Parasitology PDF

Parasitology 1-The first intermediate host for all the trematodes is which of the following? A. Fish B. Snail C. Shrimp D. Water plant 2- The eggs of Fasciolopsis and Fasciola possess a caplike structure from which their conte...

Parasitology 1-The first intermediate host for all the trematodes is which of the following? A. Fish B. Snail C. Shrimp D. Water plant 2- The eggs of Fasciolopsis and Fasciola possess a caplike structure from which their contents are released under the appropriate conditions; this is called a (an): A. Operculum B. Shoulder C. Coracidium D. Digenea 3- Which of the following is a recommended prevention and control strategy designed to halt the spread of Clonorchis? A. Consuming raw, pickled, freshwater fish B. Protecting food from flies C. Avoidance of swimming in fresh water D. Proper human and reservoir host fecal disposal 4- The specimen of choice for the recovery of Heterophyes and Metagonimus is which of the following? A. Stool B. Blood C. Urine D. Sputum 5-The typical transmission route of Paragonimus to humans consists of which of the following? A. Consumption of contaminated crayfish or crabs B. Swimming in contaminated water C. Hand-to-mouth contamination D. Walking barefoot on contaminated sandy soil 6- The infective stage of E. histolytica is which of the following? A. Trophozoite B. Mature Cyst C. Young cyst D. egg 7- The specimen of choice for the recovery of Giardia lamblia is which of the following? A. Tissue biopsy B. Urine C. Sputum D. Stool 8- The means of developing an infection with Plasmodium spp. is via which of the following? A. Insect bite B. Ingestion of raw or poorly cooked meat C. Egg consumption D. Drinking contaminated water 9- All the following are morphologic forms in the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii except: A. Oocysts B. Tachyzoites C. Bradyzoites D. Promastigote 10-Infective stage of Heterophyes heterohyes is: A. Egg B. Miracidium C. Metacercaria D. Cercaria 11- Winterbottom’s sign is associated with which of the following hemoflagellates? A. Leishmania donovani B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense D. Trypanosoma cruzi 12- The hemoflagellates that infect humans have two genera, Trypanosoma, and the other is: A. Leishmania B. Balantidium C. Giardia D. Dientamoeba 13- The parasite responsible for Dum Dum disease is: A. Leishmania braziliensis B. Leishmania donovani C. Leishmania Mexicana D. Leishmania tropica  14- Patients with mild diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, anorexia, and flatulence to tenderness of the epigastric region, steatorrhea, and malabsorption syndrome. The most likely causal agent is:- A. Nagleria fowleri B. Giardia lamblia C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Entamoeba hartmanni 15- The vector for both Trypanosoma gambiense & Trypanosoma rhodesiene is: A. Tsetse fly B. Sand fly C. Reduviid bug D. Anopheles mosquito 16- The parasite responsible for Chagas' disease is: A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma gambiense C. Leishmania braziliensis D. Trypanosoma rhodesiene 17- The malaria parasite that infects all ages of red blood cells is: A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D.Plasmodium ovale 18- The malaria parasite that, when infecting red blood cells, become it oval, enlarged and distorted with ragged cell wall, is: A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C.Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium ovale 19- The parasite that causes Quartan malaria is: A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium ovale 20- The asexual reproductive cycle (schizogony) of the malaria parasite occurs in: A. Man B. Anopheles C. Tsetse fly D. Sand fly 21- The structure associated with energy, metabolism, or support in Giardia lamblia is: A. Axostyle B. Parabasal bodies C. Flagella D. Sucking disc 22- The infective stage of the malaria parasite is: A. Sporozoite B. Merozoite C. Schizont D. Spotocyst 23- The cytoplasm of red blood cells infected with Plasmodium falciparum may contain: A. Maurers dots B. Ziemanns dots C. Schϋffners dots D. Vacuoles 24- The infective stage of the Trypanosoma parasite is: A. Amastigote B. Promastigote C. Epimastigote