LSBU Human Anatomy & Physiology Mock Exam Revision PDF Dec 2024

Academic Year 2024/2025 Module: Human Anatomy & Physiology Mock Exam Revision Module Code: ASC_4_498 Date: December 17th 2024 Student Number: Instructions to Candidates Dear students, The exam has 2 parts, Multiple choice questions, select ONLY one alternative (1 mark...

Academic Year 2024/2025 Module: Human Anatomy & Physiology Mock Exam Revision Module Code: ASC_4_498 Date: December 17th 2024 Student Number: Instructions to Candidates Dear students, The exam has 2 parts, Multiple choice questions, select ONLY one alternative (1 mark each) Short answer questions, matching exercises, fill in the gaps either by a tick or as instructed (marks specified in each question) Please answer all questions Total Marks: 100 Important Notes Calculators: The module coordinator will decide whether calculators are acceptable for use in the examinations for which s/he is responsible and, if they are, which calculators may be used) In the absence of an explicit decision for any particular module, it will be assumed that no calculators may be used) Permitted calculators must be non-programmable and not able to receive or transmit data remotely. Dictionaries: Dictionaries are not permitted in the exam room except as allowed under specific alternative assessment arrangements. Any candidate found using a dictionary in an examination other than as described under the alternative assessment arrangement provision may be the subject of an allegation of academic misconduct. Electronic Devices: Students must switch off mobile phones, smart watches and other devices capable of transmitting and receiving data. Any such items must be placed face down underneath the desk for the duration of the examination. The use of personal stereos or any other items which may distract other candidates is not permitted during the examination. 1  Session Exam Office Ref: Module Human Anatomy & Physiology Module Code ASC_ Date Student Number Instructions to students: The exam is divided in 2 sections. Multiple choice questions (1-80). Please answer all questions with ONLY one option in the answer sheet (below). 1 mark per question Short answer questions (81-85). Mark your answers on the exam paper. Total marks : 100 Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A 1 11 21 31 41 51 61 71 2 12 22 32 42 52 62 72 3 13 23 33 43 53 63 73 4 14 24 34 44 54 64 74 5 15 25 35 45 55 65 75 6 16 26 36 46 56 66 75 7 17 27 37 47 57 67 77 8 18 28 38 48 58 68 78 9 19 29 39 49 59 69 79 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 For marker only 81 82 83 84 85 86 2 Part A. MCQ (1 mark each) 1. Under what condition does oxyhemoglobin readily break down, giving up additional oxygen for tissue use? A) Low pH B) Low oxygen levels C) Actively metabolizing tissues D) All of these are correct 2. Which of the following combinations of donor and recipient blood types would NOT lead to a transfusion reaction? Donor Recipient A) AB B B) O B C) B A D) AB A 3. In the blood clotting system, thrombin triggers the formation of : A) prothrombin B) fibrin C) thrombocytes D) a platelet plug 4. Which of the following statements is true? A) Erythropoietin is a hormone that is released by the kidney to stimulate red blood cell formation. B) Erythropoietin is released by the lungs to stimulate red blood cell formation. C) Erythropoietin is released by the kidney to stimulate red and white blood cell formation. D) Erythropoietin causes the recycling of iron for production of red blood cells. 5. Why are veins often referred to as the capacitance vessels of the cardiovascular system? A) Veins contain valves, which prevent backflow of blood B) Veins have a great ability to stretch C) Veins have very thick endothelial walls D) Veins contain many fenestrations 6. The primary pacemaker of the heart: A) is located in the wall of the right atrium B) is the atrioventricular node C) is situated in the wall of the atrial septum near the AV valves D) passes through the fibrous ring that separates atria and ventricles 7. Which of the following determines the resistance to blood flow? A) The diameter of the blood vessel B) The length of the blood vessel C) The viscosity of the blood D) All of these are correct 3 8. In health, flow along a blood vessel is determined primarily by adjustment of: A) blood vessel length B) blood vessel diameter C) blood viscosity D) blood volume 9. How is the heart muscle supplied with oxygen and nutrients? A) From the blood flowing through the heart chambers B) By the coronary arteries, which branch from the aorta C) By the pulmonary arteries, which also supply the lungs D) From the cardiac arteries, which are more extensive on the left side of the heart than on the right. 