Air Law Past Paper PDF

0000 1. “Day” is the period between: a. 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset 2. “Night” is the period between: a. 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise 3. An aeroplane is an example of a: a. Category rating 4. A si...

0000 1. “Day” is the period between: a. 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset 2. “Night” is the period between: a. 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise 3. An aeroplane is an example of a: a. Category rating 4. A single engine piston aeroplane is an example of a: a. Class rating 5. An aeroplane with a maximum certified mass exceeding 5700kg is an example of a: a. Type rating 6. Flight time means: a. From the moment the aircraft lifts off until it stops at the end of its landing roll 7. The manoeuvring area of an aerodrome includes: a. Taxiways and runways 8. Formation flights may only be conducted: a. By arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in formation 9. In aviation, the term “infant” is used to define a passenger who: a. Has not reached his or her second birthday 10. No aircraft shall be operated unless a child restraint device is provided for each passenger who is: a. Less than 2 years of age 11. No aircraft shall be operated unless a seat is provided for each person: a. Aged two years or more 12. Smoking on a licensed aerodrome is prohibited in any place within: a. 15 metres of an aircraft 13. In an aircraft where smoking is permitted, smoking shall nevertheless be prohibited: a. During take-off, and approach to land or when the aircraft is on the ground 14. The refuelling of an aircraft with aviation gasoline: a. May not take place with passengers on board 15. A hand operated fire extinguisher must be carried: a. On all aircrafts 16. The carriage of a standard first aid kit is required: a. In all aircraft 17. Simulated emergency situations which affect the flight characteristics of an aircraft may be carried out in an aircraft: a. When passengers are not on board the aircraft 18. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off except: a. In an emergency 19. The pilot in command of a non-pressurised aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is available for passengers and crew for all flights between 10000ft and 12000ft: a. In excess of 120 minutes 20. The operation of a non-pressurised aircraft at altitude between 10000ft and 12000 ft is: a. Limited to 120 minutes unless the aircraft is equipped with supplemental oxygen 21. For an aircraft to be operated by day, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe light: a. Is not required 22. For an aircraft to be operated by night, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe light: a. Is required 23. No aircraft shall be operated at night unless: a. It is equipped with a serviceable rotating beacon 24. The equipment required in an aircraft to be operated by night includes: a. An electrical torch for each crew member 25. In an aircraft in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses which must be carried is equal to at least: a. 10% or three, whichever is greater 26. Original or certified copies of the documents to be carried in an aircraft on a domestic flight include: a. Certificate of release to service, certificate of registration and the pilot’s licence 27. A certificate of release to service or a copy of thereof, if required to be carried: a. On all aircrafts 28. Flight crew member licences, or certified copies of thereof must be carried in the aircraft: a. On all flights 29. The carriage of a flight folio is required: a. In all aircraft 30. A record of each fuel and oil uplift must be kept: a. In the aircraft flight folio 31. An aircraft flight folio must be retained by the owner or the operator for a period of: a. 5 years calculated from the date of last entry therein 32. The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established at least: a. Every 5 years 33. A licence holder must notify the Commissioner of any change in postal address within: a. 14 days 34. For flights conducted in accordance with Part 91, or flying training, operations the relevant entries in a pilot’s logbook must be made within: a. 7 days 35. Electronic logbooks may be used to record flight time, provided that: a. The data is printed on the paper at least every 90 days 36. The holder of a pilot licence must submit to the Commissioner a certified copy of summary of his or her logbook at least: a. Every 12 months. 37. All pilots must retain their logbooks, from the date they no longer hold a valid pilot licence for a period of: a. 60 months 38. The period of validity of a class 2 medical for a private pilot under the age of 40 is a. 60 months 39. The period of validity of a class 2 medical for a private pilot over the age of 40 is: a. 24 months 40. The holder of a medical certificate who is unable to comply with the appropriate medical requirements and standards of the certificate: a. Must furnish proof to the designated medical body or the institution that he or she has recovered from the decrease in medical fitness 41. If because of duty in a State or territory outside the republic, deferral of the issuing of a South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made, such deferral shall subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained locally, not exceed: a. Two consecutive periods, each of three months. 