ANAT1001 2020S2 Introduction to Anatomy Exam Paper PDF

# MACQUARIE University **Formal Examination Period**: Session 2, November 2020 ## **Unit Code**: ANAT1001 ## **Unit Name**: Introduction to Anatomy ## **Duration of Exam**: 2 hours + 10 minutes reading time ## **Total No. of Questions**: 100 ## **Total No. of Pages**: 19 ### **General Instruction...

# MACQUARIE University **Formal Examination Period**: Session 2, November 2020 ## **Unit Code**: ANAT1001 ## **Unit Name**: Introduction to Anatomy ## **Duration of Exam**: 2 hours + 10 minutes reading time ## **Total No. of Questions**: 100 ## **Total No. of Pages**: 19 ### **General Instructions to Students** - Students are required to follow directions given by the Final Examination Supervisor and must refrain from communicating in any way with another student once they have entered the final examination venue. - Students may not write or mark the exam materials in any way during reading time. - Students may only access authorised materials during this examination. A list of authorised material is available on this cover sheet. - All watches must be removed and placed at the top of the exam desk and must remain there for the duration of the exam. All alarms, notifications and alerts must be switched off. - Students are not permitted to leave the exam room during the first hour (excluding reading time) and during the last 15 minutes of the examination. - If it is alleged you have breached these rules at any time during the examination, the matter may be reported to a University Discipline Committee for determination. ### **Examination Instructions** - Answer all questions. - **Part A**: Multiple Choice Questions - record your answers in the Multiple Choice Answer sheet - **Part B**: True and False - record your answers in the Multiple Choice Answer sheet ### **Aids and Materials Permitted/Not Permitted** | Category | | |-----------|-----| | Dictionaries | No dictionaries permitted | | Calculators | No Calculators permitted | | Other | Closed Book - No notes or textbooks permitted | ### **Part A** 1. Select the correct order of organisation from smallest to largest: - A. Chemical, Cells, Tissue, Organ, Systems, Human Body - B. Cells, Chemicals, Tissue, Systems, Organs, Human Body - C. Chemical, Atoms, Tissue, Organ, Systems, Human Body - D. None of the above 2. Select the correct definition of ipsilateral: - A. Situated/appearing/affecting the same side of the body - B. Situated/appearing/affecting the opposite side of the body - C. Contralateral - D. Closer to the origin/point of attachment 3. You have just spent the weekend eating Betty's Burgers with a side of 5 beers, what organelle is functioning at a higher rate than usual? - A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum - B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum - C. Chloroplasts - D. Desmosomes 4. The organelle that recycles or breaks down worn-out cell contents is: - A. Lysosomes - B. Mitochondria - C. Ribosome - D. Golgi apparatus 5. The organelle that packages proteins for the cells and sends them to other cells is: - A. Lysosomes - B. Mitochondria - C. Ribosome - D. Golgi Apparatus 6. Select the location(s) in which you would find fibrocartilage: - A. Pubic Symphysis - B. Intervertebral discs - C. Menisci of the knee - D. All the above 7. Select the location(s) in which you would find elastic cartilage: - A. External Ear - B. External Auditory canal - C. Epiglottis - D. All the above 8. Select the location(s) where simple squamous epithelium is found: - A. Pulmonary alveoli - B. Kidneys - C. Myocardium - D. Both Pulmonary alveoli and Kidneys 9. What type of epithelium is found in the upper respiratory tract? - A. Simple squamous epithelium - B. Pseudostratified microvilli columnar epithelium - C. Stratified cuboidal - D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium 10. Which of the following is NOT an example of specialised connective tissue? - A. Blood - B. Bone - C. Lymphatics - D. Mesenchyme 11. The carpal bones are examples of: - A. Short bones - B. Long bones - C. Sesamoid bones - D. Flat bones 12. In an amphiarthrotic joint, slight movement is: - A. Not possible - B. Possible - C. Synovial - D. None of the above 13. Extracapsular ligaments are defined as: - A. Being present on the inside of a joint capsule - B. Being present on the outside of a joint capsule - C. Not existing around joint capsule - D. Both A and B 14. The atlanto-axial joint is structurally classified as a: - A. Synovial