivation) -proceed to D ZONE TEST: A. (+) D Zone Tetst: REPORT: Clindamycin Resistant Shigella Typing 100’C B. (-) D Zone Test: REPORT Clindamycin Susceptible PTT & PT 37’C 52. The Tween-80 Hydrolysis test is useful to differentiate what two microorganisms? A. M. tuberculosis & M. bovis B. M. kansasii & M. avium ①C. M. gordonae & M. scrofulaceum 000 B D. M. avium & M. bovis ⑦ Grease Krease ⑰ U 53. Given the following bacterial characteristics, identify the organism: Gram Stain Intracellular & Extracellular Gram (-) Diplococci H W Growth on Positive IE MAC -CLINICAL MICROSCOPY- A. Klebsiella pneumoniae neutrophil V B. Moraxella catarhalis 57. In the urine analysis of a patient suspected of UTI C. Neiseria lactamica tested negative for leukocyte esterase. However, E D. Burkholderia cepacia microscopy results revealed 8 WBC per HPF. What is the possible reason? R 54. A culture isolate was subjected to gram staining and A. Presence of lymphocytes biochemical tests and the results appeared to be a B. Ascorbic Acid is present Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). As R C. Specimen is diluted an MLS, what to do next? D. No further testing needed A. Do a microscopic examination (not the best) M Possible Suplemental Test A FALSE POSITIVE Oxidizing Agent FALSE NEGATIVE Ascorbic Acid E 1. ) Test for Vancomycin Resistance (AST) 2. ) Perform PCR to detect mecA gene “Blood LPG” “BB LNG” L 3. ) Perform MALDITOF-MS for strain virulence Blood Blood 4. ) Perform PCR/ESI-MS Leukocyte Esterase Bilirubin Protein Leukocyte Esterase 55. A gram-negative pleomorphic coccobacillus was Glucose Nitrate seen in a direct smear. There is growth in CHOC agar but Glucose fails to grow on SBA and MAC agar. Further testing was conducted using X and V-impregnated strips. There is Reducing Agent Low Temperature growth in both strips. Identify the possible organism: (Detergent) A. H. parahaemolyticus ⑪ Rated “PG” Glucose B. H. ducreyi X Protein C. H. influenzae Glucose D. H aphrophilus X + V hai H.infulenzae, H.haemolyticus, H.aegypti X only H.ducreyi V only All haemophiulus with “para” LEMAR REVIEW HUB 6 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— FALSE POSITIVE FALSE NEGATIVE A. Cholesterol crystals High Specific Gravity B. Uric Acid crystals C. Tripple Phosphate crystals Protein “Blood SPG, Nice!” D. Tyrosine crystals Blood Specific Gravity 60. A 55-year-old patient was subjected to semen pH analysis. The results are the following: Glucose Motility 75% w/n 1 hour Nitrite Volume 4mL Formalin Contamination Liquefaction 45 minutes Leukocyte Esterase Urobilinogen B Highly Alkaline Urine Morphology 10% Abnormal Forms 90% Normal Forms U Protein *N= Normal, *Abn = Abnormal Specific Gravity H Pigmented Urine A. Motility (N), Volume (N), Liquefaction (N), Morphology (N) B. Motility (Abn), Volume (N), Liquefaction (N), Morphology (N) “PUKe Ni BiLe” C. Motility (N), Volume (N), Liquefaction (Abn), Morphology (N) W D. Motility (N), Volume (N), Liquefaction (N), Morphology (Abn) Protein IE Urobilinogen Motility > 50% w/n 1 hour Ketone V Nitriite Volume 2-5 mL Bilirubin E Leukocyte Esterase Liquefaction 30-60 minutes R 58. Given the following microscopy findings, what Morphology >30% Normal Forms possible disease can be correlated: pH 7.2-8.0 A R WBC Sperm Concentration 20 x106/mL E M 61. Sperm counting must be done: A. After centrifugation L B. After liquefaction C. Immediately after collection D. After dilution Source: Renal Fellow Network A. Glomerulonephritis 62. The following are the results of the urine analysis of a B. Tubular Necrosis hypotensive patient. C. Interstitial nephritis D. Nephrotic Syndrome Maltese Cross formation RBC 3 cell/hpf 59. Identify the urinary sediment. WBC 2-4 cell/hpf Protein 2 Cast 5 Epithelial Cell Cast /lpf RTE (2. - 3) 20-35 cell/hpf LEMAR REVIEW HUB 7 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— What is the possible diagnosis? 