Veterinary Anatomy Total Recall PDF

VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 1. What is the chief function of sesamoid bones? a. Providing structural support to the skeleton b. Storing minerals and vitamins c. Protecting tendons from friction d. Facilitating blood cell formation 2. What substance primarily occ...

VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 1. What is the chief function of sesamoid bones? a. Providing structural support to the skeleton b. Storing minerals and vitamins c. Protecting tendons from friction d. Facilitating blood cell formation 2. What substance primarily occupies the shafts of long bones in adult dogs? a. Red bone marrow b. Yellow bone marrow c. Hydroxyapatite d. Periosteum 3. What is the function of the diploe in the skull bones? a. Providing attachment points for muscles b. Protecting the brain and sense organs c. Serving as a site for blood cell formation d. Forming intraosseous air spaces known as paranasal sinuses 4. Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for auditory processing? a. Frontal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Occipital lobe 5. The ventral metencephalon includes which segment of the brain stem? a. Medulla b. Pons c. Midbrain d. Hypothalamus 6. Which muscle aids in various functions including urination, defecation and respiration? a. External abdominal oblique b. Internal abdominal oblique c. Transversus abdominis d. Rectus abdominis 7. What structures are palpable in the neck ventral to the cervical vertebrae? a. Salivary glands and lymph nodes b. Larynx, trachea and esophagus c. Carotid artery and thyroid gland d. All of the above VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 8. What nerves supply both motor and sensory innervation to the corresponding half of the diaphragm a. Phrenic nerves b. Intercostal nerves c. Vagus nerves d. Brachial plexu nerves 9. The CN __, also known as __ nerve, branches out into ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular nerves. a. III; optic b. V; trigeminal c. VII; facial d. IX; glossopharyngeal 10. The linea alba, which begins from the tip of the ___ and ends at the pubic bone, separates which 2 muscles? a. Xiphoid process; left and right rectus abdominis b. Manubrium; left and right transversus abdominis c. Xiphoid process; left and right transversus abdominis d. Manubrium; left and right rectus abdominis 11. Which bone or part of a bone is useful in approximating the position of the heart in dogs? a. Carpus b. Radius c. Olecranon d. Ulna 12. Which of the following ligament will you first detach in performing OVH in bitches? a. Cardinal ligament b. Round ligament c. Broad ligament d. Suspensory ligament 13. Which of the following heart structures is defective in the case of persistent foramen ovale? a. Wall separating the two atria b. Wall separating the two ventricles c. The valve between the right ventricle and the right atrium d. The valve between the left ventricle and the left atrium 14. The dog’s heart approx. extends from the ___ to the ___ rib. a. 3rd; 5th b. 3rd; 6th c. 4th; 6th (cat?) VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL d. 4th; 7th 15. The vein that carries blood to the liver from the abdominal viscera such as the stomach, the small intestine, the cecum, the colon, the pancreas, and the spleen is the ___. a. Hepatic vein b. Portal vein c. Gastroduodenal vein d. Visceral vein 16. Which of the following joints is in between the condylar process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the zygomatic process of the squamous part of the temporal bone? a. Temporomandibular joint b. Condyloid joint c. Tympano Hyoid cartilage d. Mandibular joint 17. The leptomeninges refers to the ___. a. Dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater b. Dura mater and arachnoid mater c. Arachnoid mater and pia mater d. Dura mater and the arachnoid mater 18. During a necropsy, an additional petechial hemorrhage is observed at the cardiac lobe. Where can you locate the cardiac lobe? a. Right lung, cranial lobe b. Right lung, middle lobe c. Right lung, accessory lobe d. Right lung, caudal lobe 19. Which of the following is the dental formula for the permanent teeth of dogs? a. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3) x 2 b. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3, M 0/0) x 2 c. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3, M 2/3) x 2 d. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 0/0) x 2 20. Which of the following is the dental formula for the temporary teeth of puppies? a. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 2/3) x 2 b. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3, M 0/0) x 2 c. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 3/3, M 2/3) x 2 d. (I 3/3, C 1/1, P 4/4, M 0/0) x 2 21. The smallest bones of the body are the three bony ossicles which, arranged from the outside to the inside, are: a. Stapes, malleus, incus VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL b. Malleus, incus, stapes c. Incus, malleus, stapes d. Stapes, incus, malleus 22. The roof of the cranium, known as the calvaria, is formed by the ___. a. Parietal bones b. Frontal bones c. Both are correct d. None of the choices 23. Which of the following parts of the heart receives blood that has originated from different parts of the body before it passes the tricuspid valve? a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle 24. The standard formula for the spine of the domestic dog is __. a. C7, T13, L7, S3 b. C7, T13, L8, S3 c. C7, T14, L5, S3 d. C7, T14, L5, S3 25. Which of the following nerves innervate the tersor fasciae antebrachii muscle? a. Musculocutaneous nerve b. Radial nerve c. Axillary nerve d. Subscapular nerve 26. Which layer of the heart primarily consists of cardiac muscle and is responsible for the heart’s pumping action? a. Epicardium b. Myocardium c. Endocardium d. Pericardium VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 27. In a clinical situation, if an animal exhibits an inability to bear weight on its thoracic limb, which nerve injury is the most probable cause? a. Ulnar nerve b. Subscapular nerve c. Median nerve d. Radial nerve 28. What are the fibrous strands that originate from the pupillary muscles of the heart and serve to prevent valves from prolapsing into the atrium during ventricular contraction? a. Musculi pectinate b. Trabecula septomarginalis c. Crista supraventricularis d. Chordae tendinae 29. A dog with enlarged superficial inguinal and axillary lymph node and normal superficial cervical and popliteal lymph nodes would most likely have an infection in its a. Thoracic limb b. Pelvic limb c. Thoracic and pelvic limbs d. Mammary glands 30. Which type of lymphoid tissue is NOT found in dogs? a. Hemal nodes b. Thymus c. Peyer’s patches d. Tonsil 31. Which description best characterizes the liver lobation in pigs? a. There are no internal divisions, and the liver comprises four main lobes b. The left lobe is divided into medial and lateral parts, while the right lobe remains undivided; the caudate lobe possesses a caudate process without a papillary process c. Both the left and right hepatic lobes are segmented into medial and lateral sections; the caudate lobe is separated into the caudate and papillary processes d. Both the left and right hepatic lobes are divided into medial and lateral components; the caudate lobe exhibits a caudate process without a papillary process 32. What is the common name for the articulation between fused Mc III and Mc IV and P1 on each digit? a. Humerus joint b. Olecranon joint c. Fetlock joint VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL d. Calcaneus joint 33. Which of the following accessory sex glands is present in horses? a. Ampullary b. Vesicular c. Prostrate d. All of the above 34. Which animal exhibits the following vertebral formula: C7 T11-15 L6-7 S4 Cd20-23? a. Canine b. Horse c. Cattle d. Swine 35. Which bone forms the rostral tip of the face in birds? a. Premaxillary bone b. Maxillary bone c. Nasal bone d. Mandibular bone 36. In which species can you find a Morocco leather pattern in the liver? a. Swine b. Equine c. Ruminant d. Avian 37. Which of the following statements about the location of the intestines in pigs is LEAST accurate? a. The right side of the abdomen houses the descending duodenum and the ascending colon b. The transverse colon traverses from the right to the left, positioned cranially to the mesenteric root c. You can find the ascending duodenum and descending colon on the left side of the abdominal cavity d. Positioned on the right side of the abdomen, the cecum lacks longitudinal muscular bands (taeniae) and rows of sacculations (haustra) VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 