Airframe Paper I PDF

Airframe Paper I Page 1 of 28 UNREGISTERED USER Airframe Paper I 1. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressu...

Airframe Paper I Page 1 of 28 UNREGISTERED USER Airframe Paper I 1. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised to: a) Minimise the possibility of pump cavitation b) Provide a reserve of stored energy c) Maintain a constant fluid level 2. In an aircraft hydraulic system, it is permissible to use: a) Any hydraulic fluid available b) Only the specified fluid c) Any fluid of the same specific gravity 3. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are: a) Accumulator and automatic cut-out valve b) Accumulator and shuttle valve c) Accumulator and relay valve 4. An automatic cut-out valve will: a) Prevent a hydraulic lock forming b) Limit pump wear c) Raise fluid boiling point 5. One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to: a) Absorb pressure surges b) Minimise the possibility of pump cavitation c) Relieve excess pressure 6. A thermal relief valve is fitted to: a) Prevent excess temperature file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 2 of 28 b) Relieve excess pressure c) Prevent a leak back of pressure 7. The hand pump fluid supply is drawn from: a) A stack pipe higher than normal fluid supply b) The bottom of the reservoir c) A stack pipe tapped into the top of the reservoir 8. A hand pump is usually fitted to be used for: a) Ground servicing and as an emergency power source b) Maintaining the fluid level of the reservoir c) Ground charging of the air pressure in the accumulator and reservoir 9. The colour of fluid DTD 585 is: a) Green b) Blue c) Red 10. The effect on the off-load/on-load cycle of too high an air charge pressure in an accumulator would be that the: a) Interval between would be reduced b) Interval between would be increased c) Interval between would remain the same 11. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are generally: a) Double acting b) Rotary c) Single acting 12. What type of delivery system uses an automatic cut- out? a) A variable pump system b) A fixed stroke pump system c) All hydraulic pumps require an automatic cut-out valve 13. The waisted portion of the EDP drive shaft is: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 3 of 28 a) Needed as this shape fits the gearbox b) To protect the pump against further damage c) To shear if the engine seizes 14. A depressurisation solenoid is to: a) Unload the pump b) Disconnect the pump from the engine c) Shut the blocking valve to isolate more than one pump 15. The axial piston type pump on a variable displacement pump uses the control piston to: a) Operate the blocking valve b) Prime the pump c) Modulate the swash plate (yoke) 16. A throttling valve is a: a) Pressure reducing valve b) Two way restrictor valve c) Pressure maintaining valve 17. Which paint should be used in an area subject to chemically based fluid spillage? a) Oil based b) Lacquers c) Polyurethane 18. How is a component designed to be used with fire resistant fluid identified? a) By fitting a purple band b) By a painted red stripe c) The type of fluid is written in paint on the component 19. If different types of hydraulic fluid are mixed within a system, what will be the effect? a) No effect file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 4 of 28 b) Swelling of seals c) The pumps will run hotter 20. Hydraulic reservoirs are used to: a) Store fluid for emergency use only b) Provide a supply of fluid and to accept return fluid from the system c) Top up leakages from the hydraulic systems 21. The normal hydraulic system supply in a stack pipe type reservoir comes: a) Through the stack pipe b) From either source c) Below the stack pipe 22. A pneumatic relief valve incorporated in the air manifold is used to: a) Regulate the pressure b) Regulate the inlet air pressure c) Protect against a malfunction of the pressure regulation valve 23. Before disconnecting pipelines or components the reservoir should be: a) Emptied b) Depressurised c) No precautions necessary 24. When a standby pump is incorporated in a multiple hydraulic system, how is it switched on? a) Automatically by a main system loss of pressure b) By a member of the crew c) Standby system pumps run at all times the aircraft is operational 25. If the hydraulic system that supplies the undercarriage fails it can be lowered by: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 5 of 28 a) Gravity drop b) Cross feeding another system c) Using a standby system 26. What does a triple redundancy equipped aircraft in a single hydraulic system failure condition use for primary control? a) Balance tabs b) Standby pump system started by the crew c) The remaining