Skin Layer & Dermis Function PDF

|Pag e1 1.  o o o o 2. o o  o 3. Skin layer which prevent body from water loss is Stratum corneum Stratum granulosum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale All of the above Stratum lucidum mostly apparent in : Scalp Back Palm Face Mucous membrane generally is more permeable than skin because it lacks o...

|Pag e1 1.  o o o o 2. o o  o 3. Skin layer which prevent body from water loss is Stratum corneum Stratum granulosum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale All of the above Stratum lucidum mostly apparent in : Scalp Back Palm Face Mucous membrane generally is more permeable than skin because it lacks o Keratin o A surface lipid film  A stratum corneum o Pilosebaceous follicles o All of the above 4. Time which based cell needs to reach stratum corneum is:o 2 weeks  28 days o 35 days o 10 days 5. The weakest part of BMZ is: Lamina lucida o Lamina densa o Anchoring fibrils o Hemidesmosomes 6. Papillary dermis differs from reticular in o Reticular fibers o Collagen fibers o Elastic fibers  Collagen and elastic fiber 7. Normally the human dermis is thickest on the o Scalp  Back o Thigh o Palm o Sole 8. Mechanical strength  Dermis o Epidermal 9. Causes of mechanical traction of the skin o Epidermis  Dermis o Subcutaneous o Fat 10. Basal cell layer one layer normally but in glabrous skin and hyperproliferative lesion may reach o 2 layer  3 layer o 4 layer o 5 layer 11. Normally most of the epidermal cell replication cycle is occupied by  GI phase o S phase o G2 phase o M phase o None all the above 12. Separation of reticular and papillary dermis is seen by arrangement of o Ground substance o Collagen o Reticulum o Elastin  B&d 13. In normal skin , transient-amplifying cells are found in the :  Basal layer o Suprabasal layers o Basal and suprabasal lauers o Dermis 14. About nodule all are false except:o Differ from papule only in size o Heals with scarring  Palpable circumscribed solid lesion o Heals rapidly by intralesional steroids 15. Whish of these keratinis is characteristic of the coronoid lamellae ? o 16 o 14 o 7  3,12 16. Which of these keratin pairs are characteristic of differentiated epidermal keratinocytes ? o 8 and 18 o 3 and 12 o 6 and 16  1 and 10 17. Collagen of human mostly  Type1 o Type 2 o Type3 o Type4 18. ↑↑Proliferation of keratinocytes by  IL-1 o IL-5 o Catecholamine o Acetylcholine 19. Description of cell binuclear rounded cytoplasmic o Granular o Merkel cell o Melanocyt o Ls  Mast cell 20. Cells has a halo surronded it o Mast  Merkel cell o Mellanocyte cell o Langrhans 21. Cells has a halo surrounds it in H/P o Mast cells  Merckle cells o Melanocyte cells o Langerhans cells |Pag e2 22. The definitive organelle of the melanocyte is the melanosome, and the definitive organelle in the melanophages is o Premelanosome o Melanophore o Mitochondrion  Lysosome o None of the above 23. Melanocyte destruction due to cooling occurs at following dergrees  -4 _ -7 o -1 _ -5 24. Melanocytes in the oral mucosa:o Can seldom be found, o Are normally inactive, o Lack dendrites, o Occur only in laminal propria.  None of above 25. Parakeratosis is not typical of o Psoriasis o Pityriasis rosea o Subacute eczema  Lichen planus o Seborrehic dermatitis 26. Fluid accumulation within epidermal spaces due to rupture & death of epithelial cells is called: Cytoslysis o Spongiosis o Acantholysis 27. Which of the following lack desmosomes ? o Keratynocytes of the granular o Langerhans cells o Melanocytes o Keratinocytes of basal cell layer  B and C 28. Histological epidermal structure which responsible for prevention of cohesion of epidermal cells and acantholysis and blister formation in vesico- bulious dermatosis is : o Epidermal cell collisions o Intercellular substances  Desmosomes 29. Histological epidermal structure which is responsible for prevention of loss of coherence between epidermal cells:o Intercellular substance  Desmosomes o Lamina lucida o Collagen fibers 30. The basic morphologic patterns of intraepidermal vesicle formation are:o Spongiosis o Acantholysis o Cytosis  All of the above 31. Spongiosis in dermatitis  Intact desmosomes but look stretched o Intact desmosomes that do not seem stretched o Acantholysis 32. Vesicule occurs histopathology by –  Loss of cohesion of desmosomes leading to acantholysis o Defect in basement member- bullae 33. A typical early (about 8 hours) response to epidermal injury is o Glycogen depletion o Glycogen accumulation o Shrinkage of basal cells  Increased numbers of mitoses 34. Langerhans's cells all except o Play an important role in antigen presentation  By Hx & E stain they appear as high-level brown cells o They express class II MHC antigens o They circulate through the epidermis, the dermis, lymphatics and lymph nodes o Corticosteroids decrease their surface markers 35. One of the following vehicles doesn’t suit an acute skin condition:o Powders o Solutions  Ointments o Lotions 36. Least pressure ulcer point:  Scapula o Heel o Ischeal tuberosities o Greater trochanter o Secrum 37. Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by: T lymphocyte o Lymphokines o Langerhans cell o IgA 38. Epidermis of the facial skin in aged persons is characterized by all except o Thinning of the malpighian layer o Reduced number of functioning melanocytes o Glycogen accumulation o More marked involutional changes than are seen in non-light exposed skin  Absence of stratum granulosum 39. Heat receptor can tolerate temperature at what level after that pain o 42 o C degrees  45 o C degrees o 52 o C degrees 40. Normal human epidermal glucose levels in vivo are o About equal to blood levels  About 30% to 60% of the blood level o About 10% of the blood level o Zero o Not exactly known 41. Concerning lichenification all are true EXCEPT:o Thickening of epidermis & accentuation of skin markings o Due to rubbing or scratching  Occurs in acute dermatitis |Pag e3 42. Pin point bleeding due to thinning of the epidermis is called:o Nicolesky's sign o Pathergy reaction  Auspitz sign o Koebner phenomenon 43. Auspitz sign is caused by o Test tube rete ridges  Thinning of the epidermis overlying the rete ridges 44. Auspitz sign seen in:o Pityriasis rosea o LP  Psoriasis o Allergic contact dermatitis 45. Sign that occurs by applying force to cause shearing of the epidermis from the dermis is o Darier's sign  Nickolsky's sign o Pathergy reaction o Auspitz sign 46. Appearance of the lesion at the same site of the 1ry lesion in some dermatosis on trauma, scratching or on wound scar or sun burn is called:o Pathergy reaction o Auspitz sign o Nicolesky's sign  Koebner phenomenon 47. Koebner phenomenon occurs in all EXCEPT: Pityriasis rosea o Pityriasis rubra pilaris o Wart o Psoraisiform dermatitis 48. Kobner’sphenomenon seen in EXCEPT o Psoriasis , o Lp, o Lichen nitidus  Bullous Pemphigoid and keratosis follicularis 49. Each of the following are the nikolesky sign except: o Pemphigus  Pemphigoid o H. Simplex o Insect bite 50. Positive nikolysky sign found in: o B.pemphegoid.  P .vulgaris. 