38. You’re a veterinary student on a field trip to a horse ranch. Your professor asks you to identify the correct description of the pulmonary lobes in horses. You know that this information is crucial for diagnosing respiratory issues in horses. Which option correctly describes the pulmonary lobes in the horse’s respiratory system? a. Left lung: cranial, middle and caudal lobe; Right lung: cranial, middle, caudal and accessory lobe b. Left lung: cranial and caudal lobe; Right lung: cranial, middle and caudal lobe c. Left lung: cranial and caudal lobe; Right lung: cranial lobe, caudal lobe and accessory lobe d. Left lung: cranial and caudal lobe; Right lung: cranial and accessory lobe 39. You’re working at a veterinary clinic, and a concerned owner brings in their horse for a check-up. To properly assess the horse’s condition, it’s essential to understand the kidney structure in this species. Which description best represents the shape of a horse’s kidneys? a. The right kidney is heart-shaped, while the left is bean-shaped b. The left kidney is heart-shaped, while the right is bean-shaped c. Both kidneys are bean-shaped d. Both kidneys are irregularly oval and lobated 40. In your role as a veterinarian, the owner seeks an understanding of the mare’s ovaries, which appear bean-shaped. What do you attribute this unique feature to? a. Ovulation process b. Ovulation fossa c. Ovarian septum d. Ovarian tubercle 41. Which of the following statements regarding the uterine characteristics in domestic animals is not accurate? a. The uterus of pigs consists of a long cervix, a short body, and long horns resembling loops of small intestine b. The uterus develops from the paramesonephric ducts of the embryo, similar to the salpinx and the vagina c. Cervical folds are arranged longitudinally in the mare, cat, and dog; circular in the pig; and interdigitating rows of prominences in the cow d. The surface of the uterine wall is marked with uterine caruncles, to which embryonic cotyledons attach during pregnancy 42. As a veterinarian, you encounter various domestic animals with differing pancreatic duct structures. Understanding this is essential for accurate diagnosis. Among the following domestic animals, which one consistently has both the pancreatic and accessory pancreatic ducts? a. Pig b. Horse VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL c. Cattle d. All of the above 43. Which type of papillae is described as being the smallest, most common, and present at the rostral two-thirds of the tongue in animals? a. Filiform papillae b. Conical papillae c. Marginal papillae d. None of the above 44. Which of the following bird groups lacks the bill tip organ? a. Ducks b. Geese c. Pigeons d. None of the above 45. Which type of teeth, often rudimentary and non-erupted in mares, but developing into tushes in stallions at around 5 years of age, are responsible for holding food firmly in the mouth, and typically erupt in the diastema? a. Incisors b. Premolars c. Canine d. Molars 46. In the major divisions of an equine stomach, which part is responsible for the initial storage of food and contains the cardiac sphincter? a. Fundus b. Body c. Cardiac d. Pyloric 47. Which part of the horse’s digestive system is responsible for the digestion of complex carbohydrates like cellulose? a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Caecum d. Colon 48. After a horse was involved in an accident that severely injured its forelimbs and subsequently recovered, it was observed that the horse frequently kept its right arm in a flexed position and exhibited pain when attempting to extend it. Which of the following muscles was most likely compromised as a result of this injury? a. Triceps brachii b. Biceps brachii VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL c. Teres major d. Extensor carpi radialis 49. Horses are known to have the ability to stand still even when at rest for long hours. What mechanism allows this ability in horses? a. Stay apparatus b. Stay suture c. Stay foramen d. Stay stay stay 50. Which anatomical adaptation in birds prevents urinary tract infections from ascending into the ureters? a. The long path of the ureter within the urodeum b. The presence of sphincters in the ureter c. The narrowness of the ureter d. The connection of the ureter directly to the urinary bladder 51. You are performing a dissection on a pig’s stomach to check for cysts or abnormalities. While examining the stomach, you observe a prominent, fleshy structure located in the pyloric region. What is the correct term for this protuberance? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Torus pyloricus c. Cardiac sphincter d. Duodenal papilla 52. What is the primary source of the distinctive odor associated with boars? a. Preputial diverticulum b. Olfactory receptors c. Salivary glands d. Sweat glands 53. During an examination of a sow’s reproductive tract, you notice mucosal ridges on the cervix. In this context, what is the specific term for these protrusions? a. Rugae cervicales b. Uterine papillae c. Pulvini cervicales d. Cervical papillae 54. ______ to collect a semen sample from a boar, describe the path of semen flow from the testes to the urethra. a. Seminiferous tubules – Rete testis – Efferent duct – Epididymis – Ductus deferens – Vas deferens – Urethra b. Seminiferous tubules – Epididymis – Rete testis – Efferent duct – Ductus deferens – Vas deferens – Urethra VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL c. Seminiferous tubules – Efferent duct – Rete testis – Epididymis – Ductus deferens – Vas deferens – Urethra d. Epididymis – Seminiferous tubules – Efferent duct – Rete testis – Ductus deferens – Vas deferens – Urethra 55. You are presented with a piglet at your clinic exhibiting signs of ascites. As you consider a potential heart tissue, which side of the heart is most likely to be affected based on the clinical presentation? a. Right side b. Left side c. Both sides d. None of the above 56. This type of uterus of rodents and rabbits in which the uterine horns are completely separated and have separate cervices opening into the vagina. Which of the following uterus fits the description? a. Simplex b. Duplex c. Bicornuate d. Bipartite 57. Which of the following is likely the dental formula of a ruminant? a. 3/3, 0/1, 3/3, 3/3 b. 0/3, 0/1, 3/3, 3/3 c. 0/3, 0/1, 0/3, 3/3 d. 3/3, 0/1, 0/3, 3/3 58. Which of the following is the true stomach of chickens? a. Crop b. Ventriculus – aka gizzard; mechanical digestion c. Proventriculus – where digestive enzyme are secreted (chemical digestion) d. Ceca 59. Which of the following parts of the chicken oviduct is the shell gland? a. Infundibulum b. Magnum c. Isthmus d. Uterus 60. Which animal listed below lacks seminal vesicles (vesicular glands)? a. Cats b. Horses c. Cattle d. Goats VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 61. Which of the following organs arises from the notochord? a. Intervertebral disc b. Spinal cord c. Medulla of oblongata d. Pons 62. Which of the following describes the placentation of cattle? a. Multicotyledonary, epitheliochorial, deciduate b. Multicotyledonary, syndesmochorial, deciduate c. Multicotyledonary, epitheliochorial, adeciduate d. Multicotyledonary, syndesmochorial, adeciduate 63. Which of the following embryonic events where mitotic division happens without increase in total size of all daughter cells? a. Cleavage b. Blastulation c. Hatching d. Gastrulation 64. Where does the embryonic heart start to form? a. Dorsal of the embryo and above the site of brain formation b. Ventral of the embryo and above the site of brain formation c. Cranial of the embryo and above the site of brain formation d. Caudal of the embryo and above the site of brain formation 65. Which of the following describes the placentation of dogs? a. Zonary, synepitheliochorial, deciduate b. Zonary, endotheliochorial, deciduate c. Zonary, synepitheliochorial, adeciduate d. Zonary, endotheliochorial, adeciduate 66. Which cardiac malformation is characterized by shunting of blood from left to right, resulting in dilatation and hypertrophy of the right atrium and ventricle? a. Atrial septal defect (ASD) b. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) c. Pulmonary stenosis (PS) d. Aortic stenosis 67. What is the cause of cyclopia incompleta? a. Loss of midline tissue during development b. Fusion of the eyelids c. Overdevelopment of the forebrain d. Absence of the anterior chamber VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 68. Which of the following structures is NOT derived from the ectoderm during embryonic development? a. Cornea - ectoderm b. Schwann cells -ectoderm c. Thymus - endoderm d. Mammary gland - ectoderm 69. Which animal forms its amniotic fluid at approximately day 15 from fertilization, and maternal recognition of pregnancy is made possible during this same day? a. Cattle b. Sheep c. Horses d. Dogs 70. What is the consequence of abnormal development of the anterior chamber of the eye in congenital primary glaucoma? a. Formation of persistent pupillary membrane b. Enlargement of trabecular spaces c. Reduction in aqueous humor resorption d. Development of cyclopia 71. Placenta of mammals is formed by the specialized region of the ___ of the embryo and adjacent ___ if the mother. a. Allantois and myometrium b. Chorion and endometrium c. Trophoblast and endometrium d. Amnion and myometrium 72. Which of the following layers of the ovum expand immediately after fertilization? a. Zona pellucida b. Plasma membrane c. Vitelline membrane d. Perivitelline space 73. Twins wherein anterior union of the lower half of the body is present: a. Cephalopagus b. Diplopagus c. Ischopagus d. Pygopagus VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 74. It is the only brain vesicle that remains undivided during embryonic development: a. Metencephalon b. Mesencephalon c. Rhombencephalon d. Myelencephalon 75. Which of the following statements is LEAST accurate a. The eardrum and oropharyngeal membrane are derived from both endoderm and ectoderm b. Primary palate is formed by the fusion of medial projections coming from the maxillary process c. Ectoderm and mesenchyme present at either side of the 1st branchial cleft give rise to the pinna d. Afferent nerve fibers carry impulses from effector organs to the CNS *Note: Afferent nerve fibers actually carry sensory impulses from the periphery (like sensory organs, muscles, and internal organs) to the central nervous system (CNS). Efferent nerve fibers are the ones that carry motor impulses from the CNS to effector organs. 76. Which of the following structures is not retained in the male embryo? a. Mullerian duct – female b. Metanephros c. Wolffian duct - male d. Mesonephric tubules *Note: In the male embryo, the Mullerian duct degenerates under the influence of anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH). The remaining structures - the metanephros, Wolffian duct, and mesonephric tubules - develop into male reproductive organs and other structures. 77. The following are primary lesions seen in the Tetralogy of Fallot, EXCEPT: a. Interventricular septal defect VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL b. Dextroaorta c. Pulmonic stenosis d. Right ventricular hypertrophy 78. Completion of the 1st miotic division of the primary oocyte occurs ___. a. During fetal stage b. Before sexual maturity c. At birth d. At puberty 79. Neuroectodermal cells that neither participate in the formation of the neural tube nor remain with the parent superficial ectoderm are the: a. Epiblast b. Centrosomes c. Neural crest cells d. Blastomeres 80. Which of the following falls under the dizygotic twin classification? a. Freemartinism b. Siamese twine c. Fetus in fetu d. Identical twins 81. The mucosal lining of three of the following organs consist of stratified squamous epithelium EXCEPT one which is ___. a. Omasum b. Rumen c. Reticulum d. Abomasum 82. In mammals, which stage of red blood cell development is the most mature cell that still contains a nucleus? a. Rubricyte b. Metarubricyte c. Reticulocytes d. Rubriblast 83. What is the correct order of steps for preparing tissue sections before staining? a. Xylene immersion, water rehydration, ethanol immersion b. Xylene immersion, ethanol rehydration, water immersion c. Ethanol immersion, xylene removal, water rehydration d. Water immersion, xylene removal, ethanol rehydration 84. What type of connective tissue is predominantly found in tendons and ligaments? VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL a. Loose connective tissue b. Reticular connective tissue c. Dense regular connective tissue d. Dense irregular connective tissue 85. What are the characteristics of cartilage? a. Highly vascular with excellent regenerative capacity b. Non-weight-bearing and rigid with minimal tensile strength c. Avascular, alymphatic, and aneural, with poor regenerative capacity d. Flexible but lacking tensile strength, rich in blood vessels and nerve supply *Note: Cartilage lacks blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves, which contributes to its limited capacity for repair and regeneration. 