hydraulic systems 27. Pipe runs from the individual pressure supplies are routed differently in case of: a) Hydraulic leakage for detection purposes b) Structural failures c) Ease of manufacture 28. Electrical supplies for the electric pumps come from: a) The same side's generator b) The opposite side's generator c) A special battery 29. Separate reservoirs are used for each hydraulic system: a) So that if a leak occurs only that particular system will be lost b) To enable single point replenishment to be carried out c) To prevent oil starvation at the hydraulic pumps 30. Pressure relay valves are fitted: a) Where a fuse is too large b) In any position that is convenient c) Vertically 31. If an internal leak occurs in the power circuit of a hydraulic system what will the symptoms be? file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 6 of 28 a) Jerky movement of control surfaces b) Slow build up of pressure and rapid drop in pressure when the pump is stopped c) There will be no symptoms as the pump wills uprate its output 32. The RAT propeller is of variable pitch to: a) Maintain a constant speed b) Produce a faster speed relative to aircraft speed c) Allow the blades to fold for easier stowage 33. Limit switches are employed on the RAT operating mechanism to: a) Illuminate a light to indicate when the RAT is fully stowed b) Illuminate a green pressure light c) Cut the supply to the electric motor when the RAT is fully extended or retracted, and illuminate a RAT deployed light 34. The lights for speed information from the RAT are powered from: a) The aircraft's battery b) The speed sensing device in the RAT hub c) The aircraft generator 35. The RAT will deploy with the aircraft on jacks if: a) The engine fuel switches are closed b) An airspeed test box is operated on the pitot tubes c) The battery switch is turned on 36. If the RAT is operating successfully in the air/ the indication to the crew would be: a) A green pressure and an unlocked light b) A green pressure light only file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 7 of 28 c) An unlocked light only 37. System interconnects valves are: a) Operated to prevent a leaking system operating b) Are open during all stages of flight c) Operated when the pressure source is lost on a hydraulic system 38. What is the main advantage of employing electric or air driven pumps over engine driven pumps? a) They are more reliable b) They can receive their power from more than one source c) Their hydraulic flow rate is greater 39. Full time electrically powered hydraulic pumps utilise: a) 28 volts d.c b) 28 volts a.c c) 115 volts a.c 40. The case drain fluid from the pump is: a) Pressure fluid b) Pump cooling fluid c) Supply fluid 41. The angle of the ADP's hydraulic pump swash plate controls the opening of: a) The modulation valve b) The pressure regulation valve c) The shut off valve 42. An ADP over speed shut down: a) Is reset by the pilot to retrieve the pump in flight b) Is automatically reset once the pump speed has decreased c) Can only be reset on the ground file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 8 of 28 43. The speed sensor monitors: a) The speed of the pump drive shaft b) The speed of the turbine c) The speed of the bob weight governor 44. The majority of wheels are made from: a) Steel b) Aluminium alloy or magnesium alloy c) Manganese steel 45. The divided wheel consists of: a) Two wheel halves b) One detachable rim and two drum halves c) Two detachable rims and one wheel drum 46. Before removing a serviceable wheel and tyre from an axle, the tyre pressure must be reduced to: a) 50 psi b) Zero c) 25 psi 47. The type of bearing used for wheel bearings is a: a) Roller bearing b) Tapered bearing c) Tapered roller bearing 48. The purpose of a fusible plug is to: a) Indicate a high pressure in the tyre to the ground engineer b) Provide a second access for an alternative inflation valve c) Release excessive tyre pressure at a safe rate if the wheel overheats 49. Tyre beads are made from: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 9 of 28 a) Copper b) High tensile steel c) Rubberised fabric 50. The treads of some tyres are re-inforced with: a) Apex strips b) Layers of strengthening fabric c) Breakers 51. The maximum creep for tubeless tyres recommended by CAIP is: a) One inch b) Tow inches c) Three inches 52. Which number in the code 34 x 9.50 - 18 indicates the bead diameter? a) 34 b) 9.50 c) 18 53. If a tyre is worn beyond the level of a tie bar, the tyre can: a) Be considered serviceable b) Not be used c) Complete ten more landings only 54. Kept in ideal conditions a tyre will not deteriorate for up to: a) Ten years b) Seven years c) Eight years 55. The tyres on assembled wheels not required for immediate use should be inflated to between: a) 5 to 10 psi file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 10 of 28 b) 5 to 15 psi c) 20 to 30 psi 56. The red line marked on a tube by the manufacturer indicates the: a) Heavy side b) Light side c) Vent hole 57. Tyres are identified for size in inches, for example 32 x 10.75 - 14. The number 10.75 is the dimension of: a) Width of tyre section b) Overall diameter c) Bead diameter 58. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to: a) Absorb increased landing shock b) Prevent skidding c) Spread the weight over a large area 59. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for Retraction and landing a: a) Snubber is used b) Hop damper is used c) Castoring damper is used 60. In a hydraulic retraction system, operation in the correct order is achieved by: a) Sequence valves b) Non-return valves c) Shuttle valves 61. A shuttle valve is used for: a) Maintaining fluid pressure when the main system fails b) Preventing loss of fluid from a leaking union file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 11 of 28 c) Change over from main to auxiliary system in case of failure 62. Hydraulic accumulator gas pressure can be checked: a) At any time b) With the system depressurised c) With the system pressurised only 63. What is the purpose of 'split system1 brakes? a) Greater stopping power b) Less wear as only one set work at a time c) So that all brakes won't be lost during a hydraulic system failure 64. In a pneumatic alternate brake system, what prevents gas pressure from entering the brakes? a) Transfer tube b) Position of the pneumatic control valve c) Shuttle valves 65. The rubber tyred drum on an externally mounted maxaret is driven by: a) The wheel b) The brake unit rotors c) Gears from the axle 66. The anti-skid control unit contains: a) The wheel speed transducers b) Printed circuit cards c) Brake metering valves 67. If power is lost on electronic anti-skid systems, they will: a) Fail in the brakes OFF position b) Fail in the position they were in when power was lost c) Fail in the brakes ON position 68. Aquaplaning on a four wheel bogie would occur mainly file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 12 of 28 on: a) All four wheels simultaneously b) The two rear wheels c) The two front wheels 69. Tyre life is increased using an anti-skid system because: a) Tyre pressures can be lower b) There is no skidding on rapid decelerations c) Stopping distances are shorter therefore tyres roll less distance 70. On a DOWN selection, only two green lights illuminate. What would be the most probable cause? a) Hydraulic failure to one undercarriage b) A bulb on the other leg indicator blown c) A selector fault 71. During a retraction test in the hangar the landing gear warning horn sounds. How can it be silenced? Note that the flaps are UP. a) Push one throttle forward b) Push both throttles forward c) Push the horn cancel button 72. When the landing gear is locked up the flight deck indicator shows: a) No indication at all b) A red light c) A green light 73. If the aircraft is turning right using NWS and the pilot lets go of the tiller, which direction would the nose wheel assume? a) Continue turning right file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 13 of 28 b) Straight ahead c) Turn right until commanded in the opposite direction 74. Restrictor valves in NWS systems provide: a) Damping b) An open return flow line c) An open pressure line 75. The towing pin used in some NWS systems is: a) For straight ahead steering only b) To prevent excess turning movement c) To allow a free castoring action 76. NWS pressure normally comes from: a) The undercarriage up line b) The undercarriage down line c) A special hydraulic system 77. An inclinometer is used to: a) Check cable tension b) Check control surface movement c) Check static friction 78. Right and left hand pairs of rudder pedals are sometimes linked by: a) Torque tubes b) Bell cranks c) Springs 79. A control cable may be terminated by a: a) Bolt and nut b) Swaged sleeve and thimble c) Clevis pin 80. A control system bell crank may be used to change: a) Rotary motion to linear motion only file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 14 of 28 b) Linear motion to rotary motion only c) Either linear to rotary or rotary to linear motion 81. The tension in a cable control system is adjusted by: a) The push-pull rods b) The cable stops c) The turnbuckles 82. An American turnbuckle is in safety when: a) No more than three threads are showing at each end b) No threads are showing at each end c) The safety holes are covered 83. Internal cable wear will most often take place: a) At a fairlead b) At a pulley