D. Trypomastigote 25- The infective stage of the Leishmania tropica parasite is: A. Amastigote B. Promastigote C. Epimastigote D. Trypomastigote 26- The diagnostic stage of Trypanosoma gambiense in human blood is: A. Amastigote B. Promastigote C. Epimastigote D. Trypomastigote 27- The type of sample that is taken to investigate the parasite Trypanosoma is: A. Blood B. Urine C. Stool D. Sputum 28- It is note that blood rarely, if ever, accompanies in the stool of patients which infected with: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Balantidium coli C. Giardia lamblia D. Trichomonas vaginialis 29- The infective stage of the parasite Dientamoeba fragilis is: A. Immature Cyst B. Trophozoites C. Promastigote D. mature Cyst 30- Human most often contract Trichomonas tenax by which of the following: A. Swimming in contaminated water B. kissing an infected person C. sexual contact D. ingestion of contaminated food 31- The conditions were most likely contracted as a result of T. vaginalis trophozoites migrating from an infected mother to the infant through the birth canal is: A. Respiratory infection and conjunctivitis B. Cystitis C. urethritis D. dysuria 32- The host that functions as a transport or carrier host is: A. Reservoir host B. Paratenic host C. Intermediate host D. Definitive host 33- Fasciolopsis buski infects which organ in humans? A. Bile ducts B. Liver C. lung D. intestine 34-The specimen of choice for the recovery of Trypanosoma cruzi is: A. Stool B. Urine C. Cellophane tape prep D. Blood 35-The clinical symptoms of Balantidium coli are similar to that of which of the following? A. Isospora belli B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Crytosporidium parvum D. Giardia intestinalis 36-Which structure is always visible in the stained cyst and trophzoite of Balantidium coli? A. Macronucleus B. Micronucleus C. Cilia D. Ingested bacteria 37-The scientific name for sexual reproduction that occurs in Malaria parasites life cycle is: A. Sporogony B. Erthyrocytic cycle C. Gametogony D. Binary fission 38- The parasite is transmitted by sexual contact: A. Toxoplasma B. Fasciola C. Trichomonas D. Trypanosoma 39- E. histolytica infection is diagnosed by finding which of the following? A. Adult and egg forms of the parasite in a suspected stool sample B. Trophozoites or cysts in a suspected stool sample C. Larvae in a suspected CSF sample D. Adult form of the parasite in suspected tissue Samples 40- The adults of Heterophyes heterophyes dwell in the: A. lung B. skin C. liver D. intestine 41- Transformation of a trophozoite stage into a cyst stage called: A. Excystation B. Pseudopod C. Karyosome D. Encystation 42- Which of the following are morphologic features of P. malariae? A. Schüffner’s dots B. Ziemann’s dots C. Maurer’s dots D. None of the above 43- Sexual reproduction of Plasmodium species takes place in the: A. Human gut B. Red blood cells C. Tick D. Anophelus fly 44-The diagnostic stage of Trichomonas vaginalis is: A. Eggs B. cyst C. Trophozoite D. Adult 45-The key feature that distinguishes Heterophyes from Clonorchis is which of the following? A. Size B. Shape C. Appearance of shoulders D. Location of operculum 46- A key feature that distinguishes Shistosoma heamatobium from the other Shistosoma spp. eggs is which of the following? A. Prominent operculum B. terminal spine C. Discrete shoulders D. Three pairs of hooklets 47-The specimen of choice for the recovery of Schistosoma japonicum is which of the following? A. Tissue biopsy B. Urine C. Sputum D. Stool 48- The cestode morphologic form characterized by a segmented appearance that houses male and female reproductive structures is referred to as a(an): A. Scolex B. Proglottid C. Egg D. Cyst 49-Which of the following are key distinguishing factors in differentiating an infection between T. saginata and T. solium? A. Egg morphology and number of uterine branches in proglottid B. Presence of hooklets on scolex and egg morphology C. Presence of hooklets and number of uterine branches in proglottid D. Egg morphology and presence of suckers on Scolex 50-Which of the following is not true about E. coli? A. The mature cyst have eight nuclei. B. It is considered to be a pathogen. C. The infection is transmitted