51. Each of the following are +ve Nicolesky's sign EXCEPT:o Pemphigus vulgaris o Herpes simplex  Pemphigoid o S.S.S.S 52. Epidermal infiltration by pustule of pmls (Munro microabsceses)occurs in:o Pustular psoriasis o Reiter's syndrome o Impetigo herpetiform o Acrodermatitis continua (Dermatitis Repens)  All of the above 53. Epidermal infiltration by polymorph nuclear lymphocyte  Psoriasis o Lichen planus o PRP 54. Sebaceous gland activity and vaginal discharge in infancy usually is due to  Maternal sex hormones o Adrenal hyperplasia o Maternal diabetes mellitus o Maternal prenatal vitamin therapy o None of the above 55. The physiologic function of human sebum is o A barrier layer o A natural antiseptic o A buffer o A water retainer  Undetermined 56. Eccrine gland developed intrauterine during o 2th month intrauterine  4th month intrauterine4-6 o 6th month intrauterine 57. Development of eccrine glands in sole (palm & planter)  2-3 months o 4-5 months o 6-7 months o 7-8 months 58. Normal human eccrine function is o Sympathetic adrenergic  Sympathetic cholinergic o Parasympathetic adrenergic o Parasympathetic cholinergic o Androgen-dependent 59. Apocrine glands all EXCEPT o Develop from follicular epithelial cells o Are located in the axillae, perianal region and areole  Secret an oily malodorous material o Have no well-determined function o Are influenced by sex hormones 60. Stain of epithelial of eccrine hidrocystoma  S100 eccrine hidrocystoma (langerhans cells, lands, schwann cells, chondrocytes , adipose tissue and melanoma) (clear cell acanthoma) o PASS (for granules) o Zehl nelson o Tolidin blue 61. Apocrine hidrocystoma best investigation diagnostic  PAS o S100 ptn o Toluidine blue 62. The tip of the nose is innervated by: Ophthalmic nerve o Occulomotor nerve o Trigeminal nerve 63. Nerve supply of the alae nasi by o Branch of supratrochlear nerve o Branch of infratrochlear nerve |Pag e4  Branch of the infraorbital nerve(from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve) o External nasal nerve 64. Which of the following criteria will usually help differentiate autosomal dominant and recessive inheritance all except o Frequency of phenotypic involvement of parents o Consanguinity  Frequency of involvement of male vs females o Presence or absence of the phenotype in succeeding generations o The severity of the disorder 65. Each of the following is transmitted by autosomal dominant inheritance EXCEPT: o Gardner’s syndrome  Cronkhite-Canada syndrome o Peutz-Jeghers syndrome o Cowden’s disease o Muir-Torre syndrome 66. Each of the following is transmitted by autosomal dominant inheritance EXCEPT : o Gardner’s syndrome  Cronkhite-Canada syndrome o Peutz-Jeghers syndrome o Cowden’s disease o Muir-Torre syndrome 67. All of the following are A.D EXCEPT:o Peutz-Jergers syndrome  Xeroderma pigmentosa o Darier's disease o Neurofibromatosis 68. The following are autosomal dominant EXCEPT: o Neurofibromatosis  Xeroderma pigmentosa o Ataxia o Pentz – jeugers. 69. Patient treated with PUVA should be examine by: o Neurologist.  Ophthalmologist. o Git specialist. 70. The earth rays contains most concentration of UVA o 10am – 2pm o 11am – 1pm  10am – 3pm o 11am – 4pm o 11am – 2pm 71. Immediate pigment darkening (IPD) is produced and maintained by:o Visible light o UVB  UVA o UVC o All 72. Immediate tanning reaction occurs with –  UVA o UVB 73. Immediate tanning: o 320-340  320-400 o 290-320 74. Immediate tanning: o 8-12 hours  1-6 hours o 12-24 hours o 24-36 hours 75. Sun burn peaks o 4-6 hours after exposure  24 hours after 76. Psoralene reaches the skin after oral administration within: 1-2 hours o 3-4 hours o 10-12 hours o 20-24 hours 77. Patient , whight 70 kg , for PUVA treatment what the dose of psoralin : o 20mg befor1h  40mg befor2h o 20mg befor2h o 40mg befor1h 78. Skin diseases responsive to PUVA therapy include all except o Chronic hand eczema o Sarcoidosis o Urticaria pigmentosa o Solar urticaria  Actinic keratosis 79. The following dermatosis can be aggravated by exposure to UVR all EXCEPT o Acne vulgaris o Atopic dermatitis o Lichen planus o Pemphigus foliaceous  Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus 80. UVB tanning appear after : o 1 houre o 24 hours  48 hours o 72 hours 81. UVB tanning appear after early hours delayed UVB tanning appears after o 36 hours o 24 hours  72 hours o 48 hours 82. Patient with psoriasis take UVB and not respond which following drugs :  Acitritin o Methotraxate o Cyclosporine 83. UVB alleviates:o Pruritis with biliary cirrhosis o Pruritis with diabetes  Pruritis of hemodialysis 84. The highest SPF available at this time is o 15 o 19 o 30 |Pag e5 o 39  50 85. The best sun cream (sunscreen ) o Paba (para-aminobenzoic acid)  Titanium 86. For prophylactic from infection , before procedure , the antibiotic should be given  6 hours o 14 hours o 24 hours 87. High risk patient for cardiac diseases scheduled for operation (cosmotic) should recive antibiotic (prphylactic).To avoid skin infection: 1 hour before surgery o At time of surgery o 6 hours after surgery o 1 day after surgery 88. Infection in cutaneous surgery usually occurs after o 24 hrs o 24 – 48 hrs o 48 – 72 hrs  4-8 days 89. The appearance of infection after surgery o After 12-24 h o After 24-48 h o After 48-72 h  4-8 days 90. To prevent cutaneous complications after surgery , the antibiotics is given:  Before surgery o Day of surgery o 6 hrs after surgery o 24 hrs after surgery 91. Sutures near the eye can be removed after  5-7 d o 1w o 7-9d o 10-14d 92. Single or multiple bands in the o Vicryl o Prolein o Silk  Nylon 93. Monofilament or single sture o Vicryl o Dexon o Chromic  Prolene 94. Type of suture most suitable for cutaneous surgery  Single nylon suture o Double nylon suture o Braided silk o Unbraided silk 95. The most prominent side effects of cryosurgery is: Hypopigmentation o Hyperpigmentation o Scarring o Pain o Never damage 96. Dermatologic side effects of radiotherapy include all except o Pigmentary changes o Permanent alopecia o Fibrosis o Radionecrosis  Acneiform eruption 97. To complete depigmentation, the drug of choice is:o 0.1% methoxsalen o 0.6 mg/kg trioxalen  20% monobenzone o 0.1% monobenzone 98. Hydroquinone compounds cause depigmentation by their action on o Melanin o Dopa o Tyrosine  Tyrosinase o Melanocytes 99. Contraindications to oral retinoids include all except o Pregnancy o Patients at risk for liver toxicity o Chronic use in children o Concomitant use of methotrexate and oral retinoids  Aphakia 100. The difference of side effect of etretinate and isotretinoin is that o Isotretinoin procedure  Facial dryness + redness of lips o Alopecia 101. Use of minoxidil for 96 day will result in:  Increase hair thickness &weight o Increase hair length & decrease weight o Increse hair thickend only 102. Acyclovir-resistant herpes virus infection is best treated by o Cidofovir o Indinaivir o Granciclovir  Foscarnet o Lamivudine 103. Penicillamine induce : o Sle o Dermatomyositis o Pimphigus o Polymyositis  All above 104. Patient who is patch test +ve to ethylendiamine group of antihistamines should avoid  Hydroxyzine (Atarax) o Chlorophenramine o Terfenadine o Diphenhydramine 105. Dose of nifedipine in treatment of Raynaud phenomena o 10 mg twice daily o 20-30 daily  30-40 daily o 10-80 daily |Pag e6 106. The administration of erythromycin can even the blood level of: Theophylline o Oral contraceptives o Hydrochlorothiazide o Insulin o 13-cls retinoic acid 107. Erythromycin toxicity if take with o Clindamycin o Lincomycin o Aspirin o NSAID  Warfarin 108. Lindane is no longer the treatment of choice for scabies because of o