c) At a terminal 84. A duplicate inspection requires: a) One qualified Engineer and any fitter b) Any two Engineers or fitters c) Two qualified Engineers 85. Guards fitted to a pulley should: a) Not be free to rotate about the pulley b) Be free to rotate about the pulley c) Be lubricated 86. Excessive backlash in a control system can cause: a) Pilot fatigue b) Control surface flutter c) Porpoising 87. A spring bias in a control system is used to: a) Apply a correcting force in one direction b) Remove backlash file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 15 of 28 c) Adjust the friction 88. The trim tab indicator should read 0° with the tab in the: a) Full down position b) Full up position c) Neutral position 89. When rigging the trim tab system: a) The trim control system is rigged before the main control b) The aircraft must be in the rigging position c) The main control is rigged first 90. The cables used in a trim control system are usually: a) Larger than the main control cables b) Smaller that the main control cables c) The same size as the main control cables 91. Protection in the event of an electric trim actuator seizing is provided by: a) A slipping clutch b) A disconnect switch c) A circuit breaker 92. The stops in a trim system: a) Prevent the pilot overstressing the system b) Limit the amount of travel of the trim tab c) Prevent the tab moving should the cable break 93. Tab aerodynamic loads are prevented from feeding back into the control system: a) By the control system stops b) By the friction damper c) By using a screw type actuator 94. In a typical trim system the actuator is rigged: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 16 of 28 a) Before the cable is tensioned b) After the cable is tensioned c) Last of all 95. In an electrically operated elevator trim system the motor may be controlled by a pilot's switch or: a) By an elevator cable tension sensor b) By an elevator trim cable tension sensor c) By a push-pull type circuit breaker 96. In an electric trim actuator the motor drives the pulley: a) Through a reduction gearbox b) By means of a chain c) Directly 97. In a preselect electric flap system, full up and full down travel is controlled by: a) Travel limit stops b) Microswitches on the actuator c) Microswitches on the follow-up plate 98. A typical electric flap motor is stopped quickly by: a) Earthing both sides of the motor b) An electromechanical brake c) The limit stops 99. In a preselect electric flap system, the follow-up plate is moved: a) Directly by the electric actuator b) By the flap interconnect cables c) By the follow-up cable 100. Asymmetric protection in a flap system is provided: a) To limit the rate of flap extension and retraction b) To indicate to the pilot a failure of the drive mechanism c) To prevent an uncontrollable roll in the event of failure file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 17 of 28 101. The actual flap travel is checked during inspection using: a) A tensiometer b) An inclinometer c) The position indicator 102. In a typical electrical flap system the synchronising tube: a) Maintains the correct relationship between bell crank and drive pulley b) Synchronises left and right flaps c) Aligns the actuator with the drive pulley 103. A screw type actuator is often used in flap systems in order to: a) Prevent flap loads feeding back into the control system b) Damp flap system movements c) Provide an easily reversed system 104. In a preselect electric flap system, flap position is indicated by: a) An electrically operated indicator b) A pointer on the follow-up plate c) A desgin type indicator 105. Post adjustment inspections of any turnbuckle should include: a) Correct specified length b) Security of adjusting nuts c) Safety and locking 106. In accordance with the requirements of BCAR A5-3 the flap system: a) Does not require a duplicate inspection b) Requires a duplicate inspection file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 18 of 28 c) Requires a duplicate inspection if it is power operated 107. In a pneumatic stall warning system, the warning note is produced by: a) A reed b) A whistle c) A plenum chamber 108. The calibration of a pneumatic stall warning system is adjusted by: a) Tuning the reed b) Adjusting the air flow valve c) Moving the adjustable plate 109. In a simple electric stall warning system, the vane: a) Operates a potentiometer b) Operates a micro switch c) Controls a transformer 110. An electric stall warning system is protected against ice by: a) An alcohol de-icer b) An electric heater c) Positioning in a non-icing area 111. The identification of the horn for the landing gear and the horn for the stall warning is achieved by: a) Pulsing the gear