through the ingestion of the infected cyst through contaminated food or drink. D. The trophozoite reside in lumen of colon 51- This is the only hemoflagellate morphologic form that does not have an external flagellum. A. Trypomastigote B. Amastigote C. Promastigote D. Epimastigote 52-Human infection of Toxoplasma is initiated in all the following ways except: A. Accidental ingestion of rodent feces B. Ingestion of contaminated undercooked meat from cattle, pigs, or sheep C. Transplacental infection D. Transfusion of contaminated blood 53- Which of the following structures is typical in trophozoites of E. histolytica? A. Single nucleus with a small karyosome B. Unevenly distributed peripheral chromatin C. Chromatoid bars D. Glycogen mass 54- Which of these parasite have three known morphological forms: A. Leishmania donovani B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Naegleria fowleri D. All of these 55- A host that harbors the larval or asexual stage of a parasite is known as : A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Reservoir host D. None of the above 56- Transformation of a cyst stage into a trophozoite stage called: A. Excystation B. Pseudopod C. Karyosome D. Encystation 57- The infective stage of E. histolytica is which of the following? A. Trophozoite B. Mature Cyst C. Young cyst D. egg 58- The specimen of choice for the recovery of Naegleria fowleri is which of the following? A. Cerebrospinal fluid B. Urine C. Sputum D. Stool 59-The key feature that distinguishes Entamoeba histolytica from other amoebas is which of the following? A. Size B. Shape C. RBC in cytoplasm D. Location 60- Kernig’s sign is associated with which of the following amoebas? A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Entamoeba coli C. Entamoeba hartmani D. Naegleria fowleri 61-The infective stage of Naegleria fowleri its: A. Ameboid trophozoites B. flagellate forms C. cysts D. Ova 62- The Invasion by the endoparasite is called: A. Infection B. Infestation C. Hypersensitivity D. Parasitism 63- The parasites are physiologically dependent upon their hosts and usually cannot survive if kept isolated from them called: A. Facultative parasites B. Obligative parasites C. Accidental parasites D. Ectoparasites 64-The condition in which the infection is transmitted from one infected man to another man is called: A. Infestation B. Zoonoses C. Invasion D. Anthroponoses 65- The parasite can survive and proliferate in immunologically competent host by Antigenic mimicry is: A. Toxoplasma B. leishmania C. Entamoeba D. Schistosoma 66- Which of the following factors is not responsible for the asymptomatic carrier state of a patient infected with E. histolytica? A. Low virulence strain B. Low inoculation into host C. Intact patient’s immune system D. Patient’s blood type 67- Humans most often contract N. fowleri by which of the following? A. Swimming in contaminated water B. Kissing an infected person C. Practicing unprotected sex D. Ingestion of contaminated food 68-The parasite which lives within host is called: A. Endoparasites B. Ectoparasites C. External parasites D. Accidental parasites 69- The category in natural relationships between animals which is beneficial to one partner and at least not disadvantageous to the other is: A. Mutualism B. parasitism C. Commensalism D. Predation 70- Which of the following is not including in human parasitology: A. Protozology B. Helminthology C. Arthropodology D. Mullsca 72- The specimen of choice for the recovery of Enterobius vermicularis is: A. Stool B. Urine C. Cellophane tape prep D. Blood 73-The parasite which lives on the host is called: A. Endoparasites B. Ectoparasites C. Internal parasites D. Accidental parasites 74- Infected individuals may re infect themselves, known as : A. Autoreinfection B. Infestation C. Invasion D. Infection 75- Retroinfection, defined as infective eggs that migrate back into the host body, develop and reproduce rather than becoming dislodged specific terms for: A. Whip worm B. Pin worm C. Hook worm D. Tape worm 76- The worm called whipworm is: A. Trichuris trichiura B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Ascaris lumbricoides 77- Infective stage of Trichuris trichiura is: A. Egg B. oocyst C. metacercaria