1st Specimen 2nd Specimen A. Glomerulonephritis B. Tubular Necrosis A 2(+) Negative C. Interstitial nephritis D. Nephrotic Syndrome B +/- Negative 63. As the microscopist shifted from LPO to HPO, the C Negative 1(+) objective lens touched the slide. What is the possible reason? D 2(+) 1(+) A. Lower the condenser 68. Possible cause for urine pH of 4.5: B. The slide must be in an upright position A. Vomiting C. Pressure was added in shifting B. Renal Tubular Acidosis Acidic D. Dirty lens C. High Protein Diet B D. Vegetarian diet 64. A child was tested for urine glucose using both U reagent strips and Clinitest. The result is as follows: 69. Using a polarized microscope, what component is H responsible for the Maltese cross formation appearance Glucose Reagent Strip Positive in the specimen? A. Triglycerides Clinitest Negative B. Bilirubin W Interpret the results: C. Cholesterol IE D. Monosodium urate A. Presence of other reducing substances Transudate vs. Exudate!!!! V B. Presence of glucose C. Presence of Ascorbic Acid TRANSUDATE EXUDATE E D. Outdated reagent strip pad Appearance CLEAR CLOUDY R Fluid:Serum 0.5 65. Given the following results, what is the possible Protein Ratio R reason? Fluid:Serum LD 0.6 A Blood Reagent Strip Positive Ratio WBC Count 1,000 /uL M Microscopy 0 RBC/hpf E Spontaneous No Possible A. Concentrated acidic urine Clotting L B. Diluted alkaline urine C. Repeat microcopy Pleural fluid 45 - 60 mg/dL D. Report, no further testing is needed cholesterol Pleural 0.3 66. Given the following results, what is the possible fluid:Serum reason? cholesterol Ratio LE Reagent Strip +++ Pleural fluid: 0.6 Microscopy 0 WBC/hpf Bilirubin Ratio Serum-ascites >1.1 2>1) (3=2=1) Supernatant Clot Formation Clear + Xanthochromic - % x + Y+ Erythrophages + - D-dimer - + y⑪ B - X+ X 71. CSF Count formula: It U y + ⑨ X - X + y- y- H neg ④ -x A. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia B. Plasma Cell Leukemia W C. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia D. Hairy Cell Leukemia IE 74. Immunophenotypic marker(s) that can be used to V detect Acute Megakaryocytic Leukemia in flow cytometry: E A. CD11c and CD103 hairy cell B. CD21 and CD5 Ch R C. CD138 Plasma D. CD41 and CD61 CDA 2 A R 72. Which of the following is the correct sequence of renal blood flow? A. Afferent arteriole->Glomerulus->Efferent Arteriole-> 75. Given the following flow cytometric plot, what is the possible associated disease? M Peritubular capillaries->Vasa Recta E B. Glomerulus->Efferent Arteriole-> Perirubular capillaries-> Afferent arteriole->Vasa Recta L C. Efferent arteriole->Glomerulus->Afferent Arteriole-> Peritubular capillaries->Vasa Recta D. Peritubular capillaries->Afferent arteriole ->Glomerulus->Efferent Arteriole-> Vasa Recta URINE FORMATION RENAL BLOOD FLOW “Go Party Henle, Don’t “RAGE-PVR” Cry in the CR” 1. Glomerulus 1. Renal Artery 2. PCT 2. Afferent Arteriole A. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia 3. Loop of Henle 3. Glomerulus B. Plasma Cell Leukemia 4. DCT 4. Efferent Arteriole C. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia 5. Collecting Duct 5. Peritubular Capillaries D. Hairy Cell leukemia 6. Calyx 6. Vasa Recta trap (t) 7. Renal pelvis 7. Renal vein LEMAR REVIEW HUB 9 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— 76. The following pathology finding was taken from a bone marrow biopsy specimen. What is the possible associated disease? Left 8 Right U B a. Low Hemoglobin Affinity to O2, Increased O2 delivery to tissue H b. Increase Hemoglobin Affinity to O2, Decrease O2 delivery to tissue c. Low Hemoglobin Affinity to O2, Low O2 delivery to W tissue d. Increase Hemoglobin Affinity to O2, Increase O2 IE delivery to tissue V A. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia Shift to the LEFT Shift to the RIGHT B. Plasma Cell Leukemia Cartwheel E C. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia ↑ pH (Alkalosis) ↓ pH (Acidosis) D. Hairy Cell leukemia R ↑ Hb Affinity to O2 ↓ Hb Affinity to O2 ↓ O2 delivery to tissue ↑ O2 delivery to tissue R DISEASE ASSOCIATED MARKERS DECREASE INCREASE A Megakaryocytic CD41, CD42, CD61 CO2 CO2 Leukemia (M7) 2,3-DPG 2,3-DPG Ions (H+) Ions (H+) M Hairy Cell CD11c, CD19, CD20, CD22, Temperature Temperature Leukemia CD25, CD103, FMC7 LE Neoplastic Plasma Cell Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia CD138, Kappa or Lambda CD19, CD20, CD21, CD5 78. The electrophoresis pattern shown is consistent with: NORMAL 77. The MLS is investigating hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen in various clinical contexts. An oxygen- hemoglobin dissociation curve is illustrated. The test results