Cardiotoxic effects o Nephrotoxic effects  Neurotoxic effects o Hepatotoxic effects o All of the above 109. Phenol peeling causes:  Cardiotoxicity(cardiac arrythmia) o Renal toxicity o Neural toxicity 110. The most safe form of procaine is: Novocain o Lindocain o Lidocain 111. Patient who is sensitive to procaine can be given  Lidocain o Benzocaine o Novicain 112. Best topical anesthesia with: o 1%lidocaine+adrenaline  2%lidocaine 113. The best for nerve block of mohs micro surgery o Procaine alone o Lidocain alone  Lidocain + epinephrin o Bupivacine + epinephrin 114. Alternating days of prednisone eliminates the increased risk of corticosteroid induced :  Osteoporosis o Posterior subcapsular cataracts o Avascular necrosis of the hip d. o Myopathy o Growth retardation 115. The following tests can assess the efficacy and strength of topical corticosteroids except o The vasoconstriction test  The repeated open application test o The atrophy test o The erythema test o Pyrexal erythema test 116. The most frequent adverse effect of topical corticosteroids in children is o Scarring o Local irritation o Contact sensitization o Skin discoloration  Skin atrophy 117. There is little evidence of a need to taper off a course of corticosteroid therapy (single morning dose) of duration less than:o One week  Two weeks o One month o Six weeks o Two months 118. Cause of hypertension o Dexamethasone o Prednisolone  Hydrocortisone o Triamcilone 119. Drug which is most likely to cause hypertension in equivalent dose o Prednisolone o Dexamethasone  Hydrocortisone o Betamethasone o Triamcinolone 120. 1 gm of dexamethasone equal to how many .gm of triamcinolone: o 1 o 2  5 o 10 121. The following drugs should not be used concomitantly with dapsone all EXCEPT  Methotraxate o Primaquine o Zidovudine o Chloroquine o Oral contraceptives 122. Dapsone is most useful in patients with:o Guttate Psoriasis o Psoriatic Erythroderma o Psoriasis Follicularis o Psoriasis rupiodes  Palmoplantar Pustular psoriasis 123. Patient took dapsone after 2 days developed bluish lip &hand what to give o Acetylcystein o Ethanol  Methelyne blue o Chrcool 124. The most prominent side effects of Dapsone is: Hemolysis o Liver damage o Renal damage o Bone marrow depression 125. Methotrexate before use  Liver enzyme/function o Liver biopsy 126. Current recommendation for monitoring methotrexate hepatoxicity in patients without the risk factors for liver disease is o Liver biopsy before starting methotrexate |Pag e7 o Liver biopsy after the first 200 to 400mg of methotrexate o Liver biopsy when patients have been treated with 1 to 1.5g of methotrexate o Liver biopsy when patients have been treated with 3g of methotrexate  Liver biopsies are not necessary as long as patient have liver function tests drawn monthly. 127. Methotrexate what right o No need to biopsy in every case o Liver enzyme is necessary o Pneumonia is more common with rheumatoid arthritis than psoriasis  All of the above 128. Drug causes hepatotoxicity by cumulative effect:o Ketoconazole  Methotrexate o Tetracyclines o Ampicillin 129. Side effects of methotrexate include all except o Hepatotoxicity o Phototoxicity o Chills and fever o Cytopenia  Keratitis and conjunctivitis 130. In methotrexate hepatotoxicity : o Liver biopsy is not necessary in patient lack clinical and laboratory evident of liver disease. o The hepatic c fibrosis in patient with rh arthritis is more benign than in patient with psoriasis. o The pnemonitis side effect is far more benign in patient with psoriasis than in patient with rheumatoid arthritis. o Liver enzymes are essential before treatment despite controversy about their role.  All above 131. Methotrexate what the latest o Teratogens o Myeloplstic o Bone narrow suppression o Stomach upset  Hepatotoxicity 132. The principal route of excretion of methotrexate is o Biliary  Renal o Cutaneous o Respiratory o None of the above 133. Cyclosporine is o Nephrotoxic o Hepatotoxic o Hepatonephrotoxic  All true 134. Cyclosporine is commonly: Nephrotoxic o Hepatotoxic o Hepatonephrotoxic o All of the above 135. Cyclosporine levels are reduced by: o Ketoconazole o Cimetidine  Rifamficin o Allopurinol 136. Cyclosporine level is increased by all EXCEPT:o Erythromycin  Rifampicin o Ketoconazole o Allopurinol 137. Drugs affect cyclosporine metabolism:o Rifampicin o Erythromycin o Ketoconazole  All of the above 138. Drug that increase level of cyclosporine is  Ketoconazole and fluconazole o Phenoparbitorat o Rifampicin (rifampin) 139. One of the following, the most important side effects of cyclosporine therapy are:o Leukopenia and bone marrow suppression o Granulocytopenia and infection  Hepatotoxicity and nephrotoxicity o Neurotoxicity and temporary dementia o Colitis and hemorrhagic cystitis 140. Drug more safe in pregnancy is o Gentamicin  Ampicillin o Ketoconazole 141. Which statement of the following is untrue regarding Itraconazole? o It is a triazole o The absorption is increased by food o Pulse dosing may limit potential toxicity  It is fungicidal o Gastric acid secretion suppressors produce erratic or decreased absorption 142. Ketoconazole not used with: o Aspirin o Theophylline o Erythromycin  Astemazol o All of above 143. Fluconazole, what is wrong: Cannot take in liver disease o Half live 30 h o Taken every one week o The renal excrtectis not important 144. As the half life of fluconazole is long , it can be use every: o Day  Week o 2 weeks o 1 month 145. About fluconazole what is wrong:o Can be given every week o Triazole group  Metabolism not affect the kidney function o Its half-life 24:-30 hour o Mainly renal excretion |Pag e8 146. Itraconazole levels may be elevated if the patient is concomitantly taking which of the following drugs Cimetidine o Phenobarbitone o Phenytoin o Rifampin o Carbamazepine 147. Inhibition of squalene epoxidase is the mechanism of action of o Nystalin o Fluconazole o Itraconazole o Ketoconazole  Terbinafine 148. The maximum daily dose of amphotericin B does not usually exceed  1 mg/kg body weight o 10 mg /kg body weight o 100 mg/kg body weigh o 1 gram o 10 grams 149. Drug that have the greatest potential phototoxic reaction:o Benoxaprofen  Doxycycline o Sulphonamides 150. The most photosentizing drug is: o Chloroquine  Diphenylhydramine 151. All of the following are photoaggravated EXCEPT o LE o Herpes simplex o Dermatomyositis  Pimphigus o Xeroderma pigmentosa 152. Systemic photosensitivity caused by which group of drugs  Sulphones o Sulphonylureas 153. The most common cause of drug allergy:  Morbilliform exanthema. o FDE. o Hyperpigmentations. 154. Which of the following drugs photosensitivity o Sulfonylurea  Sulfones o Hydantion o Chloroquine 155. All of the following are photoexaggerated EXCEPT: o Herpes simplex o Dermatomyositis o LE o Xeroderma pigmentosa  Pemphigus vulgaris 156. Photo patch test can read o 24h o 36h  48-72h o 96h 157. Most common sensitivity test (skin test) o Prickle test  Patch test o Rast test 158. Photosensitizing drugs include all EXCEPT o Chloroquine o Nsaids o Thiazides o Sulphonamides  PABA 159. What is best cytotoxic drug can be used in patient with severe ocular damage o Corticosteroid o Azathrioprin  Cyclophosphamid o Infleximab 160. Cytotoxic drug safe on eye o Azathioprine o Methotrexate. o Cyclosporine o Mycophenolate mofetil  Cyclophosphamide 161. Fluorouracil inhibits DNA synthesis by o Transfer RNA blockage o Dihydrofolate reductase blockage  Thymidylate synthetase blockage o Adenylcyclase blockage o None of the above 162. Immunosuppressive therapy o Metoterxat o Cyclosporine o Azathioprine  All 163. Imiquimod when used for treatment of genital warts , what is the most popular side effect o Ulceration o Erosion  Pain o Dyes. 164. Which of the following TNF inhibitors are monoclonal antibodies?  