D. Trophozoite 78- The worm whose eggs are characterized by a prominent hyaline polar plug is visible at each end is : A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Ancylostoma duodenale 79-- The pin worm is: A. Trichuris trichiura B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Ascaris lumbricoides 80-The worm whose eggs are characterized by the somewhat oval egg is characteristically flattened on one side is: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Anclystoma dodnielius 81- A key feature that distinguishes Paragonimus from the other trematode eggs is which of the following? A. Prominent operculum B. Obvious terminal shell thickening C. Discrete shoulders D. Three pairs of hooklets 82- The specimen of choice for the recovery of Schistosoma japonicum is which of the following? A. Tissue biopsy B. Urine C. Sputum D. Stool 83- The adults of this species of Schistosoma dwell in the veins surrounding the urinary bladder: A. S. haematobium B. S. mansoni C. S. japonicum D. All of the above 84- Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results in infection with: A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fasciola hepatica C. Heterophyes heterophyes D. Paragonimus westermani 85- The largest fluke infecting humans measuring as much as 5 cm in length is which of the following? A. Fasciolopsis buski B. Fasciola hepatica C. Paragonimus westermani D. Clonorchis sinensis 86- A schistosoma egg with a terminal spine would be most likely found in which of the following? A. Feces B. Bile C. Sputum D. Urine 87- In the life cycle of hermaphroditic flukes, the infective stage for the snail is which of the following? A. Cercaria B. Miracidium C. Metacercaria D. Redia 88- Characteristics of the cestodes include all the following except: A. They are hermaphroditic. B. They generally require intermediate host(s). C. Their laboratory diagnosis consists of finding larvae in feces. D. Their anatomic regions include the scolex, neck, and strobila. 89- The primary means of developing an intestinal infection with Taenia spp. is via which of the following? A. Skin penetration of larvae B. Ingestion of raw or poorly cooked meat C. Egg consumption D. Drinking contaminated water 90- Which of the following is characteristic of an H. diminuta egg? A. Spherical, with radial striations B. Ellipsoid, with terminal polar plugs C. Oval, with thin shell and polar filaments D. Oval, with polar thickenings and no filaments 91- The infective stage of H. diminuta for humans is which of the following? A. Rhabditiform larva B. Cysticeroid larva C. Embryonated egg D. Encysted form 92- Prevention and control measures against H. diminuta include all except which of the following? A. Vaccination program B. Effective rodent control C. Inspection of food prior to consumption D. Protection of food from rodents 93-The characteristic of the life cycle of H. nana that differentiates it from the other cestodes is which of the following? A. Lack of an intermediate host. B. Infective larval stage. C. Need for external environment D. Larval passage through the lungs 94- A primary differential feature between an H. nana egg and H. diminuta egg is which of the following? A. A flattened side for H. diminuta egg B. A thick shell for H. nana egg C. Polar filaments in H. nana egg D. Radial striations in H. diminuta egg 95- The eggs of which group of parasites are indistinguishable? A. Rat tapeworm and dwarf tapeworm B. Hookworm and Whipworm C. Pork tapeworm and hadytid worm D. Pinworm and whipworm 96- Which of the following associations is correct for D. latum? A. Snail-coracidium B. Copepod-procercoid C. Fish-cysticercus D. Beetle-pleurocercoid 97- In addition to its typical location, Paragonimus eggs are also known to cause serious complications when recovered in which of the following? A. Bile B. blood C. Brain tissue D. Feces. 