86. In which anatomical structures is mucoid connective tissue primarily found? a. Joint capsules b. Umbilical cord, comb, and wattle (avian), and glans penis (bovine) c. Tendons and ligaments d. Dermis of the skin *Note: Mucoid connective tissue is primarily found in structures that require flexibility, distensibility, and resistance to stress. 87. Which type of skeletal muscle are predominantly found in ocular muscles, despite their involvement in rapid eye movements? a. Red skeletal muscle fibers b. White skeletal muscle fibers c. Intermediate skeletal muscle fibers d. Cardiac muscle fibers 88. Which statement accurately describes the regenerative capacity of different types of muscle tissues? a. Smooth muscle and skeletal muscle have high regenerative potential, while cardiac muscle does not regenerate. b. Cardiac muscle and smooth muscle have limited regenerative abilities, whereas skeletal muscle can fully regenerate c. All three types of muscle tissues–smooth, skeletal and cardiac–demonstrate significant regenerative capacities d. Smooth muscle regenerates extensively, while skeletal muscle has limited regenerative potential, and cardiac muscle does not regenerate *Note: Smooth muscle has some regenerative capacity, but cardiac muscle has very limited or negligible regenerative ability. Skeletal muscle has a higher regenerative potential, primarily through satellite cells. VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL 89. The growth plate in cattle is completely ossified at what age? a. 18 months b. 20 months c. 30 months d. 40 months 90. The following statements are true about the pancreas, EXCEPT a. Its main endocrine function are found in cells in the Islets of Langerhans b. Has Beta cells that secretes insulin in response to hypoglycemia c. Has D cells that secretes a hormone that inhibits the secretions of Alpha and Beta cells d. Produces digestive enzymes that are secreted by pancreatic acinar cells 91. These are phagocytic cells found in the liver a. Kupffer cells b. Langerhans cells c. Hofbauer cells d. Glissons cells 92. This is a special simple squamous epithelium that lines all blood vessels, including the heart a. Endothelium b. Granulosum c. Perichondrium d. Mesothelium 93. Which animal species has the smallest average size of RBC? a. Equine b. Canine c. Bovine d. Caprine 94. In the ovaries of most domestic animals, the cortex is located peripherally while the medulla is located centrally. What species has the cortex and medulla in reverse? a. Sow b. Mare c. Cow d. Ewe 95. Vaginal cytology conducted on a bitch presents mostly cornified cells with pyknotic nucleus and many erythrocytes. What stage of the estrous cycle is indicated? a. Metestrus b. Estrus c. Diestrus VETERINARY ANATOMY TOTAL RECALL d. Proestrus 96. Which of the following presents the proper sequence of events that occur to the follicles of the ovary? a. Graafian follicle > corpus luteum > corpus hemorrhagicum b. Corpus albicans > corpus luteum > graafian follicle c. Corpus luteum > corpus hemorrhagicum > corpus albicans d. Corpus albicans > graafian follicle > corpus hemorrhagicum 97. Which of the following statements is the best way to microscopically distinguish the distal convoluted tubules from the proximal convoluted tubule? a. The cytoplasm is acidophilic b. The lining epithelium is simple cuboidal c. The lumen is obliterated d. The lumen is distinct 98. This is the region of the avian upper respiratory system that is lined with bistratified squamous or columnar cells a. Larynx b. Syrinx c. Nasopharynx d. Trachea 99. Which of the following statements is the best way to distinguish veins from arteries? a. The presence of blood in the lumen b. The lumen is narrower and contracts irregularly during agonal changes c. The wall is thinner with t. adventitia as the most prominent layer d. The wall is thinner with t. media as the most prominent layer 100. Which of the following best describes the Zone of Maturation in the epiphyseal growth plate? a. Chondrocytes stack together and form columns b. The lacunae of chondrocytes are eroded c. Chondrocytes are larger and more obvious d. Chondrocytes are swollen *Note: In this zone, chondrocytes cease dividing and begin to enlarge significantly. They store glycogen and produce alkaline phosphatase, preparing for calcification.