AMIT A-Raslan NET QBank PDF

1. What is the role of an ISP (Internet Service Provider)? A) It is a standards body responsible for developing cabling and wiring standards for networking. B) It is a protocol governing communication among computers in a local network. C) It is an organization facilitating Internet connect...

1. What is the role of an ISP (Internet Service Provider)? A) It is a standards body responsible for developing cabling and wiring standards for networking. B) It is a protocol governing communication among computers in a local network. C) It is an organization facilitating Internet connectivity for individuals and businesses. D) It is a networking device consolidating multiple networking functions into one. 2. A networking technician is configuring the wireless network in a medical clinic. Inadvertently, the technician configures the wireless network in a way that allows patients to access and view the medical records of other patients. Which of the following fundamental network attributes has been compromised in this scenario? A) Fault tolerance B) Scalability C) Security D) Quality of Service (QoS) 3. When manually configuring an IPv4 address on a web server, which aspect of the IPv4 setup designates the network and host segments of an IPv4 address? A) DNS server address B) Subnet mask C) Default gateway D) DHCP server address 4. Which layer is accountable for directing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model? A) Internet layer B) Transport layer C) Network access layer D) Session layer 5. A web client is processing a response for a web page from a web server. From the client's viewpoint, what is the accurate order of the protocol stack to decode the received transmission? A) Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP B) HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet C) Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP D) HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP 6. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation? A. physical layer B. data link layer C. network layer D. transport layer  7. How would you define the practice of keeping personal files on remote servers accessible via the internet, enabling retrieval from any location, at any time, and on any device? A) Cloud storage B) BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) C) Quality of service D) Converged network 8. What phrase represents a computing model wherein server software operates on specialized computers? A) Client/server B) Peer-to-peer C) Intranet D) Extranet 9. What is the expression for a policy that permits network devices to regulate data flow, giving precedence to voice and video? A) Quality of service B) Fault tolerance C) Scalability D) Security 10. How would you describe a closed network comprising LANs and WANs owned by a specific organization? A) Intranet B) Internet C) Extranet 11. What is included in the trailer section of a data-link frame? A) Logical address B) Physical address C) Data D) Error detection 12. During the encapsulation process at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network, what happens? A) An IP address is added. B) The logical address is added. C) The physical address is added. D) The process port number is added.  13. What does the auto-MDIX feature on a switch do? A) It automatically configures an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation. B) It automatically configures an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection. C) It automatically configures full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable. D) It allows the switch interface to be turned on or off based on the detection of an active connection. 14. In the OSI physical layer, what term is used to describe the physical medium that utilizes electrical pulses? A) Copper cable B) Fiber-optic cable C) Air D) Goodput 15. In the OSI physical layer, which term characterizes the physical medium that employs the propagation of light? A) Fiber-optic cable B) Goodput C) Latency D) Throughput 16. In the OSI physical layer, what term represents the physical medium used for microwave transmissions? A) Air B) Goodput C) Latency D) Throughput 17. Which information do routers use to route a data packet toward its destination? A) Source IP address B) Destination IP address C) Source data-link address D) Destination data-link address 18. What IPv4 address can a host utilize to test the loopback interface using the "ping" command? A) 126.0.0.1 B) 127.0.0.0 C) 126.0.0.0 D) 127.0.0.1 19. A computer can establish connections with devices on the same network but cannot connect to devices on different networks. What is the likely reason for this issue? A) The cable is not correctly connected to the NIC. B) The computer has an invalid IP address. C) The computer has an incorrect subnet mask. D) The computer has an invalid default gateway address. 20. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6? A) Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks. B) Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large. C) The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers. D) The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet. 21. What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol? A. is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network. B. is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network. C. is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network. D. is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network. 22. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward? A. source MAC address B. source IP address C. destination MAC address D. Ethernet type E. destination IP address 23. What term characterizes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a 32-bit binary value linked to an interface on the transmitting device? A) Source IPv4 address B) Destination IPv4 address C) Protocol D) TTL 24. What term characterizes a field in the IPv4 packet header that holds a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address? A) Destination IPv4 address B) Protocol C) TTL D) Header checksum  25. What term is used for a field in the IPv4 packet header utilized to restrict the lifespan of a packet? A) TTL (Time To Live) B) Source IPv4 address C) Protocol D) Header checksum 26. What attribute of ARP permits the fixation of MAC addresses for frequently used servers in the ARP table? A) A static IP-to-MAC address entry can be manually added to an ARP table. B) Entries in an ARP table are time-stamped and are purged after the timeout expires. C) The type field 0x806 appears in the header of the Ethernet frame. D) The port-to-MAC address table on a switch has the same entries as the ARP table on the switch. 27. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? A) /25 B) /26 C) /27 D) /28 28. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet configured with a /26 mask? A) 254 B) 190 C) 192 D) 62 29. For a network with 5 available host bits, which subnet mask would be used? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.255.128 C) 255.255.255.224 D) 255.255.255.240  30. A network administrator divides the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26 masks. How many equally-sized subnets are created? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 31. How many host addresses are accessible on the 192.168.10.128/26 network? A) 30 B) 32 C) 60 D) 62 32. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0? A) 510 B) 512 C) 1022 D) 1024 33. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address: 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB:0000:0000:0057? A. 3FFE:1044::AB::57 B. 3FFE:1044::00AB::0057 C. 3FFE:1044:0:0:AB::57 D. 3FFE:1044:0:0:00AB::0057 E. 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::57 F. 3FFE:1044:0000:0000:00AB::0057 34. Which type of IPv6 address refers to any unicast address that is assigned to multiple hosts? A. unique local B. global unicast C. link-local D. anycast 35. Which protocol is used by the traceroute command to send and receive echo-requests and echo- replies? A. SNMP B. ICMP C. Telnet D. TCP 36. A user issues a ping 192.135.250.103 command and receives a response that includes a code of 1. What does this code represent? A. host unreachable B. protocol unreachable C. port unreachable D. network unreachable 37. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address? A. 192.168.1.64/26 B. 192.168.1.32/27 C. 192.168.1.32/28 D. 192.168.1.64/29 38. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001? A. 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1 B. 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000 C. 2001:db80:0:1::80:1 D. 2001:db80:::1::80:1 39. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address fe80:09ea:0000:2200:0000:0000:0fe0:0290? A. fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290 B. fe80:9:20::b000:290 C. fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290 D. fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290 40. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2002:0042:0010:c400:0000:0000:0000:0909? A. 2002:42:10:c400::909 B. 200:420:110:c4b::910:0:90 C. 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99 D. 2002:42::25:1090:0:99  41. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0ab8:0001:0000:1000? A. 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000 B. 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1 C. 2001:db8:1::ab8:0:1 D. 2001:db8:0:1::8:1 42. A user issues a ping 10.10.14.67 command and receives a response that includes a code of 0. What does this code represent? A. network unreachable B. protocol unreachable C. port unreachable D. host unreachable 43. Which transport layer feature is employed to ensure the establishment of a session? A) UDP ACK flag B) TCP 3-way handshake C) UDP sequence number D) TCP port number 44. What constitutes the complete range of well-known ports for TCP and UDP? A) 0 to 255 B) 0 to 1023 C) 256 to 1023 D) 1024 to 49151 45. What data does TCP utilize to reassemble and rearrange received segments? A) Port numbers B) Sequence numbers C) Acknowledgment numbers D) Fragment numbers 46. What crucial information is included in the TCP/IP transport layer header to facilitate communication and connectivity with a remote network device? A) Timing and synchronization B) Destination and source port numbers C) Destination and source physical addresses D) Destination and source logical network addresses 47. Which OSI layer serves as the intermediary between the applications used for communication and the underlying network over which messages are transmitted? A) Application B) Presentation C) Session D) Transport 48. What networking model is employed when an author uploads a chapter document to a file server of a book publisher? A) Peer-to-peer B) Master-slave C) Client/server D) Point-to-point 49. In the TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for data formatting, compression, and encryption? A) Internetwork B) Session C) Presentation D) Application E) Network Access 50. Which protocol is utilized by a client to establish secure communication with a web server? A) SMTP B) SMB C) IMAP D) HTTPS 51. When a client creates a packet to request FTP service from a server, what port number will be used as the destination port in the sending packet? A) 21 B) 69 C) 67 D) 80 52. When a client creates a packet to request SSH service from a server, what port number will be used as the destination port in the sending packet? A) 22 B) 69 C) 67 D) 80 53. When a client creates a packet to request HTTP service from a server, what port number will be used as the destination port in the sending packet? A) 80 B) 67 C) 53 D) 69 54. When a client creates a packet to request POP3 service from a server, what port number will be used as the destination port in the sending packet? A) 110 B) 67 C) 53 D) 69 55. When a client creates a packet to request telnet service from a server, what port number will be used as the destination port in the sending packet? A) 23 B) 443 C) 161 D) 110 56. When a client creates a packet to request SMTP service from a server, what port number will be used as the destination port in the sending packet? A) 25 B) 443 C) 161 D) 110 57. When a client creates a packet to request HTTPS service from a server, what port number will be used as the destination port in the sending packet? A) 443 B) 161 C) 110 D) 80 58. Which network device operates at the Data Link layer of the OSI model? A) Router B) Switch C) Firewall D) Hub 59. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in IPv4 addressing? A) To identify the host portion of an IP address B) To identify the network portion of an IP address C) To specify the default gateway for a network D) To determine the class of an IP address 60. Which protocol is responsible for dynamically assigning IP addresses to devices on a network? A) TCP B) DHCP C) DNS D) FTP 61. What is the primary function of a DNS server in a network? A) To translate domain names into IP addresses B) To route data between networks C) To provide firewall protection D) To manage network security 62. What is the purpose of a MAC address in Ethernet networking? A) To identify a device on the internet B) To specify the default gateway for a network C) To identify a device on a local network D) To encrypt data during transmission 63. Which transport layer protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable data delivery? A) UDP B) ICMP C) TCP D) SNMP 64. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for error detection and correction at the data link level? A) Transport B) Network C) Data Link D) Physical 65. Which protocol is commonly used for securely transferring files over a network? A) HTTP B) FTP C) SMTP D) DHCP 66. What is the key difference between TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol)? A) TCP is connectionless, while UDP is connection-oriented. B) TCP provides error-checking and reliable data delivery, while UDP does not guarantee reliability. C) TCP operates at the Network layer, while UDP operates at the Transport layer. D) TCP uses a 16-bit port number, while UDP uses a 32-bit port number. 