98- Trematodes that mature in the lung and produce eggs that appear in the sputum are most probably which of the following? A. Fasciolopsis buski B. Schistosoma japonicum C. Paragonimus westermani D. Clonorchis sinensis 99- The infective stage of Plasmodium is (are) the: A. Merozoites B. Oocyst C. Sporozoites D. Gametocytes 100- Which morphologic characteristic may help in distinguishing P. vivax from P. falciparum? A. Hemozoin B. Schüffner’s dots C. 72-hour paroxysm D. None of the above 101- P. vivax characteristically invades: A. Immature RBCs B. Senescent RBCs C. All RBCs D. Lymphocytes 102- Which morphologic form would be the best choice for distinguishing between P. vivax and P. ovale? A. Mature schizont B. Ring form C. Early trophozoite D. Immature schizont 103- Which morphologic form is not typically seen in infections of P. malariae? A. Mature schizont B. Ring form C. Immature schizont D. Macrogametocyte 104- What age of red blood cell does P. falciparum typically invade? A. Mature red blood cells B. Immature red blood cells C. All red blood cells, regardless of age D. Does not invade red blood cells 105- Black water fever can be described by which of the following: A. Marked hemoglobinuria B. Kidney involvement in P. falciparum infections C. Caused by P. falciparum–induced red blood cell destruction D. All of the above 106- The genus of mosquito most commonly known to serve as a vector for the genus Plasmodium is: A. Ixodes B. Anopheles C. Culex D. Glossina 107- The determination of Fasciolopsis versus Fasciola can only be accomplished in the laboratory by the recovery of which of the following? A. Eggs B. Larvae C. Adults D. Sporocysts 108- The animal which harbors the parasites and serves as an important source of infection to other susceptible hosts are known as: A. reservoir host B. Paratenic host C. transport host D. Intermediate host 109- Formed stool specimens are more likely to contain which of the following in amoebasis ? A. Trophozoites B. Cysts C. ova D. Adult 110- The known morphologic forms of Trichomonas vaginalis are: A. trophozoites, and cysts B. trophozoites only C. Eggs, larvae, and adults D. cysts only 111- The specimen of choice for the recovery of Giardia lamblia is which of the following? A. Sputum B. Stool C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Urine 112-Humans most often contract Trichomonas vaginalis by which of the following: A. Swimming in contaminated water B. Kissing an infected person C. Practicing unprotected sex D. Ingestion of contaminated food 113- Giardia lamblia enter the human body through one routes of the following routes is A. Entry through the nasal mucosa B. Inhalation of contaminated dust C. Sniffing contaminated water D. Ingesting contaminated food and drink 114- The parasite can cause disease in host by Invasion and destruction of host cell is : A. Plasmodium B. Trichomonas C. Echinococcus D. Schistosoma 115- This adult hookworm is characterized by a buccal cavity that contains teeth. A. Ancylostoma B. Necator C. Both Ancylostoma and Necator D. Neither Ancylostoma nor Necator 116- The most common morphologic form seen in samples positive for L. tropica complex members is: A. Trypomastigote B. Promastigote C. Epimastigote D. Amastigote 117- The enlargement of cervical lymph nodes in reference to trypanosomal disease caused by T.b. gambiense is referred to as: A. Chancre B. Kerandel’s sign C. Winterbottom’s sign D. Somnolence 118- The diagnostic stage of T.b. rhodesiense is the: A. Trypomastigote B. Epimastigote C. Promastigote D. Amastigote 119- Which of the following is not a characteristic finding in Chagas’ disease? A. Romaña’s sign B. Megacolon C. Cardiomegaly D. Somnolence 120- Which of the following trypanosomal parasites that causes sleeping sicknesses is the more aggressive form? A. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense C. Trypanosoma cruzi D. Trypanosoma rangeli 121- Which of the following is the vector first identified as responsible for transmitting T. cruzi? A. Phlebotomus spp. B. Lutzomyia spp. C. Panstrongylus megistus D. Glossina spp 121- The specimen of choice for the recovery of L. tropica complex members is: A. CSF B. Fluid underneath the ulcer bed C. Blood D. Tissue biopsy 122- The parasite responsible for amoebic dysentery is: A. Balantidium coli B. Entamoeba coli C. Entamoeba hartmanni D. Entamoeba histolytica 123- Mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica have: A. One nucleus B. Two nucleus C. Three nucleus D. Four nucleus 124- Infective stage of Schistosoma hematobium is: A. Egg B. Cercariae C. Miracidium D. Metacercariae 