10. How does growth hormone (GH) affect metabolism? A) Stimulates protein synthesis B) Increases tissue mass C) Promotes breakdown of fats D) Increases blood glucose levels E) All of these are results of the secretion of GH 11. Which of these hormones acts on the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys, increasing their permeability to water? A) Aldosterone B) Antidiuretic hormone C) Oxytocin D) Calcitonin 12. Cortisol is produced by the: A) pituitary B) thyroid C) parathyroid D) adrenal cortex E) adrenal medulla 13. A primary role of melatonin is to: A) regulate reproductive functions B) regulate the body’s internal clock C) stimulate development of white blood cells D) influence water balance in the body E) trigger the release of pituitary hormones 14. Secretion of which of the following is controlled mainly by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism and blood potassium concentration? A) Aldosterone B) Cortisol C) Adrenal oestrogens D) Adrenaline (norepinephrine) 15. How is lymph pumped throughout the body? 4 A) Contraction of the muscle layer of large lymph vessels B) Contraction of muscles and pulsation of large arteries C) Changes in thoracic pressure associated with the respiratory cycle D) All of these are correct 16. What is NOT a function of the spleen? A) To act as a reservoir for blood B) To remove microorganisms from the blood C) To absorb fats and other nutrients through lacteals D) To destroy platelets and nonfunctional red blood cells 17. Which important constituent of blood is not present in lymph? A) White blood cells B) Red blood cells C) Glucose D) Sodium 18. Which of the following statements about thymosin is true? A) Thymosin is produced by the thyroid gland) B) Thymosin is responsible for maturation of the thymus. C) Thymosin is used to synthesise thyroxine) D) Thymosin levels increase with age 19. At the end of a normal expiration, the amount of air left in the lungs is referred to as the: A) tidal volume B) residual volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) inspiratory reserve volume E) functional residual capacity 20. Chemoreceptors detect an increase of CO2 in the blood. What will happen next? A) No change in rate of breathing B) Rate of breathing decreases C) Rate of breathing increases D) The person will faint 21. How does carbon dioxide affect the pH of the blood? A) Causes a decrease in the acidity in the blood B) Causes an increase in the acidity in the blood C) Decreases hydrogen ion concentration D) Returns pH levels to 7.35 22. Between the squamous cells within the alveolar wall are septal cells that secrete _____, which stops the alveoli from drying out and reduces surface tension. A) serum B) surfactant C) mucus D) serous fluid 5 23. Which of the following is not a function of the larynx? A) Common passageway for food, water and air B) Modulation of speech C) Closing off of the lower respiratory tract by the epiglottis D) Humidification of air being breathed into the lung 24. Peristalsis is: A) a type of muscle contraction B) the term for food that has been liquefied in the stomach C) the lining of the stomach D) the muscle layer of the digestive tract wall E) mucous membrane 25. Most nutrients are absorbed through the wall of the: A) stomach B) colon C) small intestine D) liver E) pancreas 26. Which organ of the digestive system is also a significant organ of the endocrine system? A) Stomach B) Gallbladder C) Pancreas D) Liver E) Small intestine 27. The walls of the alimentary tract are composed of ____ layers of tissue A) two B) three C) four D) five 28. An incision into the wall of the digestive tract would cut, in order, from outside to inside: A) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa B) serosa, submucosa, muscularis, and mucosa C) serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa D) muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, and serosa 29. All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the: ____. A) parotid gland B) mouth C) liver D) pancreas 30. Which of the following organs is lined with stratified squamous epithelium in order to resist abrasion? 6 A) Oesophagus B) Stomach C) Small intestine D) Large intestine 31. The chief cells in the stomach secrete: A) gastrin B) mucus C) intrinsic factor D) digestive enzymes 32. Which of the following is not a function of the stomach? A) Secretion of gastric juices B) Secretion of intrinsic factor C) Production of the hormone gastrin D) Initiating deglutition 33. Which of the following substances is not absorbed by active transport? A) Glucose B) Amino acids C) Dipeptides D) Water 34. The cells in the nervous system that provide protection when they become phagocytic in areas of inflammation are called A) Astrocytes B) Neuron C) Ependymal cell D) Microglia 35. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A) Neurones can replicate after maturity B) Glial cells can replicate after maturity C) Regeneration is only possible in peripheral nerves D) During neurone regeneration, the axon grows distally along a regeneration tube at about 1.5mm per day. 36. Along a neurone, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is: A) dendrite, axon, cell body, and receptor B) dendrite, cell body, and axon C) axon, cell body, and dendrite D) receptor, axon, and cell body 37. The innermost layer of the meninges is the: A) pia mater 7 B) arachnoid mater C) dura mater D) CSF 38. Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves? A) Cervical B) Brachial C) Lumbar D) Thoracic 39. Between stimulus and response, what is the correct flow of signal conduction in a reflex arc? A) Sensory neuron → motor neuron B) Motor neuron → sensory neuron C) Sensory neuron → interneuron → motor neuron D) Motor neuron → interneuron → sensory neuron 40. How many ventricles are there in the brain? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 41. All of the following result from parasympathetic stimulation except: A) contraction of the urinary bladder B) relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract C) increased salivation D) increased heart rate 42. Somatic senses are ‘mapped’ onto the: A) midbrain of the brainstem B) pineal body C) cerebellum D) cerebral cortex 43. Coordination of skilled muscle activity is a major role of the: A) brainstem B) cerebellum C) cerebrum D) spinal cord E) midbrain 44. The osteon or Haversian system:____. A) delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells B) produces yellow marrow C) resists stress D) erodes bone 45. In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: ____. A) osteoclasts 8 B) osteocytes C) osteoblasts D) chondrocytes 46. Which of the following are the most massive of the vertebrae? A) Cervical B) Lumbar C) Thoracic D) Sacral 47. The intervertebral discs are made of which type of cartilage? A) Hyaline B) Dense areolar C) Fibrocartilage D) Elastic 48. What is a fontanelle? A) A bone in the skull B) An unossified area in the infant's skull C) An articulation between two skull bones D) A small opening 49. Which skull bone articulates with the first vertebra? A) Temporal B) Occipital C) Sphenoid D) Ethmoid 50. The upper part of the sternum is called the: ____. A) costal cartilage B) xiphoid process C) body D) manubrium 51. A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: A) elbow B) knee C) head D) ankle 52. The layman’s name for the clavicle is the: A) collar bone B) knee cap C) shin bone D) elbow 53. Opposition is a movement associated with which structure? A) Head 9 B) Lower jaw bone C) Thumb D) Hip 54. The joint between the axis and the atlas permits: A) rotation of the head B) flexion and extension of the head C) abduction and adduction of the head D) pronation of the jaw 55. Which of the following encloses a muscle fascicle? A) Endomysium B) Perimysium C) Epimysium D) Myomysium 56. The plasma membrane of a muscle fibre is called the: A) sarcolemma B) myofibril C) sarcoplasm D) sarcomere 57. Skeletal muscles are innervated by: A) somatic motor neurons B) autonomic motor neurons C) both somatic and autonomic motor neurons D) internal stimulation 58. Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton? A) Rib B) Vertebral column C) Mandible D) Clavicle 59. Fusion of pronuclei occurs during: A) spermatogenesis B) ovulation C) fertilization D) capacitation 60. Cleavage produces daughter cells called: A) trophoblasts B) blastocysts C) morulae D) blastomeres 61. The primary organ of the urinary system is the A) bladder 10 B) kidney C) urethra D) ureter E) renal cortex 62. In the nephron, filtrate that leaves the glomerular capsule then enters the: A) nephron loop B) distal convoluted tubule C) proximal convoluted tubule D) collecting tubule E) glomerulus 63. In urinary tubule selective reabsorption, molecules move from the: A) blood into the tubule B) tubule into the blood C) tubule into the glomerulus D) glomerulus into the tubule 64. Which of these hormones causes the body to secrete excess water? A) ADH B) ANH C) Aldosterone D) A and C E) All the above 65. Substances travel from the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by the process of: A) diffusion B) active transport C) filtration D) osmosis 66. Embryonic/Foetal development are define as weeks after fertilization in the following way A) Week1 to Week8/Week 9 to week40-42 B) Day 1until week8/ weeks 8 to week 30-34 C) Week1 to Week8/Week 9 to week 30-34 D) Week3 to Week8/Week 9 to week40-42 