42. A pilot may: a. Fly through a danger area under his own risk with ensuring that broadcasting communication has been established 43. A pilot may fly through a restricted area provided that: a. Permission from the appropriate authority is obtained 44. Information regarding the latest restricted areas which may affect flights may be found: a. In the latest AIP, AIP SUP, AIC’s and NOTAM 45. A pilot may: a. Fly above a prohibited area provided that the aircraft remains above the specified upper limit of the prohibited area 46. Unless two-way communication has already been established, the frequency to be used by an intercepted aircraft and intercepting aircraft is: a. 121.5 MHz 47. If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings appears in front and to the left of an intercepted aircraft. This means: a. Follow me away from a prohibited area 48. If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings, appears in front and to the right of an intercepted aircraft, this means: a. “follow me to a landing terrain” 49. A list of signals for use by intercepting aircraft must be carried: a. On all flights 50. The PIC of an aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an unmanned aerodrome shall be responsible for: a. Making all turns to the left unless a right-hand circuit is in force 51. When two heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing the: a. The aircraft at the lower level has right of way 52. Where a right-hand circuit is being followed at an airfield, an aircraft may: a. Overtake a slower aircraft by passing on its left 53. When operating outside of an aerodrome circuit area, an aircraft which is overtaking a slower aircraft at the same height and heading: a. Shall pass the aircraft on the right 54. When two aircrafts are approaching head on, or approximately so, and there is a danger of collision: a. Each aircraft shall alter the heading to the right 55. A vehicle which is towing an aircraft: a. Has right of way over an aircraft taxying across an apron 56. An aircraft which is taxying across the apron shall: a. Always give right of way to a vehicle which is towing an aircraft 57. The pilot in command, surviving an accident involving an aircraft within the Republic, shall report such accident as soon as possible to the: a. Director b. Commissioner 58. An incident involving an aircraft within the republic shall be reported as soon as possible to the: a. Commissioner or the air traffic service unit 59. An accident involving a South African registered aircraft outside the Republic shall be reported as soon as possible to the: a. Appropriate aviation authority of the country in which the accident occurred and the Commissioner 60. An incident involving a South African registered aircraft outside the Republic shall be reported as soon as possible to the: a. Appropriate aviation authority of the country in which the incident occurred and the Commissioner 61. An aircraft involved in an in an accident may be moved: a. Only if authority to move it has been given by the investigator in charge 62. An authorised officer, inspector or authorised person may suspend a person from exercising all or any of the privileges of his or her pilot licence, ratings or validation for a period not exceeding: a. 30 days 63. A private pilot licence issued is valid for a period of: a. 10 years 64. The requirements for the issue of a PPL include: a. A minimum of 15hrs of solo time, of which 5hrs must be solo cross-country time 65. Included in the requirements for the issue of a private pilot licence is that the applicant must have completed not less than: a. 5 hours of instrument instruction time 66. A private pilot may act as co-pilot on an aircraft: a. On which a co-pilot is not a requirement 67. The holder of a private pilot licence when acting as a co-pilot in aircraft not required by the manufacturer, or the South African Civil Aviation Regulations, to be operated with a co-pilot may be credited: a. With none of the flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher-grade pilot licence 68. A private pilot, with an appropriate rating, when acting as a co-pilot in an aircraft certified for operation by a single pilot but required by the South African Civil Aviation Regulations be operated with a co-pilot may be credited: a. With not more than 50% of the hours of such flight time towards a higher-grade pilot licence. 69. A private pilot, with an appropriate rating, when acting as a co-pilot in an aircraft certified to be operated with a co-pilot may be credited: a. In full with the flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher-grade pilot licence 70. An applicant for a private pilot licence(aeroplane) who is also the holder of a glider pilot licence may: a. Be credited with a maximum of 10 glider hours towards the issue of private pilot licence 71. An applicant for a private pilot licence who is also a holder of a micro light pilot licence may: a. Be credited with a maximum of 10 micro light hrs towards the issue of private pilot licence 72. The applicant for a private pilot licence must undergo the skill test within: a. 6 months of passing the theoretical knowledge examinations 73. Prior to undergoing the revalidation skill test a private pilot must have flown a minimum of: a. 3 hours as pilot in command in the preceding 6 months 74. An applicant for a night rating must have completed: a. 10hrs of instrument instruction of which not more than 5hrs may have been acquired in an approved FSTD. 75. An applicant for an aeroplane night flight rating shall have completed not less than: a. 10hrs of instrument flight time, at least 5 take offs and 5 landings by night and a dual cross country of not less than 150nm 76. An applicant for night rating must have undergone: a. 