for patient X are displayed in curve A, and a typical oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is A. Hemoglobin AC displayed in curve B. Based on the illustration, what B. Beta thalassemia minor happened to patient X’s hemoglobin affinity to oxygen C. Hereditary persistence of Hemoglobin F and oxygen delivery to the tissue? D. Alpha Thalassemia LEMAR REVIEW HUB 10 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— B Thalastm 81. Possible cause of falsely decreased ESR: A. Tilting of tube. B. Mechanical Vibration O C. Delay in testing D. Increase ambient temperature O O INCREASE ESR DECREASE ESR Macrocytes Any Abnormal Cell j j Refrigerated sample not Morphology Decrease Temperature allowed to settle first in RT before testing 00 B Increase plasma proteins Decrease Albumin U (Positive APRs) (Negative APR) 8 Anemia Polycythemia Vera 79. The following laboratory results of a patient with Wide Tube H Narrow Tube W unstable hemoglobin. Vibration Clotted sample & bubbles IE RBC Count 4.5 x109/L NOTE(!) ESR, RBC MASS, & TEMPERATURE V HCT 33% = “DIRECT” relationship E HB 12 mg/dL -The heavier and hotter, the faster to settle down -example: MACROCYTES (size only!!!) MCHC 36 g/dL R ESR & PLASMA VISCOSITY RDW 18% = “INVERSE” relationship R -More viscous, the slower to settle down The peripheral blood smear exhibits mild polychromasia. -example: LEUKOCYTOSIS, POLYCTHEMIA VERA A Additionally, 30 reticulocytes were noted. Based on the supravi tal given information, the presence of the following is also 82. Calculate the % saturation given the following: M expected to be seen in the PBS: UIBC: 185 Serum Fe+: 125 E A. Heinz Bodies DNA stain Transferrin: 230 L B. Howel Jolly Bodies RHH C. Basophilic Stippling A. 40% D. Cabot Ring B. 0.40% C. 54% 80. The CBC results shown in the table are obtained D. 0.54% from an automated analyzer. As a MLS, what to do next? 185 + 125 TIBC UIBC + Serum Fe+ WBC 7.2 x109/L MCV 92 fL % Saturation (Serum Fe+ / TIBC) x 100 RBC 3.50 x1012/L. MCH 39.4 pg & x 100 HGB 13.8 g/dL 10 MCHC 41% NV: 20-55% HCT 33.5% RDW 12% 83. The flow cytometry immunophenotypic result of a patient with PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria) A. Check plasma if lipemic Rule of 3 will exhibit deficiency in: B. Check for gross hemolysis A. CD19 & CD20 C. Recollect with other anticoagulant B. HLA-B27 D. Report the result immediately C. CD2 & CD3 D. CD55 & CD59 DAF MIRL LEMAR REVIEW HUB 11 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM Warfarin #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— 86. Coumadin as an anticoagulant affects vitamin- 84. A peripheral blood smear is prepared. Based on the dependent clotting factors by : image shown, the patient might have: A. Interfere with cyclooxygenase pathway Aspirin B. Interfere with Platelet Secretion C. Platelet Function Inhibition D. Coagulation factor synthesis inhibition 87. APTT & PT Reagent APTT PT 1. Phospholipids 1. Thromboplastin 2. Activator 2. CALCIUM Chloride 3. CALCIUM Chloride B 88. Platelets participate in the blood coagulation process U by providing: A. Coagulation factors H B. Phospholipids A. Immune Hemolytic Anemia C. Calcium B. Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria D. Fibrinolytic enzyme W C. Warm autoantibody D. Infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae 89 It is used to neutralize lupus-like anticoagulants in Walking pneumoniae IE vitro: NOTE(!) A. Platelets B. Calcium V Paroxysmal Cold IgG (Warm) Anti-P C. DRVVT Hemoglobinuria E D. Anti-Lupus (PCH) NOTE(!) R Cold Agglutinin IgM (Cold/Room Temp) Anti-I If BOTH “Platelets” and “Phospholipids” are present in Disease (CAD) the choices, answer PHOSPOLIPIDS. RBC Count Low A R 85. IDA CBC w/ RBC Indices & Iron Studies Result NV: 4-6 x1012/L 90. Possible risk to the patient with lupus anticoagulant: A. Increase Bleeding B. Increase Thrombosis M C. Excessive fibrinolysis HGB Low NV: 12-18 g/dL D. Decrease Thrombosis L HCT MCV MCH E Low Low Low NV: 35-50% NV: 76-100 fL NV: 26-34 pg 91. As myeloblast matures to promyelocyte, it loses: A. CD15 & HLA-DR B. HLA-DR & CD3 C. HLA-DR & CD34 D. CD34 & CD15 DR 34. MCHC Low NV: 32-36 g/dL LOSES: HLA-DR & CD34 ACQUIRED: CD15 RDW Slightly High NV: 11.5-14.5% 92. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anemia and the Serum Iron Low NV: laboratory results are as follows: M:65-175 mg/dL F:50-170 mg/dL RBC Count 3.0x1012/L Serum Ferritin Low NV: M:20-250 ug/L Reticulocytes 3.5% F:10-120 ug/L Platelets 50x109/L TIBC High NV: 250-245 ug/dL Peripheral Blood Smear Many Schistocytes LEMAR REVIEW HUB 12 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— 96. PFA 100 Assay result: Based on the given results, it is consistent with: Collagen/ADP NORMAL A. Intrinsic Fibrin Blockage B. Immune hemolytic anemia Collagen/Epinephrine PROLONGED C. G6PD Deficiency D. Iron-deficiency anemia A. Von Willebrand Disease 93. Translocation abnormality in patients with Acute B. Glanzmann Thrombasthemia Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3): C. Aspirin Ingention A. t(15;17) D. Bernard Souliere Syndrome B. t(8;21) C. t(8;16) D. t(1;22) -IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY- t(8;21) t(8;16) AML w/ Maturation (M2) Acute MonoblAstic Leukemia (M5) correlated? U B 98. Based on the ANA Pattern. What antibodies can be inv(16) Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia (M4) H W cell t(15;17) taggorAcute Promyelocytic (M3) **DIC-related IE t(1;22) Acute Megakaryocytic Leukemia (M7) t(9;22) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia V (BCR/ABL - Philadelphia Chromosome) E JAK2 Polycythemia Vera R Essential thrombocythemia Myelofibrosis w/ Myeloid Metaplasia R A. Anti-dsDNA B. Anti-RNP 94. A 2-year-old child bone marrow specimen was A C. Anti-CCP submitted to the laboratory. The pathologist noted that D. Anti-Nucleolar 70% of blasts, mostly promyelocytes, have a strong M reaction of their azurophilic granules to peroxidase. What 98. Based on the ANA Pattern. What possible disease type of neoplasm is consistent with the results? E can be correlated? L A. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia B. T-cell Lymphoma C. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia D. B-cell Lymphoma 95. The following are the results of the hemoglobin level of patient X for 5 consecutive days. What is the possible reason? DAY 1 DAY 2 DAY 3 DAY 4 DAY 5 HGB 11.5 11.3 11.0 A 14.0 11.5 A. Increase WBC A. Sjogren’s Syndrome B. Lipemic sample B. Rheumatoid Arthritis C. Technical Error C. Scleroderma with CREST D. Wrong anticoagulant used D. Poliomyelitis LEMAR REVIEW HUB 13 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— Speckled (ANTI-SSA) *recall Anti-Cytoplasmic (Anti-Mitochondrial) U B H IE W Nucleolar E V R A R E M L Rim/ Peripheral Homogenous LEMAR REVIEW HUB 14 ANTI-MW BOOSTER ASCPi Reinforcement Lecture I By Marwin John D. Andres, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM #InternationalMLS ———————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————————— 99. AUTOANTIBODIES & ASSOCIATED DISEASE 101. The neonate tested positive for Rubella IgG serum Primary Biliary Cholangitis Anti-mitochondrial antibodies antibody. To confirm the diagnosis, what test should be done? Chronic Active Hepatitis Anti-smooth muscle antibodies A. Mother’s Serum Systemic Lupus Anti-double stranded DNA B. Original Specimen Erythematosus (SLE) antibodies (dsDNA) C. No further Testing D. Father’s Serum Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptides antibodies (CCP) 102. Rubella infection titer after ACUTE and LATENT Grave’s Disease Anti-TSH receptor antibodies infection: (Hyperthyroidism) A. Acute, 1:8, after 3-4 weeks 1:128 Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis Anti-microsomal / Anti-thyroid B. Acute, 1:8, after 3-4 weeks 1:64 B (Hypothyroidism) peroxidase antibodies C. Acute, 1:8, after 3-4 weeks 1:32 D. Acute, 1:8, after 3-4 weeks 1:16 Multiple Sclerosis U Anti-myelin sheath antibodies Myasthemia gravis Greater than “four-fold” rise in antibody titer indicates H Anti-acetylcholine Receptor antibodies Rubella Infection. (Stevens) Celiac Disease Anti-transglutaminase / Anti- gliadin antibosies W 103. A child’s titer for different antibodies: Goodpasteurs Syndrome Anti-glomerular basement EBV IgM 1:10 E Churg-Strauss Syndrome Cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA) CMV IgG 1:128 100. Identify the type of Agglutination Reaction: The particle is coated with known ANTIGEN to detect R Toxoplasma IgM

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