Adalimumab and infliximab o Adalimumab and Etanercept o Etanercept and infliximab o Etanercept and Efalizumab o None of the above 165. Thalidomide use in treatment of o Psudoxanthoma elasticum o Parapsoriasis  Pyoderma gangrenosum 166. Black hairy tongue what is the treatment:o Antibacterial o Antiviral o Antifungal  Brushing the tongue 167. What is the following disease has genetic susceptibility (Hereditary disease) o EM o EN |Pag e9 o E Margentium  Eczema 168. Disease which can be caused by immunological reaction is:o Urticaria o Seborrehic dermatitis  Contact dermatitis o Atopic dermatitis 169. The primary histologic feature of eczema is  Spongiosis o Acanthosis o Hyperkeratosis o Vasodilation o Lymphocytic infiltration 170. All are similar in histopathology EXCEPT:o Contact dermatitis o Nummular dermatitis o Atopic dermatitis  Psoriasis o "id" reaction 171. All of the following are true atopic dermatitis EXCEPT:o Pruritis o Chronicity  2% of patients have Ig E o +ve family history 172. All are suggesting of atopic dermatitis EXCEPT:o Can be localized on cheeks o Very itchy  Depigmentation o >2 months age 173. The uncommon manifestation of atopic dermatitis is o Eczema herpeticum o Infection  Chicken pox 174. Child atopic dermatitis what %for having cataract capacity o 1-5%  10-15% (5-10%) o 20-30% o 70-80% 175. One of the following is a major criteria of atopy: Pruritis o White dermaographism o Icthyosis o Pityriasis alba 176. Infant with atopic dermatitis , what do you suspect to see in patient : o Flexor lichinification  Erythematous lesion with crust o Cataract o Decrease IgG 177. In atopic dermatitis, all are true EXCEPT:o White dermographism is present o 30-40% of the patient have icthyosis vulgaris o There is an increase susceptibility to staphylococcal infections  The ige is elevated in 20% of the patients o There is predisposition to generalized herpes simplex infections 178. Regarding Seborrehic dermatitis all true EXCEPT:o Blepharitis is common  Incidence is equal in both male & female o Pityrisporum ovale is the causative organism o Seborrehic dermatitis of scalp is the most common forms (Pityriasis Sicca) 179. A 3 months infant presented with erythematous rash with well-defined border covered with greasy scales in groins & the folds were not involved. Diagnosis is:o Psoriasis o Atopic dermatitis  Seborrehic dermatitis o Candidiasis 180. The histologic feature most helpful in distinguishing Seborrehic dermatitis from psoriasis is o Hyperkeratosis o Parakeratosis o Acanthosis o Inflammatory infiltrate  Spongiosis 181. Coin sized subacute eczematous plaques with thin scale and minimal exudation usually few in number, occurring primarily on the extremities in older patient with no history of atopy:o Cutaneous T cell lymphoma  Nummular eczema o Atopic eczematous dermatitis o Tinea corporis o Stasis dermatitis 182. House wife dermatitis can exaggerated by all EXCEPT:o Water o Soap o Gloves  Ingestion of rice 183. Hair-dye contact dermatitis is caused by  Para-phenylenediamine 184. Mason (‫ )عامل بناء‬with contact dermatitis both hands with remission when he gives in holiday , what most probably cause : o Neikle  Cement (potassium dichromate) o Cobalt 185. Cement dermatitis is most commonly caused by: Potassium dichromate o Nickel o Cobalt o Arsenic 186. Contact dermatitis in photographer most commonly due to: Potassium dichromate o Formaldehydes o Arsenic o Gold o Copper 187. Typical sensitizing agents in contact dermatitis include all EXCEPT | P a g e 11 o Lanoline o Rubber  Ethanol o Colophony 188. Perioral dermatitis due to chewing gum caused by:o Citric acid o Lennon oil o Argenum  Cinnamon oil 189. The differential diagnosis of perioral dermatitis: o Rosacea o Contact dermatitis o Acne vulgaris o Seborrehic dermatitis  All of the above 190. Perioral dermatitis:o Primarily affects ♂ between the ages of 16 and 45  Primarily affects ♀ between the ages of 16 and 45 o Is definitely caused by ultraviolet light o Is definitely caused by fusiform bacteria o None of the above 191. Facial foundations suitable for extremely long wearing and for camouflaging should be o Water – based o Oil- based o Oil- free  Water- free o Any of the above 192. Foundation makeup without sunscreen provides SPF around o <2  3 to 4 o 8 to 10 o 10 to 15 o > 15 193. The most important sensitizers in lipsticks are o Perfumes o Antioxidants o Insoluble colors o Mordants  Fluorescein stains 194. Detergent dermatitis of the hands  Is mostly irritant dermatitis o Is mostly allergic dermatitis o Can be easily diagnosed with patch tests o Is usually due to enzyme additives o Is usually due to perfume additives 195. Both allergic contact dermatitis and contact urticaria may be caused by:o Parsley o Indian bean o Onion o Tomato  Garlic 196. Gray pigmentation of the skin of the face and neck in middle-aged women is most likely due to o Silver o Gold  Mercury o Bismuth o Lead 197. The pigment in talon noir (black heel) is o Melanin o Lipofucin o Silver o Shoe leather dye  Hemoglobin 198. Elastic parts of underwear are rendered allergic through the reaction with:o Detergents o Oily lubricants  Laundry bleaching 199. The cause of blister beetle dermatitis is o Beetle sting o Beetle bite o Beetle feces o Retained beetle parts  Beetle crushes against the skin 200. Papular dermatitis treatment o Permethrin o Ivermectin o NSAID  Antihistamine 201. Most common topical drug that causes allergic dermatitis is  Neomycin o Chloromaephencol o Penicillin 202. The usual site of patch test is:o Face  Back o Arm o Thigh 203. Photosensitive Tatto is due to  Cadmium sulfide o Ferric oxide o Mercury o Chromium oxide 204. The differential diagnosis of flexural dermatitis in infancy includes all EXCEPT o Seborrehic dermatitis o Lettere-Siwe disease  Asteotic eczema o Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome o Miliaria 205. What is true about Wischott-Aldrich syndrome:o Chronic dermatitis resembling atopic dermatitis o Thrombocytopenic Purpura o Recurrent infections  All of the above 206. Chronic dermatitis with thrombocytopenia plus recurrent infection occur in  Wiskott Aldrich syndrome o Bazex syndrome o Xeroderma pigmentosa 207. To differentiate between hyper ige syndrome and atopic eczema: o By clinical picture. | P a g e 11 o Increase IgE above 5000 iu ,in hyper IgE.  Presence of staph lung abscess & skin abscesses in hyper ige. 208. Primary lesions of acne include:o Papules o Pustules  Comedones o All of the above 209. The pathognomonic lesion of acne vulgaris is the o Papule  Comedone o Pustule o Cyst 210. The comedones are seen in o Acne o Periorbital ages skin o Radiated skin  All of the above 211. Small papule with invisible opening  White comedone 212. Sebum function all of following EXCEPT  Immune regality modations o Vit.E source from skin o Protect from any microbiocal pathology o Immuno preventive barrier 213. Unique composition of human sebum is o Cholesterol is more than wax esters  Squalene is more than cholestrol 214. Sebum production increase if  Squalene is more than cholesterol o Cholesterol is more than Squalene o Wax ester is more than Squalene 215. Topical treatment in acne vulgaris that decrees sebum is :  Clindamycin o Erythromycin o Benzoyl peroxide o Azelaic acid 216. Which of the following topical agents has effect of reducing sebum production ?  