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction 77. A night rating is valid for: a. As long as the pilot licence of the holder of the rating is valid 78. A pilot without a night rating shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, carrying a passenger by day, unless such pilot has carried out at least: a. Three take offs and landings within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight 79. In order to change to another type of aeroplane, not previously flown, within one class rating: a. The pilot must undergo differences or familiarisation training 80. An applicant for an initial single pilot multi engine type rating must have completed, on a multi engine aeroplane, a minimum of: a. 6 hours of dual flight training 81. The holder of a pilot licence must undergo periodic proficiency checks for the revalidation of a rating unless he or she has successfully passed a revalidation check or an initial skill test in the same category of aircraft within the previous: a. 24 months 82. With reference to the maintenance of competency requirements, if a pilot fails a proficiency check: a. Must undergo corrective training and provide a letter recommendation for a re-test 83. “Date of Application” when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or reissuing of a licence, certificate or rating means: a. The date on which the application is received in the prescribed form by the Commissioner 84. An Aerodrome Traffic Zone is defined as an airspace of defined dimension at an aerodrome: a. Which is controlled airspace and where aerodrome control is in operation 85. The PIC of an aircraft to be operated in controlled airspace: a. Shall ensure that two-way communication has been established before the aircraft enters controlled airspace 86. The PIC of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an air traffic control clearance. The amendment: a. May not be applied by the pilot without ATC approval 87. Unless otherwise authorised by an ATSU, for a flight departing into controlled or advisory airspace an air traffic service flight plan must be filed at least: a. 30 minutes before departure 88. An air traffic service flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled or advisory airspace, which is filed in flight must be filed with the responsible air traffic service unit at least: a. 10 minutes before the entry into the controlled or advisory airspace 89. In an event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its current air traffic service flight plan, a revised ETA shall be notified to the ATC if an error is found to be in excess of: a. 3 minutes 90. In terms of Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be filed for: a. A flight crossing an international boundary even though no landings will be made. b. A flight between two aerodrome traffic zones even though no controlled or advisory airspace will be entered en route. c. A flight from a manned aerodrome to an aerodrome traffic zone where no other controlled or advisory airspace will be entered during the flight. 91. A private pilot is on a VFR flight conducted mostly in uncontrolled airspace, but a part of the route crosses through an airway at right angles. The pilot: a. May fly through the airway without filing a flight plan provided clearance to do so is obtained from the ATSU responsible for that airway 92. An aircraft for which an air traffic service flight plan has been filed: a. May be given priority over aircraft for which flight plans have not been filed. 93. In the case of radio failure, a flight for which a flight plan was filed and activated may continue in controlled airspace provided that: a. The communication failure procedures are complied with 94. Cloud ceiling means: a. The height above the surface of the base of the clouds below 20000ft, covering more than half the sky 95. The PIC of an aircraft on a domestic VFR cross country flight shall not commence take off unless: a. A favourable met forecast for the route to be flown has been obtained 96. The navigation and associated equipment required for aircraft operated under VFR includes: a. An airspeed indicator (ASI) and a clock or watch showing the time in hours minutes and seconds 97. Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to the surface and at no time above more than: a. 3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5nm of the aircraft 98. The take-off visibility required for an aeroplane on a VFR flight departing from an Aerodrome Traffic Zone is: a. 5km 99. Notwithstanding the weather minima required for VFR operation in an aerodrome traffic zone, the pilot of an aircraft in a cross-country flight may enter or leave the ATZ when: a. The ground visibility is 5km or greater and the ceiling is not less than 500ft 100. For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace between 1 500 ft and 5 000 ft above the ground by day, the required weather minima are: a. 5 km visibility, distance from cloud: 2 000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically 101. For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace at or below 1000ft above the surface by day, the required weather minima are: a. 1 ½ km visibility and clear of cloud 102. A PIC may conduct special VFR operations, subject to ATC approval, within a: a. Control