Plane - B. Synovial Ball and socket - C. Synovial Pivot - D. Synovial condyloid 15. The inorganic component of bony tissue is: - A. Collagen - B. Fibroblasts - C. Glycoproteins - D. Hydroxyapatite 16. Which of the following are granulocytes? - A. Neutrophils - B. Eosinophils - C. Basophils - D. All the options 17. Select the types of agranulocytes: - A. Neutrophils - B. Eosinophils - C. Basophils - D. Lymphocytes 18. Sandra, a 23-year-old female, has contracted a bacterial infection. She felt very ill and visited her local GP where she was asked to take a blood test. Reading the results of the blood test, what cell type(s) are likely to be elevated? - A. Lymphocytes - B. Mast cells - C. Neutrophils - D. Basophils 19. Actin extends on the: - A. Z-line - B. I-band - C. H-band - D. None of the options 20. Myosin extends on the: - A. Z-line - B. I-band - C. H-band - D. M-line 21. In concentric contraction, the length of a sarcomere is: - A. Lengthened - B. Shortened - C. Unchanged - D. Extended 22. The perimysium surrounds the: - A. Cells of smooth muscle - B. Fascicle of skeletal muscle - C. Single muscle fibre - D. Whole muscle belly 23. The epicardium is the same structure as: - A. Visceral pericardium - B. Parietal pericardium - C. Pericardial cavity - D. Fibrous pericardium 24. What vessel brings oxygenated blood back to the left atrium? - A. Pulmonary veins - B. Pulmonary arteries - C. Pulmonary trunk - D. Bronchial arteries 25. Select the first branch of the arch of the aorta: - A. Brachiocephalic trunk - B. Left common carotid - C. Left subclavian - D. Right subclavian 26. In the thoracic cavity, the aorta is termed as: - A. Descending/Thoracic aorta - B. Ascending/Thoracic aorta - C. Descending/Abdominal aorta - D. None of the options 27. The common bile duct is formed from the union of the: - A. Cystic duct and the common hepatic duct - B. Hepaticopancreatico ampulla of Vater and the left hepatic duct - C. Right and left hepatic ducts - D. None of the options 28. The oesophagus commences at: - A. C6 - B. C3 - C. T6 - D. None of the options 29. Chief cells are found in the: - A. Gastric pit of the stomach - B. Intestinal crypt of the duodenum - C. Intestinal crypt of the jejunum - D. Payer's patches of the ileum 30. When the morula enters the uterine cavity, it forms a cavity that consists of an inner cell mass. This is known as: - A. Blastocyst - B. Decidua - C. Hypoblast - D. Epiblast 31. The trophoblast differentiates into: - A. Syncitiotrophoblast - B. Cytotrophoblast - C. Syncitiotrophoblast & Cytotrophoblast - D. Syncitiotrophoblast & Hypoblast 32. The fold of peritoneum attaching the jejunum and ileum to the posterior abdominal wall is called the: - A. Mesocolon - B. Mesentery - C. Lesser omentum - D. Greater omentum 33. Which of the following hormones is released from the anterior pituitary? - A. Cortisol - B. Glucagon - C. Somatostatin - D. Prolactin 34. The infundibulum of the pituitary gland connects the gland to the: - A. Hypothalamus - B. Optic chiasm - C. Mammillary bodies - D. Tuber cinereum 35. Select an example of a primary lymphatic organ and tissue: - A. Red Bone marrow - B. Spleen - C. Lymph nodes - D. Lymphatic nodules 36. Select an example of a secondary lymphatic organ and tissue: - A. Red Bone marrow - B. Spleen - C. Thymus - D. Heart 37. A condition in which the spleen enlarges is known as: - A. Hepatitis - B. Hydrocephalus - C. Splenomegaly - D. Spleenectomy 38. What is the innervation to the anterior compartment of the arm? - A. Musculocutaneous nerve - B. Femoral nerve - C. Median nerve - D. Radial nerve 39. What is the innervation to the medial compartment of the thigh? - A. Sciatic nerve - B. Femoral nerve - C. Tibial nerve - D. Obturator nerve 40. What is the common action of the anterior compartment of the arm at the shoulder joint? - A. Flexion of arm - B. Extension of arm - C. Extension of forearm - D. Circumduction of forearm 41. The nerve cell that carries impulses from a sensory receptor to the brain or spinal cord is: - A. Afferent neuron - B. Efferent neuron - C. Interneuron - D. Alpha neuron 42. Select the parts of the neuron that is/are myelinated: - A. Axon - B. Dendrites - C. Cell body - D. All of the options 43. The cranial nerve attributed to smell is the: - A. Olfactory nerve - B. Optic Nerve - C. Oculomotor nerve - D. Occipital nerve 44. The cranial nerve attributed to vision is the: - A. Olfactory nerve - B. Optic nerve - C. Oculomotor nerve - D. Occipital nerve 45. The cranial nerve attributed