Topical clindamycin plus nicotinamide o Topical erythromycin plus zinc o Topical benzol peroxide o Topical azelaic acid 217. The follicles in which acne lesions develop generally contain o Only sebum o No hair  A villus hair o A terminal hair o Only keratin 218. Acne venenata most common cause o Perfumes o Halogenated hydrocarbon  Cutting non absorbable oil o Compliment 219. Acne venenata most common cause  Cosmetic 220. Treatment of acne venenata  Topical retinoid o Dapson o Doxyclin o Pencellin. 221. Acne conglobata all true EXCEPT:o More in male than in female  Absence of comedones o Hidardentis suppurativa may associate it o Most common on posterior neck & back 222. Acne conglobata is best treated with:o Topical Tetracycline's o Systemic Tetracycline's o Ampicillin  None of the above 223. Teenager male presented with severe inflammatory nodulocysistic lesions on face, the most probable diagnosis is:o Acne vulgaris  Acne conglobata o Acne necrotica o Acne rosacea o Drug induced acne 224. All are true about acne fulminants EXCEPT:o Fever o Leucocytosis o Arthritis o Lesions contains osteolytic areas  Gram- ve infection 225. Acne fulminants can be presented by all EXCEPT:o Fever  Hemoptysis o Polyartheritis o Leucocytosis 226. For acne fulminans: o Arthralgia o Fever o Leukocytosis o Malaise  All of the above 227. Monomorphic eruption on sun exposure:o Acne tropica  Acne aestivalis o Acne cosmotica o Acne venenata 228. Drug induced acne is characterized by:o Cause nodule or cyst  Monomorphic o Mainly on the face o Has connection 229. Systemic steroid acne commonly seen on o Face  Back o Abdomen o Buttocks o Thigh 230. Premenstrual acne is mainly mediated by o Estrogen  Progesterone o DHT | P a g e 12 o Glucocorticoids o None of the above 231. Side effects of Isotretenoin include:o Chelitis o Hair fall o Diarrhea o Pseudotumor cerebri  All of the above 232. Long term side effect of isotretinoin  Skeletal hyperostiosis o Cirrhosis 233. The most common well established side effect of oral retinoid is:o Exfoliative dermatitis o Erythroderma o Alopecia areata o Optic abnormalities  Teratogenicity 234. Treatment of Acne recalcitrant o Sulfur high dose o Estrogen o Dapsone o Prednisone  All of the above 235. We must not use this drug in excoriated acne:  Benzyl peroxide o Tetracyclines o Clindamycin 236. Treatment of scared acne which type of laser o Diode laser o Nd-yag 1064nm laser  Erbium laser 237. Ice-pick acne scars are best treated by o Microdermabrasion o TCA peeling 50% o Eryag laser therapy  Punch replacement grafting o Topical tretinoin 238. Dermbrasion is used to treat acne scar in the: Face o Trunk o Shoulder o Forearms 239. Rosacea can have all EXCEPT: Comedon o Follicular papules o Telangectasia o Pustules 240. Rosacea cause all EXCEPT:o Conjunctivitis o Sclera o Blepharitis o Iritis  Retinitis 241. Rhinophyma is the complication of: Acne Rosacea o Acne vulgaris o Hidardentis suppurativa 242. Psoriasis have abscent of  Granular cell layer o Malpgian layer o Basal layer 243. What is not present in psoriasis. : o Ospitz sign  Degenerated DEJ o Parakeratosis 244. One of the following is not a typical histopathological feature & psoriasis:o Acanthosis & elongation of rete ridges o Parakeratotic horny layer o Thinning of the suprapapillary regions of stratum corneum  Degeneration of the dermoepidermal junction 245. The hispatology of psoriasis is the same as that of eczema except  Microabcess in psoriasis 246. HLA in psoriasis o HLA B12, B17 o HLA B37  HLA CW6 o HLA B7 247. Cell cycle in psoriasis duration is o 2 hrs o 20 hrs  37.5 hrs o 200 hrs 248. Precipitating factors for psoriasis all EXCEPT:o Drugs as B. Blockers & lithium o Stress o Trauma  Egg 249. The most characteristic physical sign of a psoriatic nail is  Pitting o Onycholysis o Onychomycosis o Subungual hyperkeratosis o Greenish-yellow discoloration 250. The most common manifestation of psoriasis in nails  Pitting 251. Oil spot in psoriasis occur on  Nail bed o Nail matrix o Nail plate o Nail fold 252. Pustular psoriasis given isotretinon what most side effect  Xerosis o Photosencetivty o Cushing o Chest toxicity 253. 100 patient psoriasis put under investigation trials 2years and 2years acteritin treatment doctors taken a liver biopsy from these patients 2year before and after 2 year what you expect  No correlates acctretin effect patient liver o Results correlates toinotive of psoriatic disease o Deterioration of liver pervious disease | P a g e 13 o No histological improvement in biopsies of liver associated disease psoriasis 254. Case of psoriasis in children treatment with narrow band UV effectiveness increased in combination with o Glucocorticoids o Cyclsporin o Tacrolimos  Nothing 255. The range of concentrations of anthralin used topically for psoriasis in the "Ingram regimen" is o 0.01% to 0.25%  0.1% to 2% o 0.2% to 0.5% o 3% to % o 5% to 15% 256. Patient developed erytheroderma and has an elevated liver enzyme best treatment o Isotretinoin o MTX o Corticosteroid  Cyclosporine 257. Methotrexate therapy of psoriasis patient is contraindicated in:o D.M  Liver cirrhosis o Pulmonary disease o Pustular psoriasis 258. Patient with severe psoriasis and have severe hypertension which type of drug he use it o Methtraxate  Cyclosporine A o Cyclophosphamide 259. Psoriatic patient developed hypertrichosis which treatment do that o Cyclophosamide  Cyclosporine A o Methtraxate o Retinoid 260. The most suitable among the new biologic therapies for treatment of psoriatic arthritis with stable psoriasis is o Infliximab  Etanercept o Adalimumab o Alefacept o Efalizumab 261. Histopathology of lichen planus:o Orthokeratosis o Saw tooth pattern of hyperplasia o Band like infiltration of superficial dermis o Civatte bodies  All of above 262. Hypertrophic lichen planus most commonly on o Lower lip  Anterior lower leg o Buccal mucosa o Periungual finger and toes o Scalp 263. Hypertrophic lichen planus associated with  Sporadic lichen planus o Atrophic lichen planus o Familial lichen planus 264. Violaceous hyperpigmented plaque with wary surface on legs associated with flat topped papules on wrists & forearms the diagnosis is:o Viral warts o Kaposi sarcoma  Hypertrophic lichen planus o Nodular amyloidosis 265. Most choice of LP treatment is: o Aspirin o Methotrexate  None of above 266. The following statements about lichen nitidus are true all except o An association with lichen planus is not uncommon o Most cases occur in children or young age  Histopathology shows hyperkeratosis, focal hypergranulosis, irregular acanthosis with liqufication degeneration of basal cell layer o A self-limiting dermatosis o Systemic steroids might be helpful in widespread lesions 267. Lichen straiatus: Self-limited disease o More above age of 20 o Variant of nevus lateralis o Always limited to head and neck 268. Lichenoid drug eruption caused by:o Gold o Hydrochlorothiazide o Penicillamine o Captopril o Quinidine o Antimalarial  All of above 269. About Pityriasis rosea all true EXCEPT:o Self-limiting  Never caused by drugs o Generalized o Symptomatic treatment 270. About Pityriasis rosea all true EXCEPT: Worsen by sun light o Begins with herald patch o May be due to viral infection o Self-limiting 271. A safe and effective therapy for pityriasis lichenoid chronic is: PUVA o Penicillin o Vitamin E o Reserpine o Bleomycin 272. Best or most treatment of pityriasis lichenoid chronica  Phototherapy o Corticosteroid o Cytotoxic | P a g e 14 273. Treatment of PLEVA of child 10 year  Erythromycin o Tetracycline o Puva 274. 