125- The final host for Toxoplasma gondi is: A. Cat B. Dog C. Fish D. Man 126- The ciliated parasite is the only pathogen that infects humans is: A. Balantidium coli B. Plasmodium vivax C. Leishmania tropic D. Trypanosoma gambiense 127- The parasite responsible for elephantiasis is:: A. Mansonella ozzardi B. Loa loa C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Onchocerca volvulus 128- The actively reproducing phase of the Toxoplasma parasite is: A. Oocyst. B. Tachyzoites. C. Bradyzoites. D. Merozoite 129- The sand fly that responsible for transmitting the species of the L. braziliensis complex is: A. Lutzomyia B. Anophelus C. Reduviid D. Tse-tse fly 130- Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites have: A. One flagellum B. Two to three flagella C. Four to six flagella D. Seven flagella 131- Which one of the following parasites escape from host immunity by Intracellular location. A. Schistosoma B.Trypanosoma cruzi C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Entamoeba histolytica 132- Which of the following parasites can hide from host immunity through antigenic variation: A. Schistosoma B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Taenia 133- All are pathogenic amoeba except: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Acanthamoeba C. Nagleria fowleri D. Entamoeba hartmanni 134- The ultrasound scan is the correct technique for the following parasite: A. Trichuris trichiura B. Echinococcus granulosus C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Fasciolopsis buski 135- The tissue species of nematode parasites is: A. Trichuris trichiura B. Necator americanus C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Trichinella spiralis 136- The only tapeworm to which humans can infected with it directly is: A. Taenia solium B. Heterophyes hetrophyes C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Hymenolepis diminuta 137-Who is the parasite responsible for the Baghdad boil? A. Lieshmania tropica B. Trichomonas hominis C. Lieshmania donovani D. Trichomonas vaginalis 138-A person who harbors the parasite and does not have symptoms of the disease is called: A. Sub-clinical B. Latent infection C. Clinical disease D. Carrier 139-The only intestinal flagellate parasite is the pathogen for human are: A. Chilomastix mesnili B. Giardia lamblia C. Dientamoeba fragilis D. Trichomonas hominis 140-The parasite that causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis in humans is: A. Entamoeba gingivalis B. Entamoeba hartmanni C. Naegleria fowleri D. Entamoeba histolyica 141- The fork tailed cercariae belongs to the parasite: A. Fasciola buski B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Fasciola hepatica D. Schistosoma mansoni 142- The urine sample is the correct sample for the following parasite: A. Trichuris trichiura B. Schistosoma haematobium C. Paragonimus westermani D. Fasciolopsis buski 143- The infectious stage of the Fasciolopsis buski parasite is: A. Metacercaria B. Cecaria C. Egg D. Miracidium 144- The only worm to which humans are an intermediate host is: A. Fasciola buski B. Heterophyes hetrophyes C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Hymenolepis diminuta 145- The tape worm that form membrane-enclosed packets contain 5 to 30 eggs is: A. Dipylidium caninum B. Heterophyes hetrophyes C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Hymenolepis diminuta 146- Pumpkin seed tapeworm refer to: A. Dipylidium caninum B. Heterophyes hetrophyes C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Hymenolepis diminuta 147- The worm have eggs are not comprised of the typical hexacanth embryo: A. Dipylidium caninum B. Echinococcus granulosus C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Diphyllobothrium latum 148- The worm have scolex is almond-shaped and contains two long, prominent, sucking grooves (bothria) is: A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Hymenolepis diminuta C. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Dipylidium caninum 149- The infective stage of the Ascaris worm is: A. Oocyst B. Egg C. Metacercaria D. Tachyzoites. 150-The name of the large roundworm is given to: A. Trichinella spiralis B. Trichuris trichiura C. Necator americanus D. Ascaris lumbricoides