67. Which protocol is commonly used to securely access remote network devices, such as routers and switches, for configuration and management? A) SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) B) DNS (Domain Name System) C) SSH (Secure Shell) D) ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) 68. What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation) in a network? A) To encrypt all network traffic for security purposes B) To assign unique private IP addresses to devices within a local network C) To route traffic between different VLANs (Virtual LANs) D) To translate private IP addresses to a single public IP address for internet communication Cables Types 1. Which cable type is most commonly used in modern Ethernet networks? o A. Coaxial o B. Fiber Optic o C. Twisted Pair o D. Serial Answer: C. Twisted Pair 2. Which cable type uses light to transmit data? o A. Coaxial o B. Fiber Optic o C. Twisted Pair o D. USB Answer: B. Fiber Optic 3. Which cable type is used to connect two similar devices, such as two switches? o A. Crossover Cable o B. Straight-through Cable o C. Patch Cable o D. Serial Cable Answer: A. Crossover Cable Automidix 4. What does Auto-MDIX technology in networking devices help with? o A. Auto-detecting cable type o B. Correcting wiring issues o C. Data compression o D. Load balancing Answer: B. Correcting wiring issues Reliable Network 6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a reliable network? o A. Scalability o B. Availability o C. High Latency o D. Security Answer: C. High Latency  7. Which protocol is commonly used to ensure reliable transmission of data over the network? o A. UDP o B. FTP o C. TCP o D. ICMP Answer: C. TCP Cloud 8. Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources over the internet? o A. IaaS o B. SaaS o C. PaaS o D. DaaS Answer: A. IaaS 9. What is the main benefit of cloud computing? o A. Increased security o B. Cost savings o C. Data sovereignty o D. Complexity Answer: B. Cost savings IP, MAC 10. Which address is used to identify a device on the network layer of the OSI model? o A. MAC Address o B. IP Address o C. Port Number o D. Subnet Mask Answer: B. IP Address 11. What is the main difference between an IP address and a MAC address? o A. MAC is at Network Layer, IP is at Data Link Layer o B. MAC is physical, IP is logical o C. MAC is logical, IP is physical o D. No difference Answer: B. MAC is physical, IP is logical Number System 12. What is the binary representation of the decimal number 12? o A. 1100 o B. 1010 o C. 1111 o D. 1001 Answer: A. 1100 13. Which of the following is a valid hexadecimal number? o A. 1G o B. 9A o C. Z1 o D. 0xF Answer: B. 9A IPv4 Classes 14. Which IPv4 class is used for multicast addresses? o A. Class A o B. Class B o C. Class C o D. Class D Answer: D. Class D 15. What is the range of Class B IPv4 addresses? o A. 128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255 o B. 192.0.0.0 – 223.255.255.255 o C. 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255 o D. 0.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255 Answer: A. 128.0.0.0 – 191.255.255.255 Connection Types 16. Which type of connection is used for long-distance communication and can support speeds up to 100 Gbps? o A. Coaxial o B. Fiber Optic o C. UTP o D. DSL Answer: B. Fiber Optic  17. Which connection type is typically used to connect a computer to a switch within a LAN? o A. Fiber Optic o B. Coaxial o C. Ethernet o D. DSL Answer: C. Ethernet Basic Router and Switch Commands 18. Which command is used to display the current configuration of a Cisco router? o A. show version o B. show ip route o C. show running-config o D. show startup-config Answer: C. show running-config 19. Which command is used to enter privileged EXEC mode in a Cisco switch? o A. enable o B. config terminal o C. setup o D. exec Answer: A. enable DHCP 20. What is the purpose of DHCP in a network? o A. Assign IP addresses dynamically o B. Translate domain names to IPs o C. Monitor network traffic o D. Provide DNS services Answer: A. Assign IP addresses dynamically SSH 24. Which protocol provides secure remote access to network devices? o A. FTP o B. Telnet o C. SSH o D. HTTP Answer: C. SSH  25. What port number is used by the SSH protocol? o A. 21 o B. 22 o C. 23 o D. 25 Answer: B. 22 Intermediate Level IPv6 26. How many bits are there in an IPv6 address? o A. 32 o B. 64 o C. 128 o D. 256 Answer: C. 128 27. What is the primary advantage of using IPv6 over IPv4? o A. Shorter address length o B. More address space o C. Less security o D. Limited scalability Answer: B. More address space OSI Model 28. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data encode and decode? o A. Network Layer o B. Data Link Layer o C. Application Layer o D. Presentation Layer Answer: D. Presentation Layer 29. At which OSI layer do routers operate? o A. Layer 2 o B. Layer 3 o C. Layer 4 o D. Layer 7 Answer: B. Layer 3 Ports 30. Which port number is used for HTTP traffic? o A. 443 o B. 80 o C. 23 o D. 25 Answer: B. 80 31. Which port number is used for DNS queries? o A. 25 o B. 110 o C. 53 o D. 22 Answer: C. 53 TCP/IP Model 32. Which layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to the transport layer of the OSI model? o A. Internet o B. Transport o C. Application o D. Network Access Answer: B. Transport 33. Which protocol is used in the internet layer of the TCP/IP model for routing packets? o A. FTP o B. IP o C. UDP o D. HTTP Answer: B. IP ARP 34. What is the purpose of the ARP protocol in networking? o A. Resolve IP to MAC address o B. Map domain names to IP addresses o C. Find IP address of a host o D. Find MAC address of a switch Answer: A. Resolve IP to MAC address Subnetting 36. How many subnets are created with a /28 subnet mask in an IPv4 network? o A. 8 o B. 16 o C. 4 o D. 32 Answer: B. 16 37. What is the subnet mask for a Class C network? o A. 255.255.255.0 o B. 255.0.0.0 o C. 255.255.0.0 o D. 255.255.255.255 Answer: A. 255.255.255.0 DNS 38. What does DNS stand for? o A. Domain Name Service o B. Domain Naming Standard o C. Dynamic Name Service o D. Dynamic Naming Standard Answer: A. Domain Name Service VLANs 42. What is the purpose of using VLANs in a network? o A. Reduce broadcast traffic o B. Create separate broadcast domains o C. Simplify network management o D. All of the above Answer: D. All of the above 43. Which command is used to create a VLAN on a Cisco switch? o A. vlan 10 o B. vlan create 10 o C. create vlan 10 o D. vlan make 10 Answer: A. vlan 10 Wi-Fi 802.11 44. Which IEEE standard defines Wi-Fi 6? o A. 802.11ac o B. 802.11n o C. 802.11ax o D. 802.11g Answer: C. 802.11ax Advanced Level OSPF 46. What is the default administrative distance of OSPF? o A. 90 o B. 100 o C. 110 o D. 120 Answer: C. 110 Password Router Recovery 48. Which step is NOT involved in the router password recovery procedure? o A. Reboot the router o B. Access the ROMMON mode o C. Change the configuration register to 0x2102 o D. Save the running configuration to the startup configuration Answer: D. Save the running configuration to the startup configuration 49. What is the first step in recovering a lost password on a Cisco router? o A. Reboot the router o B. Access the ROMMON mode o C. Press the Break key during boot o D. Enter privileged EXEC mode Answer: C. Press the Break key during boot Advanced Subnetting 50. What is the maximum number of hosts in a subnet with a /29 prefix length? o A. 6 o B. 8 o C. 14 o D. 30 Answer: A. 6 51. Which subnet mask would provide the most hosts per subnet in a Class B network? o A. 255.255.0.0 o B. 255.255.240.0 o C. 255.255.255.0 o D. 255.255.255.128 Answer: A. 255.255.0.0 Advanced IPv6 52. Which IPv6 address type is used for one-to-many communication? o A. Unicast o B. Multicast o C. Anycast o D. Broadcast Answer: B. Multicast Advanced Routing 54. Which routing protocol uses Dijkstra's algorithm to calculate the shortest path? o A. RIP o B. EIGRP o C. OSPF o D. BGP Answer: C. OSPF 58. Which VLAN ID is reserved for native VLAN by default? o A. 1 o B. 100 o C. 1002 o D. 4095 Answer: A. 1 Advanced Wi-Fi and Wireless 60. Which authentication protocol is commonly used in enterprise Wi-Fi networks for authentication and encryption? o A. WPA2-Personal o B. WPA2-Enterprise o C. WEP o D. WPA3 Answer: B. WPA2-Enterprise 61. What frequency band does the 802.11a standard use? o A. 2.4 GHz o B. 5 GHz o C. 6 GHz o D. 900 MHz Answer: B. 5 GHz 62. What is the default lease time for a DHCP lease in most systems? o A. 4 hours o B. 12 hours o C. 24 hours o D. 7 days Answer: C. 24 hours Advanced Network Security and Protocols 64. Which command is used to enable SSH on a Cisco device? o A. crypto key generate rsa o B. ip ssh version 2 o C. enable ssh o D. ssh keygen Answer: A. crypto key generate rsa 65. Which protocol is used for secure file transfer over the internet? o A. FTP o B. TFTP o C. HTTP o D. SFTP Answer: D. SFTP