6 years old child with 90% of his body shows erythema with scales and there is severe yellowish scales on his palm and soles with follicular hyperkeratosis on his interphalenges what is the best ttt: PRP  Systemic retinoid o NB-UVB o Systemic steroids 275. Anteriolatral of thigh + anteriolatral of arm child show follicular hyperkeratosis papules resolve no decrease of vit. (PRP) What best ttt: o Vit A o Codliver oil o Vit C  Tropical retinoid 276. Drug that best covers impetigo is o Erythromycin o Azithromycin o Clarithromycin o Clindamycin  Dicloxacillin 277. Bullous impetigo is caused by:o Streptococci  Staphylococci (coagulase +ve) o Staphylococci (coagulase -ve) o None of the above 278. Staph infection can split the DEJ by toxins directed against : (ssss) o Desmoglein III  Desmoglein I o Desmocollin I o Desmocollin III 279. Which antibiotic has the LEAST activity against Staphylococcus aureus ?  Erythromycin o Clindamycin o Vancomycin o Dicloxilln o First generation cephalosporins 280. The main local source of S aureus contaminating the skin is  Nasopharynx o Scalp o Axillae o Perineum o Mouth 281. Most common among factors predisposing to development of furunculous is  Nasal carriage of the organism o Underlying immune disorder o Anemia o Diabetes o Poor skin hygiene 282. The folliculitis caused by contact with cutting oils is due to o Solidification of the offending oil in the follicle o Promotion of bacterial growth by the offending oil  Follicular hyperkeratosis o None of the above o All of the above 283. Gram-negative folliculitis is best treated by o Tetracycline o Erythromycin o Doxycycline o Minocycline  Isotretinoin 284. A 35 years old man has marked pruritic, flesh colored papules limited to the face, neck, upper chest and back. A skin biopsy reveals perifollicular inflammation with numerous eosinophils vascular proliferation and dermal fibrosis. Bacterial and fungal are negative. Serum ige elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:o Chronic granulomatous disease  Eosinophilic folliculitis o Eosinophilic cellulitis o Urticaria o Hyperrimmunoglobulinemia E syndrome 285. Fatal outcome SSSS is least likely in which of the following age groups o 0-1 year  1-5 years o 5-15 years o 15-40 years o 40-60 years 286. Best treatment of erysipelas in children is:  Penicillin o Floxacillin o Erythromycin o Azithromycin 287. Necrotizing Fasciitis what possible treatment  Debridement o Antibiotic o Corticosteroid 288. What is the MOST important step in the management of necrotizing fasciitis ? o Bedrest and pain control o Histologic confirmation of the diagnosis o Culture and antibiotic sensitivity testing  Surgical debridement and decompression o Assessment of the patient’s immune status 289. Child symptoms had sore throat then L.N. later on palmoplanter peeling and strawberry tongues best treatment (Scarlet fever)  Erythromycin o Acyclovir o Retinoids o Antipyretic 290. Patient taken phenytoin and after that developed blister and target lesion, erosion 75% of his skin without oral lesion in probable diagnosis o EM o SJS  TEN o Drug exanthen | P a g e 15 291. Patient presented to ER congestive eye after she receive phenytoin she has targetoid lesion on her hand & feet she developed skin lesion dusky cooler which peel sheets she suffer from painful oral lesion. What is your diagnosis o HSV o EM o SJS  TEN 292. Rate of mortality in TEN with Steven Johnson syndrome:o 5% o 5%-15%  15-30% o 50% 293. Most common causes of death in TEN o Electrolyte disturbance o Hemodynamic shock  Sepsis o Renal failure o Hepatic failure 294. In patients with extensive erythrasma one should rule out o Cancer  Diabetes mellitus o Hypothyroidism o Chronic renal disease o Addison disease 295. Regarding erythrasma, all true EXCEPT:o Caused by coryenbacterium minutissimum o Response to erythromycin  Healing center & vesicles in periphery o Coral red in woods light 296. Axillary lesion that gives coral red fluorescence with woods light is: Erythrasma o Seborrehic dermatitis o Psoriasis 297. Tricomycosis axillaries all EXCEPT  Is a superficial fungal infection o Is caused by corynebacterium species o Is often related to poor personal hygiene o Can be associated with hyperhidrosis o Can be treated by nafitine hydrochloride 1% 298. Patient has a red maculo-papular rash which begins on wrist, ankles and then progress to form petechiae, the most diagnosis  Rocky mountain fever o Measles o Rubella 299. Rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is caused by: R. Ricketsii o R. Prowazaki o R. Typhi 300. Which of the following organism don’t have systemic involvement like vasculitis and necrotic change o Pseudomonas aregonose  Group B streptococcus(streptomyces) o Leprosy o Aspergellous 301. The causative organism in cat disease is o Bartonella quintata o Brucella melitenesis o Bartonella bacilliformis  Bartonella henselae o Coxiella bumetti 302. The highest concentration of organisms in an infant with early-onset neonatal listeriosis is in the o Liver o Lungs o Brain o Skin  Blood 303. The treatment of choice for listeriosis is intravenous o Ciprofloxacin o Dixocycline o Minocycline  Ampicillin o Cephalexin 304. The best treatment for steatocystoma suppurativa is o Oral isotretinoin o Topical metronidazole  Oral tetracycline o Topical vitamin D3 analogues o Intralesional IFN-α 305. On culture reveals klebsiella best treatment is o Steroid o Doxycycline, tetracycline  Retinoid, isotretinoin o Dapson o Clofozamin 306. All of the following are RNA viruses EXCEPT:o Measles  V.Z.V o Rota virus o Rhinovirus 307. The following are DNA viruses EXCEPT:  Measles. o Varcella zoster virus o Epstein bar virus 308. Which of the following viruses are RNA:o Herpes simplex  Hepatitis C o HPV o Hepatitis B o Molluscum contagiosum 309. Which of the following virus are DNA virus:o Measles o Rubella o Hand-foot-and-mouth disease  Infectious mononucleosis o Hepatitis A 310. Regarding herpes simplex all true EXCEPT: Type I is more recurrent than type 2 o Fever & lymphedema may occur o Tzank smear is diagnostic 311. Primary herpetic gingovostomatitis differs from herpagnia mainly by | P a g e 16 o The age group involved o Absence of systemic illness in the later o Presence of vesicles in the former  More posterior location of lesions in the latter o None of the above 312. Recurrent vesicles on penis  HSV o Chancre o Chancroid 313. Nerve most commonly affected in herpes zoster: Thoracic o Trigeminal o Lumbar 314. A man 69 years old with herpes zoster, which of the following is an indication for ophthalmic consultation:o Involvement of maxillary nerve o Involvement of auditory nerve  Involvement of the tip of the nose o Facial paralysis 315. Varicilla complication in adult