to hearing is the: - A. Olfactory nerve - B. Optic nerve - C. Oculomotor nerve - D. Vestibulocochlear nerve 46. The primary motor cortex is located in the: - A. Frontal lobe - B. Parietal lobe - C. Occipital lobe - D. Insular lobe 47. The anatomical landmark that indicates the end of the spinal cord is known as: - A. Filum terminale - B. Conus medullaris - C. Spinal Cord stem - D. Cauda Equina 48. The epidural space is unique to: - A. Spinal cord - B. Brain - C. Cerebellum - D. Does not exist 49. Select the statement that is correct: - A. The basal ganglia initiate and terminate movement, while the cerebellum directly communicates with the spinal cord to co-ordinate and correct movement - B. The cerebellum initiates and terminates movement, while the basal ganglia directly communicate with the spinal cord to co-ordinate movement - C. The basal ganglia initiate and terminate movement, while the cerebellum communicates directly with the basal ganglia and thalamus to co-ordinate and correct movement - D. The cerebellum initiates and terminate movement, while the basal ganglia communicate directly with the thalamus and the cerebellum to co-ordinate and correct movement 50. Which gland controls the circadian rhythm? - A. Pineal gland - B. Habenular nuclei - C. Thalamus - D. Pituitary gland 51. Person A has fallen in love with Person B, and vice versa. What hormone is being released as this wonderful bond is being formed? - A. Oxytocin - B. Cortisol - C. Calcitonin - D. Thyroxine 52. The cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are found in: - A. Dorsal root ganglion - B. Ventral gray horn - C. Lateral gray horn - D. Dorsal gray horn 53. The right temporal lobe communicates with the right occipital lobe via the inferior longitudinal fasciculus. This an example of a: - A. Projection tract - B. Commissural tract - C. Association tract - D. All the options 54. The somatosensory cortex is found in the: - A. Precentral gyrus - B. Central sulcus - C. Postcentral gyrus - D. Parietooccipital gyrus 55. The trachea bifurcates at: - A. The carina at the level of T4/T5 intervertebral disc - B. The carina at the level of C5/C6 intervertebral disc - C. The carina at the level of L1/L2 intervertebral disc - D. None of the above 56. The terminal bronchioles demark the: - A. End of the conductive portion of the respiratory system - B. End of the respiratory portion of the respiratory system - C. Start of the conductive portion of the respiratory system - D. Start of the respiratory portion of the respiratory system 57. During inspiration the diaphragm: - A. Contracts and pulls down, thus increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity - B. Contracts and pulls up, thus increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity - C. Contracts and pulls down, thus decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity - D. Contracts and pulls up, thus decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity 58. The alveoli of the lungs are lined by: - A. Pseudostartified ciliated columnar epithelium - B. Simple squamous epithelium - C. Connective tissue - D. Simple ciliated columnar epithelium 59. The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the ______: - A. Hard palate - B. Epiglottis - C. Internal nares (chonae) - D. Larynx 60. What type of epithelium is found in the small intestine? - A. Simple columnar epithelium - B. Pseudostratified microvilli columnar epithelium - C. Stratified squamous epithelium (keratinised) - D. Stratified squamous epithelium (non- keratinised) 61. The content of blackheads/pores is: - A. Oxidised oil - B. Dirt - C. Hair follicles - D. None of the options 62. The most superficial layer of the epidermis is: - A. Stratum basale - B. Stratum corneum - C. Stratum lucidum - D. Stratum granulosum 63. Juxtaglomerular cells are: - A. Baroreceptors - B. Thermoreceptors - C. Nociceptors - D. None of the options 64. The renal corpuscle refers to: - A. The glomerulus and the renal capsule - B. None of the options - C. The glomerulus and the bowman's capsule - D. The glomerulus and the macula densa 65. What type of epithelium is found in the ureters? - A. Simple squamous epithelium - B. Pseudostratified microvilli columnar epithelium - C. Transitional epithelium - D. Stratified squamous epithelium (non- keratinised) 66. Which of the following cells secrete renin? - A. Juxta-glomerular cells - B. Macula densa - C. Podocytes - D. Hepatocytes 67. Which of the following is false? - A. The release of ADH