warning horn b) Using horns of different notes c) Pulsing the stall warning horn 112. A stick shaker is activated: a) At the actual stall b) If both sensors indicate a stall c) At a predetermined speed above the stall 113. A stick pusher is activated: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 19 of 28 a) At a predetermined speed above the stall b) If both transducers indicate a stall c) If either transducer indicates a stall 114. The stick pusher solenoid valves are controlled by: a) The signal summing units b) The transducers c) The stick shaker relays 115. An automatic pitch trim system provides a signal to: a) Reposition the elevator b) Reposition the elevator trim tab c) Reposition the altitude hold datum 116. The raw data signals are processed in the: a) Servo units b) Controller c) Computer 117. Pitch and roll displacement signals can be derived from: a) A rate gyro b) An attitude gyro c) A horizontal situation indicator 118. A directional gyro is used to provide a signal proportional to: a) Heading displacement b) Heading rate of change c) Roll displacement 119. An altitude displacement signal is provided by a manometric sensor connected to: a) The static system b) The pitot system file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 20 of 28 c) The glide slope receiver 120. Manual control of roll trim may be found on the: a) Attitude gyro b) Mode selector c) Controller 121. A feedback potentiometer provides a signal that: a) Keeps servo output proportional to the input signal b) Prevents too rapid response to the input signal c) Operates a position indicator for the pilot 122. In a typical autopilot for a small aircraft with electric actuators the motor is: a) A.C. reversible b) D.C. reversible c) D.C. non reversible 123. In the heading mode manually rotating the DG card clockwise will make the control wheel move: a) Away from the heading bug b) Anti-clockwise c) Clockwise 124. Slack servo cables will cause an autopilot to: a) Adopt a wing low attitude b) 'Hunt' about a neutral position c) Respond sharply 125. On a power assisted flight control system the feel required is normally supplied by: a) Stretching springs b) 'Q' feel c) No feel is required 126. Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is supplied by: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 21 of 28 a) Nulling of the servo valve b) Air loads on the control surface c) The jack ram being attached to structure 127. 'Q' is a measure of: a) Airspeed b) Airspeed and air density c) Airspeed, air density and control surface area 128. 'Q' feel units use: a) Pitot only b) Pitot and static c) Static only 129. Powered flight control systems are installed in aircraft: a) Because the pilot has too many tasks to perform b) Because at low level air density is high c) Due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft 130. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed: a) Roll will not occur b) Pitch trim is not affected c) No yaw takes place 131. Spoiler panels are controlled by: a) Spoiler panels are controlled by: b) The aileron wheel only c) The aileron wheel and speed brake lever 132. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to: a) Prevent inadvertent operation b) Lock the speed brakes down during flight c) Allow ground speed brakes on touchdown 133. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 22 of 28 brakes: a) To ensure the aircraft is still rolling b) To ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse for spoiler deployment c) To stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped 134. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow? a) Flap b) Slat c) Flap and slat 135. Prevention of flap asymmetry will keep to a minimum: a) Pitch changes b) Roll c) Stalling speed 136. The bypass valve: a) Is an electrically operated hydraulic valve b) Is cable operated by the flap lever c) Ports fluid to the up or down side of the motor 137. Load relief when operated: a) Will retract the flaps to the up position, using the airflow to 'blow' them retracted b) Will operate the flap lever and cable system to retract the flaps c) Uses an electric actuator to rotate the PDU input cam 138. The screw jack gimbal is: a) Spun with the screw jack b) A universal joint which moves along the screw jack c) Used because of the buttress thread 139. The angle of attack at which a stall occurs: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 23 of 28 a) Can be varied by increasing the forward speed b) Can be varied by using flaps and slats c) Cannot be varied, it is always constant 140. A stick shaker: a) Is an eccentric weight on a rotary electric motor b) Is a linear actuator which operates to the elevator system c) Vibrates the elevators