zone (CTR) 103. A pilot in command, subject to ATC approval, may conduct special VFR operations: a. Within a CTR, with a cloud base of at least 600ft and visibility at least 1500m 104. Unless instructed to do otherwise by an ATSU, an aircraft flying at or below 1500ft above the surface following a line feature: a. Shall fly to the right of the line feature 105. An aircraft which is following a railway line within one nautical mile shall, unless instructed by ATC: a. If flying at or below 1500ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line 106. The minimum height at which an aircraft may fly across an aerodrome without conforming to the traffic pattern is: a. 2000ft 107. The PIC of an aeroplane which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing shall: a. Fly overhead at least at 2000ft AGL to establish the runway in use 108. Except when necessary for taking off and landing, or except with the prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall be flown over built up areas at a height: a. Less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2000ft from the aircraft. 109. Except with the prior written approval from the Commissioner, no aircraft shall circle over, or do repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons at a height of less than: a. 3000ft above the surface 110. Away from built-up areas or open-air assemblies of persons, the minimum height at which an aircraft may be flown is: a. 500 ft above the ground or water 111. Except by an individual permission from the Commissioner, aircraft shall not be flown acrobatically: a. Within 5nm of an aerodrome unless at a height of 4000ft AGL 112. No person shall act as flight crew member of an aircraft: a. Within 72 hours following blood donation 113. No person shall act as flight crew member of an aircraft: a. Within 24 hrs following a scuba diving 114. No flight crew member shall consume alcohol within: a. 8 hours prior to a flight 115. No person shall act as a flight crew member on an aircraft if prior to each flight, the flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed: a. 400 hrs in during preceding 90 days 116. No person shall act as the flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed: a. 700hrs during the preceding 6 months 117. A private pilot who is not a holder of instrument rating shall not act as a flight crew member if, prior to each flight exceeds, or is likely to exceed: a. 1000hrs during the preceding 12 months 118. In terms of semi-circular rule, the selection of flight levels shall be based on a. Magnetic track 119. Unless otherwise directed by ATC, compliance with the semi-circular rule is required for all flights operating above: a. 1500ft AGL 120. Aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with the semi-circular rule when operating: a. At a height of less than 1500ft above the ground 121. An aircraft is to maintain a track of 160deg (T), drift 8deg right, variation 20deg W, high ground of 3800ft above sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to be used is: a. FL065 122. An aircraft is to maintain344deg (T), drift 6deg right, variation 20deg W, high ground 4300ft above mean sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to be used is: a. FL075 123. An aircraft, operating VFR is maintaining a track of 359deg (M). Another aircraft, also VFR, is maintaining a track of 180deg (M). The two aircrafts: a. Could be at the same flight level 124. An aircraft, operating VFR is maintaining a track of 359deg (M). Another aircraft, also VFR, is maintaining a track of 179deg (M). The two aircrafts: a. Could be at different flight level 125. Unless authorised required by an air traffic service unit, no person shall fly a reciprocating engine aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone at an indicated airspeed of more than: a. 160kts 126. Unless authorised by the Commissioner, no person shall outside controlled airspace and below FL100 fly an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of: a. 250kts 127. To an aircraft in flight at an aerodrome, a steady green light shall mean: a. Cleared to land 128. To an aircraft in the air at an aerodrome, a series of white flashes means: a. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to the apron 129. To an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, a series of white flashes means: a. Return to starting point of an aerodrome 130. A series of green flashes to the aircraft on ground at an aerodrome shall mean: a. Cleared to taxi 131. To an aircraft on ground at an aerodrome, a series of red flashes mean: a. Taxi clear of landing area in use 132. The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an aerodrome indicates: a. Be used for take-off and landing which must be in a direction parallel to the shaft to the T towards the cross arm 133. The symbol indicated in figure below, when displayed in a signal area indicates that: a. Aircraft are required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways only 134. The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an aerodrome means that: a. Glider flights are in operation 135. The Signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an aerodrome means: a. Agricultural flights are in operation 136. The visual ground signal as shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area at an aerodrome indicated that: a. Landings are prohibited 137. A white or yellow cross located at each end of a runway means that: a. The runway is closed