decreases reabsorption of water - B. The release of ADH increases reabsorption of water - C. Drinking water increases blood volume - D. Constriction of the efferent arterioles increases glomerular filtration pressure 68. What cells line the proximal convoluted tubules? - A. Simple cuboidal with microvilli - B. Simple cuboidal with no microvilli - C. Simple columnar with microvilli - D. Simple columnar with no microvilli 69. The Corpus hemorrhagicum : - A. Is a remnant of ovulation - B. Increases the levels of Follicular Stimulating Hormone (FSH) - C. Is the term used to define the oocyte rupturing out of the mature follicle during mensuration - D. Is the term used to define the oocyte rupturing out of the mature follicle during ovulation 70. The Leydig cells produce: - A. Sperm - B. Testosterone - C. Oestrogen - D. Progesterone 71. The uterus is the site of: - A. Implantation - B. Fetal Development - C. Menstrual Flow - D. All the above 72. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for sight by transferring visual information gathered from the eye to the vision centres of the brain? - A. CN III Oculomotor - B. CNIV Trochlear - C. CNVI Abducens - D. CNII Optic 73. Which of the following receptors detects pain? - A. Nociceptors - B. Thermoreceptors - C. Hair root plexuses - D. Merkel nerve endings 74. In tactition, the superficial, encapsulated mechanoreceptor found at the dermal-epidermal junction responding to fine touch and vibration is: - A. Meissner's corpuscle - B. Merkel nerve endings - C. Pacinian corpuscles - D. Ruffini corpuscles 75. Upper motor neurons originate from: - A. Cerebral cortex - B. Cerebellum - C. Spinal cord - D. None of the above 76. Which of the following papillae do NOT contain taste buds? - A. Circumvallate papillae - B. Foliate papillae - C. Fungiform papillae - D. Filiform papillae 77. Proprioception is the sense of being able to ______: - A. Know where one is in space - B. Spinning around the room - C. Room spinning around you - D. None of the options 78. The three ossicles are malleus, incus and ______: - A. Utricle - B. Semicircular Canals - C. Saccule - D. Stapes 79. The concept of auscultation is: - A. Looking at the human body in a selective and purposeful manner - B. Using the sense of touch to determine the location and position of internal parts of the body through the skin - C. Examination by listening to the sounds of the body - D. None of the above 80. The concept of palpation is: - A. Looking at the human body in a selective and purposeful manner - B. Using the sense of touch to determine the location and position of internal parts of the body through the skin - C. Examination by listening to the sounds of the body - D. None of the above ### **Part B** 81. The coronal suture is in between the frontal bone and the temporal bone. - A. True - B. False 82. The hyoid bone is attached directly to C3 vertebra. - A. True - B. False 83. Osteoclasts maintain bony matrix: - A. True - B. False 84. Volkmanns Canals allow for osteon to osteon communication: - A. True - B. False 85. Canaliculi are channels in which osteocytes from the same osteon can communicate with one another: - A. True - B. False 86. Skeletal muscle is striated: - A. True - B. False 87. The right lung has two lobes. - A. True - B. False 88. The oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands is known as sebum. - A. True - B. False 89. The larynx commences at the level of C4. - A. True - B. False 90. The nasopharynx extends from the choane to the external nares. - A. True - B. False 91. The central sulcus divides the cerebral hemispheres into right and left sides. - A. True - B. False 92. The alveoli of the lungs are lined by simple squamous epithelium. - A. True - B. False 93. The macula densa are found in the proximal convoluted tubule. - A. True - B. False 94. The urinary bladder is lined by transitional epithelium. - A. True - B. False 95. The distal convoluted tubules are lined with simple columnar epithelium with microvilli. - A. True - B. False 96. The vaginal canal is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. - A. True - B. False 97. The prostate gland is inferior to the urinary bladder. - A. True - B. False 98. The anatomical position of the penis is flaccid. - A. True - B. False 99. The Corpus luteum is the remnant of a mature follicle after ovulation. - A. True - B. False 100. The layer most proximal to the lumen of the endometrial wall of the uterus is known as the stratum functionalis. - A. True - B. False