most common o Hepatitis o Encephalitis  Varicilla pneumonia o Reye’s syndrome 316. Disease which may present as grouped vesicles and bullae include:o Herpes simplex o Herpes zoster o Dermatitis herpetiform o Adult linear iga bullous dermatosis  All of the above 317. About verruca vulgaris all are true EXCEPT: It is caused by HTLV in virus o Some of the lesion may resolve spontaneously o Some serotypes of the causative virus is potentially oncogenic o Genital warts can be treated by podophylline 318. Adult molluscum contagiosum is common to:o Mucous membranes  Genitalia & nearby areas o Palms 319. Giant molluscum contagiosum in an immunocompromised HIV-infected individual can be treated by o Curettage o Phenol o Lazarotene 0.1% o Topical tretinoin 0.25%  Topical imiquimod cream 320. Erythema infectiosum is caused by:o Varicella zoster virus  Parvovirus B19 o E.B.V o H.T.L.V o Coxsackie virus 321. Viruses cause Morbilliform eruption include:o Erythema infectiosum o Measles o Pityriasis rosea o Rubella  All of the above 322. Measles is infectious o After 2 days of contact with household relatives o From the appearance of the enanthen o From the appearance of exanthema till skin desquamation o Three days before the prodrome till the enanthem  From the prodrome till 5 days of the exanthema 323. The most common dermatophyte worldwide is o T. Mentagrophytes  T. Rubrum o M. Canis o E. Floccosum 324. All type of fungal microorganism diagnosis with wood’s light give florescence except : o T. Sheonlline  Violisicum o M. Canis 325. A fungal culture grew light brown, cottony aerial mycelia that became powdery in the center. There were numerous spindle shaped multiseptate. Microconidia organism is o T. Tonsurans o T. Mentagrophytes o T. Rubrum  M. Canis o M. Audouinii 326. What is the slowest growing zoophilic fungus in tissue culture ? o T. Equinum  T. Verrucosum o T. Mentagrophytes o M. Canis 327. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to cause tinea capitis in adult ? o Microsporum audouinii o Trichophyton mentagrophytes o Epidermophyton floccosum  Trichophyton tonsurans o Pityrosporum orbicularis 328. One of the following fungi is characterized by endothrix type hair invasion: Trichophyton tonsurans 329. Which is false about tinea capitis:o Common in children o Black dot tinea capitis is caused by T tensurans  Kerion is preceded by patch of alopecia 330. Most serious complication of untreated kerion is:o Secondary bacterial infection o Non cicatricial alopecia  Cicatricial alopecia o Spread of infection 331. Most cases of tinea barbae are caused by  Zoophilic fungi o Anthropophilic fungi o Geophilic fungi o Non dermatophyte fungi o Saprophytic fungi | P a g e 17 332. Fungal infection on subungual Pedis , what is the causative organism : o T. Rubum  T.tensorance 333. Endonyx onychomycosis is caused mainly by  T. Soudanes o T. Rubrum o T. Mentagrophytes o Asperigillus nigra o Scopulariopsis brevicaulis 334. Onychomycosis of fingernails is best treated by o Girisofulvin, 12.5 mg/kg/day for 3 months o Fluconazole 150 mg/week for 4 weeks o Ketoconazole 200 mg/day for 6 weeks  Terbinafine 250 mg/day for 6 weeks o Itraconazole 200 mg daily for 7 months 335. All are useful in diagnosis of Pityriasis versicolor EXCEPT:o Wood's light o Clinical examination  Skin biopsy o Scrub & KOH 336. Brown or black patches on palms & soles diagnosed tinea nigra is caused by: Phareoannellomyces werneckii o Microsporum canis o Trichophyton rubrum o Epidermophyton flocusum 337. About fungal infection all are false EXCEPT:o Tinea versicolor if treated never recur o A circinate lesion of healed center & active edge is characteristic of T capitis o Coral red fluorescence is seen in T capitis  Thrush, paronychia & napkin rash are manifestation of moniliasis 338. The relationship of C. Albicans to the skin is best described as o Resident flora o Transient flora o An absolute pathogen  An opportunistic pathogen o An accidental contaminant 339. Intertrigo may be secondarily infected with:o Streptococci o Staphylococci o Candida o A superficial dermatophyte  All of above 340. The safest drug for treating sporotrichosis during pregnancy is o Ciprofloxacin o Itraconazole o Fluconazole o Ketoconazole  Amphotericin B 341. The causative organism of sporotrichosis is o Histoplasma capsulacum  Sporothrix schenckii o Phialophora verrucosa o Exophiala jeanselmei 342. Regarding Sporothrix schenckii, the following statements are true except o It is dimorphic  Bloodstream dissemination is common o Lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis is the most common presentation o The lipid compound of the cell wall inhibits phagocytosis o It can grow on brain-heart infusion 343. Cryptococcus neoformance is commonly disseminated to: o Lung o GIT  CNS o Kidneys o Bone 344. Cryptococcosis ( Cryptococcus neoformans) is most commonly affect:o C.N.S o Skin  Lungs o Bone 345. The antibiotic least likely to be successful in treating an actinomycetoma is  Tetracycline o Streptomycin sulfate o Dapsone o Rifampicin o None of the above 346. Treatment of actinomycosis o Streptomysin + miconazol o Septrin + streptomycin  Penicillin 347. Mycetoma madura foot (case discreption) treatment o Streptomycin or amikacin o Voriconazole  Imidazole dervatives o Itraconazole and terbinafine more than ketconazole 348. Which mycetoma is more inflammatory, more destructive, and invasion of bone at an earlier period? o Eumycetoma  Actinomycetoma o The mycetoma that remains encapsulated for the longest period o They mycetoma that produces most fibrosis o None of the above 349. The treatment of choice for lobomycosis is o Itraconazole  Surgical excision o Ketoconazole o Terbinafine o None of the above 350. The period between exposure to scabies & development of symptoms is:o One day o One week o Two weeks  Four weeks | P a g e 18 351. About scabies all true EXCEPT: More in back o Iry lesion in burrow o Sarcoptes scabiei has 8 legs o Black fecal concretion of sarcoptes scabiei known as scybala 352. Characteristic lesion of scabies  Burrow 353. Scabies typically spare the flowing sites: Mid upper back o Fingers o Buttocks o Genitalia 354. Scabies differs in infants form adults in all EXCEPT:o 2ry infection is more common  Burrows are rare o Wide spread involvement in atypical sites as palms, soles & neck o Presence of vesicles & bullae 355. When treatment scabetic patient what point u will not consider: o Efficacy and toxicity of drug o Number of family members affected  Cost of the drug o Age of patient 356. The following are true about ivermectin for pediculosis treatment EXCEPT o It is not ovicidal o Given as 2 doses one week apart  Best drug in epidemics 357. A 5 year old child infected with pediculosis best treatment is  Apply topical for 10 minutes and wash and then fine combing o Apply topically overnight then fine combing o Combing with electronic device 358. Fleas are vectors for all of the following diseases EXCEPT o Typhus o Fungiasis o Bubonic plague  Onchoceriasis (african river blindness) o None of the above 359. A dermatologist may select the following therapies to treat cutaneous Lieshmaniasis EXCEPT o Cryotherapy o Parenteral pentostam o Oral Itraconazole  Systemic corticosteroids o Local application of heat 360. Therapeutic modalities of Lieshmaniasis include all EXCEPT o Rifampicin 600-1200 mg/day for up to 3 months o Itraconazole 200 mg/day for 4-8 weeks o Ketoconazole 200 mg 3 times daily for up to 3 months o Rifampicin + intralesional SSG  Topical 5% fluorouracil 361. Lesion upon pressure by a glass slide give apple jelly appearance is:-  Lupus vulgaris o Erythema nodosum o Lieshmaniasis 362. The most common cause of skin TB is: o Scrofloderma.  