67. Reabsorption, as performed in the kidney, may be defined as the: A) movement of molecules out of the tubule and into the peritubular blood B) movement of molecules out of the peritubular blood and into the tubule for excretion C) movement of water and solutes from the plasma in the glomerulus, across the glomerular- capsular membrane, and into the capsular space of the Bowman's capsule D) volume of plasma from which a substance is removed by the kidney per minute 68. What would happen if the trophoblast did not secrete hCG upon implantation of the blastocyst? A) The cells would not continue to divide 11 B) The corpus luteum would continue to produce progesterone and oestrogen. C) Menses would flush the blastocyst out of the uterus. D) The uterine mucosa would not envelop the blastocyst. 69. The gland that produces a ‘conditioning cream’ for the hair and skin is the _____ gland A) eccrine sweat B) apocrine sweat C) mammary D) ceruminous E) sebaceous 70. The healthy epidermis is formed by: ____. A) a thick layer of stratified columnar epithelium B) several layers of connective tissue C) continuous division of epithelial cells in the basal layer that are pushed upwards D) blood vessels, nerve endings, sebaceous glands and sweat glands 71. Complete regeneration of the epidermis takes about: A) 1 day B) 7 days C) 28 days D) 120 days 72. In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? A) Back of the hand B) Thigh C) Abdomen D) Sole of the foot 73. Which T-cell produces cytokines, and cooperates with B-cells to produce antibodies? A) Cytotoxic T-cells B) Helper T-cells C) Regulatory T-cells D) Memory T-cells 74. Which type of immunity develops in response to the administration of a vaccine? A) Passive naturally acquired immunity B) Passive artificially acquired immunity C) Active artificially acquired immunity D) Active naturally acquired immunity 75. An inflamed area swells because: A) blood supply to the area is diminished B) blood vessels in the region become more permeable C) hydrostatic pressure within vessels falls D) tissue spaces fill up with white blood cells and tissue debris 76. After ovulation, the ovum enters the ________. A) ductus deferens 12  B) uterus C) uterine tube D) cervix E) vagina 77. Which hormone is thought to trigger ovulation? A) FSH B) LH C) ACTH D) Oestrogen E) Prolactin 78. Which of these hormones is responsible for the development of the male secondary sexual characteristics? A) Oestrogen B) Progesterone C) Testosterone D) Oxytocin E) Prolactin 79. By the time the zygote implants itself in the uterine lining it has become a hollow ball of 70-100 cells called a _____. A) trophoblast B) embryo C) fetus D) blastocyst 80. Which tissue forms the middle layer of the wall of the uterine tubes? A) Delicate areolar tissue to protect the ovum B) Fimbriae, to waft the ovum towards the uterus C) Smooth muscle, which contracts rhythmically to push the ovum along D) Ciliated epithelium, for propulsion of the ovum Part B. Matching exercises, fill the gaps and short answer questions. 81. Enter a tick in the appropriate column to indicate whether the following statements apply to vasoconstriction or vasodilation (3.5 marks) Statement Vasoconstriction Vasodilation 0.5 marks each Smooth muscle in blood vessel wall is relaxed. Lumen of blood vessel is reduced. Decreased resistance to blood flow. 13 Usually caused by sympathetic stimulation. Volume of blood flow is reduced. Blood vessel wall thickens. Reduces the pressure at which blood is flowing. 82. Fill in the gaps (3.5 marks). The walls of arteries consist of three layers: the _______ (innermost), the _______ (middle), and the _______ (outermost). 83. Enter a tick in the appropriate column to indicate whether the following statements are true or false (3 marks) Statements True False Markin(0.5 mark each) Helper T-cells produce cytokines. Cytotoxic T-cells attack any antigen they find. Regulatory T-cells suppress the inflammatory response. T-cells require to be presented with their antigen by a macrophage, for example. T-cells provide cell-mediated immunity. B-cells do not produce memory cells. 84. Label the following diagram of the female reproductive system (5 marks) 1 mark each 85. Indicate by a tick(true or false) in the table below the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland(3 marks) 0.5 marks for each Anterior pituitary True False hormones ADH 14 Oxytocin Growth hormone Prolactin Follicle stimulating hormone Adrenocorticotropic hormone 86. Indicate by a tick(true or false) the parameters for urinalysis (5 marks). Parameter/component True False Antidiuretic hormone Renin Erythropoietin Carbon dioxide Antidiuretic hormone Glucose Ph Specific Gravity Protein Red blood cells Albumin 15