to back drive the column 141. A lift transducer is normally fitted: a) To the nose area of the aircraft b) On the elevator control system c) On the wing leading edges 142. The stalling speed of an aircraft: a) Is increased when it is heavier b) Is increased when it is lighter c) Doesn’t change 143. If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system the spoiler panels would: a) Remain where they are b) Go to down if any are not already down c) Go to full up 144. The follow up transducer is fitted to: a) The pilot's input b) The computer or controller c) The hydraulic jack 145. The signal/s used by the auto pilot controller from the gyros is/are the: a) Rate signal b) Deviation signal c) Rate and deviation signal file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 24 of 28 146. The direction of control operation on a constant run servo is done by: a) Stopping or starting the electric motor b) 2 directional clutches c) A gear system 147. The force opposing thrust is: a) Drag b) Lift c) Weight 148. Directional stability is about the: a) Normal axis b) Longitudinal axis c) Lateral axis 149. Longitudinal stability is about the: a) Normal axis b) Longitudinal axis c) Lateral axis 150. Lateral stability is about the: a) Longitudinal axis b) Normal axis c) Vertical axis 151. All the lift can be said to act through the: a) Centre of pressure b) Centre of gravity c) Normal axis 152. Longitudinal stability is provided by the a) Horizontal stabiliser b) Vertical stabiliser c) Mainplanes file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 25 of 28 153. Directional stability is provided by the: a) Horizontal stabiliser b) Vertical stabiliser c) Mainplanes 154. Flutter can be reduced by the use of: a) Mass balance b) Aerodynamic balance c) The inset hinge 155. The pilot's effort to move the flying controls can be assisted by the use of: a) A Westland Irving control surface b) Mass balancing c) An adjustment to the mass balance weights 156. The aerodynamic device that has an adjustable louver is the: a) Inset hinge b) Horn balance c) Westland Irving control surface 157. The control surface which has a rubberised fabric seal between the surfaces that improves efficiency, is the: a) Westland Irving b) Inset hinge c) Horn balanced surface 158. After a repair to a mass balanced control surface the: a) Surface should be aerodynamically tested b) Mass balance weight must be adjusted c) Range of movement should be limited 159. A trim tab is moved by: a) A spring in the linkage file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 26 of 28 b) The pilot's control column or foot pedals c) A trim control in the cockpit 160. Trim tabs may be moved mechanically, or: a) Electrically b) Hydraulically c) By the autopilot 161. A balance tab is moved: a) Electrically b) Via a fixed linkage c) Fom the cockpit 162. An anti-balance tab is moved: a) Via a fixed linkage b) When the C.G, changes c) Hdraulically 163. Servo tabs are connected directly to: a) A spring mechanism b) The pilot's control column or foot pedals c) A ontrol surface by rods 164. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the: a) Ailerons b) Rudder c) Eevator 165. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the: a) Rudder b) Elevator c) Ailerons 166. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the: a) Elevator file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 27 of 28 b) Ailerons c) Rudder 167. Aileron drag causes the aircraft: a) To oppose the turn b) Pitch to increase c) To yaw 168. Rudder vators when moved, will move: a) Together only b) Opposite to each other only c) Either opposite each other or together, depending on selection 169. The stalling of an aerofoil is affected by the: a) Airspeed b) Angle of attack c) Transition speed 170. The main function of a flap is to: a) Lower the stalling speed b) Raise the stalling speed c) Increase the take off speed 171. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is: a) High b) Low c) High or low 172. A droop leading edge increases lift by: a) Reducing airflow over the surface of the wing b) Increasing camber c) Increasing angle of attack 173. A split flap increases lift by increasing: file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025 Airframe Paper I Page 28 of 28 a) The camber of the top surface b) The surface area c) The angle of attack of the lower hinged portion 174. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will: a) Pitch nose down b) Sink c) Pitch nose up 175. ‫ﻣﻊ ﺗﺣﻳﺎﺗﻰ‬ a) ‫ﺗﻘﺑﻝ ﷲ ﻣﻧﺎ ﻭﻣﻧﻛﻡ ﺻﺎﻟﺢ ﺍﻷﻋﻣﺎﻝ‬ b) ‫ﻭﺍﻟﺣﻣﺩ ﺭﺏ ﺍﻟﻌﺎﻟﻣﻳﻥ‬ c) ‫ﺑﺎﻟﺗﻭﻓﻳﻖ ﺇﻥ ﺷﺎء ﷲ‬ Calculate Score Close Quiz Submit Results Back to Top file:///C:/Users/Helmi/AppData/Local/Temp/tac20250115065248145TTEbook/index.html 1/15/2025