Lupus vulgaris. o V.cutis. 363. The most common lns involved in Scrufuloderma are:o Inguinal lns  Cervical lns o Mesenteric lns o Epitroclear lns 364. The principal reason for using a combination of drugs in the chemotherapy of TB is o To prevent side effects o To ensure effect against other mycobacteria  To avoid drug resistance o To prevent overgrowth by opportunistic pathogens o For economic reasons 365. Thick of nerve and loss of sensation occurs early  TL o LL o BL o BT 366. Leprosy stained with :  Ziehl Neelson stain 367. Lepra cells or Foam cells of Virchow occur in:o Tuberculoid Leprosy o Borderline Tuberculoid o Borderline Leprosy o Borderline Lepromatous Leprosy  Lepromatous Leprosy 368. Foam cells are seen in:o SLE o Scleroderma  Lepromatous leprosy o DM 369. Neural signs of leprosy:o Anesthesia o Muscle wasting o Trophic changes o Nerve enlargement  All of above 370. Mitsuda test is completely done in: o 3 days o 7 days o 10 days o 15 days  28 days (3-4 wks) 371. Lepromatous leprosy is characterized by all EXCEPT o Numerous symmetric erythematous or shiny ill-defined macules, papules or nodules o Affection of internal organs  Strongly positive lepromin test o Vacuolated macrophages in histology o Peripheral nerve involvement 372. Leprosy best diagnostic tool is o CBC | P a g e 19 o Slit skin smears o Lepromin test  Skin biopsy o Histamine test 373. Retired, endontulous 60 years old male lives alone, eating only biscuits soaked in water , he developed extensive ecchymotic patches , perifollicular hemorrhagic purpuric lesions , what is the diagnosis :  Scurvey o Senile purpura o Leakemia o Lp o Psoriasis 374. Leprosy bactericidal drug  Rifampicin o Cloforzemine o Dapsone o Minocycline 375. 375.Erythema nodosum may show all of the following EXCEPT  Ulcer o Erythema o Hotness o History of drugs 376. Hypopigmented patch indurated plaque after therapy painfull papules nodules(erythema nodosum leprosum) Drug choice:o Dapsone  Thalidomide o Tetracyclines o Corticosteroids 377. Causes of Saddle nose o Lepromatous leprosy o Wegner’s granulomatosis o Congenital syphilis  All of above 378. Saddle nose deformity is found in the following EXCEPT:  Secondary syphilis o Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis o Relapsing polychondritis o Leprosy 379. Stds all except:o Penile molluscum contagiosum o Genital wart o Herpes simplex genitalis  Scrotal herpes zoster 380. Rieter syndrome treatment :  NSAID o Systemic steroid o Methotrexate o Dapson o Colchisin o Thalidomid 381. Treatment of Rieter in children o Tetracycline  Azithromycin o Ketoconazole 382. The most infectious stage of syphilis is:- o 1ry syphilis  2ry syphilis o Early congenital syphilis o Late congenital syphilis o 3ry syphilis 383. Patient have painless ulcer in cronal sulcus since 2 weeks what is diagnosis  Syphilis o HSV o Chancroid o T.B 384. Syphilis:o Iry stage characterized by painful ulcers on genitalia  2ry stage typically affect palm & soles o 3ry stage is characterized by extensive scarring 385. Oral lesion in 2ry syphilis is in the form of: Mucous patch o Erythema o Vesicles 386. Transmission of syphilis to the fetus mother occurs:o During 1st trimester  During 2nd trimester o During 3rd trimester o During labor 387. Early congenital syphilis manifestation appear during:o 1st week of life o 2nd week of life  6th week of life 388. Early sign in congenital syphilis is –  Syphilitic rhinitis o Syphilitic rash on palms & soles o Condyloma lata o Genital chancre 389. The MOST common manifestation of congenital syphilis is:o Fissures of the lips and anus  Copper red macules and papules of the palms, soles and diaper area o Mucous patches o Condyloma lata o Syphilitic pemphigus 390. The least common cutaneous manifestation of early congenital syphilis is:o Rhagada  Condyloma lata o Rhinitis o Rash in palms and sole 391. Which condition is not characteristic of early congenital syphilis o Weinberger sign  Jaquet erythema o Syphilitic dactylitis o Pseudoparalysis of parrot o Condyloma lata 392. The first serological test for syphilis to become positive in primary syphilis is usually:o TPHA  FTA | P a g e 21 o VDRL o Wassermann reaction o T. Pallidum complement fixation test 393. VDRL is usually +ve in o 1ry S  2ry S o 3ry S o Latent 394. The earliest +ve test syphilis is: FTA-ABS o RPR o TPHA o All of the above 395. Patient has asymptomatic papule & plaque on trunk back sole a generalized lymphoadenompathy after taken treatment. Which antibiotic he takes.  Pencillin o Erthromycin o Clindamycin o Dapson 396. Clues to the diagnosis of late syphilis include o Chancre scar o Nuchal leukoderma o Macular atrophy  All of the above o None of the above 397. The drug of choice for non-venereal treponematose is o Penicillin G procaine  Penicillin G benzathine o Erythromycin o Chloramphenicol o Tetracycline 398. Penicillin:o Is the only effective treatment for syphilis o Is effective treatment for non-gonococcal urethritis  Is ineffective against B-Lactamase producing strains of gonorrhea o Must be given daily to treat uncomplicated syphilis successfully 399. Penicillin:o The only treatment of syphilis o Used for resistant penicillinase producers Bactria  Used for treatment of syphilis as penicillin G o All true o All wrong 400. The most frequent gummatous involvement in abdominal syphilis is o Gastric o Intestinal  Hepatic o Splenic o Pancreatic 401. Non-venereal treponematoses in comparison with venereal syphilis o Are caused by distinct organisms o Do not have a relapsing course o Are best treated with aminoglycosides  Tend to affect predominantly children o Are generally less destructive 402. The TPI test will distinguish syphilis from o Yaws o Bejel o Pinta o All of the above  None of the above 403. Yaws is caused by Treponema pallidum subsp o Endemicum  Pertenue o Carateum o Vincenti o None of the above 404. Yaws what causative organism o T. Palleduim  Ssp pertenue 405. Pinta is unique among the treponematoses as it  Has only cutaneous manifestations o Is found on the Eastern hemisphere o Affects mainly the elderly o Is not curable o All of the above 406. Pinta causative organism  T. Carateum 407. Endemic syphilis (bejel) (Endemicum)  Is prevalent in dry arid climates o Was eradicated from Africa in 1963 o Affects males more than females o Tends to affect children between 2 months to 2 years of age o Can be transmitted through breast milk 408. Mixed chancre on the penis may be due to syphilis and:o Staphylococcal infection o Streptococcal infection  Haemophilus ducreyi o Pseudomonas infection 409. The incubation period for chancroid is:o 1-2 days  1-5 days (2-4) o 5-10 days o 7-14 days o 14-28 days 410. LGV may show o Multiple painfull ulcers o painful erosion  painless erosion last for days o painless erosion last for 1-2 week 411. Gonorrhea most common site for discharges  Cervix o Urethra o Post vaginal fornix 412. The most common site for taking swab to diagnose female gonorrhea is:o Urethra o Vagina  Cervix o Labia minora 413. The most su