CP EOC PDF Past Paper - July 2022

PEA SES PEA and SFS Commercial Ground School Started on Friday, 22 July 2022, 5:10 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, 22 July 2022, 6:49 PM Time taken 1 hour 38 mins Grade 90.0 out of 100.0 Question 1 An...

PEA SES PEA and SFS Commercial Ground School Started on Friday, 22 July 2022, 5:10 PM State Finished Completed on Friday, 22 July 2022, 6:49 PM Time taken 1 hour 38 mins Grade 90.0 out of 100.0 Question 1 An abnormal high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 the oil level being too low ! Flag question operating with an excessively rich mixture a defective bearing Question 2 How should the pilot make VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the aircraft is located on the designated Correct checkpoint on the airport surface? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4 deg of that radial with a FROM question indication. ! Set the OBS on 180 deg plus or minus 4 deg; the CDI should center with a FROM indication With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000deg, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4 deg of that radial with a TO indication. Question 3 Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn. Flag question loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force. loss of the vertical component of lift. ! Question 4 An airplane leaving ground effect will Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust. ! Flag question require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift co-efficient. experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction. Question 5 While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 10o doubles in 5 minutes. If the true airspeed is 105 knots, Incorrect the time and distance to the station being used is approximately Mark 0.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Remove flag 10 minutes and 17 miles. " 5 minutes and 8.7 miles. 15 minutes and 31.2 miles. Question 6 When should pilots decline a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 If runway surface is contaminated. Flag question Only when the tower controller concurs. When it will compromise safety. ! Question 7 SIGMET's are issued as a warming of weather conditions which are hazardous Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 particularly to heavy aircraft. Flag question particularly to light airplanes. to all aircraft. ! Question 8 GIVEN: Correct Temperature 85oF Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Pressure altitude 6,000 ft. Flag Weight 2,800 lbs question Headwind 14 kts Determine the approximate ground roll. Select one: 742 feet. ! 1,480 feet. 1,280 feet. Question 9 The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 unstable, moist air. Flag question unstable, dry air. stable, moist air. ! Question 10 Which of the following is the final step of the DECIDE model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Correct Making? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag Evaluate. ! question Estimate. Eliminate. Question 11 When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents Correct will usually be encountered on the Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag windward side when flying into the wind. question leeward side when flying into the wind. ! leeward side when flying with a tailwind. Question 12 When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Within 10 days. Flag question Immediately. ! Within 30 days. Question 13 Inbound on the 040 radial, a pilot selects the 055 radial, turns 15o to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a Correct constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 15 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE to the Mark 1.0 out of station is 1.0 Flag Select one: question 8 minutes 30 minutes 15 minutes ! Question 14 Correct Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Flag question At the position indicated by instrument group 1, what would be the relative bearing if the aircraft were turned to magnetic heading of 090 deg? Select one: 250 deg ! 150 deg 190 deg Question 15 Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper. Flag question pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper. ! bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper Question 16 What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic Correct instruments? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure. ! question It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators. It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators. Question 17 True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 non-standard temperature. Flag question altitude and non-standard temperature. ! installation or instrument error. Question 18 Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Freezing Level Chart. Flag question 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart. ! Weather Depiction Chart. Your answer is correct. Question 19 The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air. Flag question decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density. decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density. ! Question 20 Given: Correct Total weight....................... 3,037 lbs Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 CG location........................ Station 68.8 Flag Fuel consumption................. 12.7 gal/hr question Fuel CG............................ Station 68.0 After 1 hour 45 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station Select one: 68.83 ! 68.77 69.77 Question 21 Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the Incorrect Mark 0.0 out of Select one: 1.0 flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used. " Flag question flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used. visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly visible to the pilot. Question 22 When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what Correct minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 nm. question Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1sm. ! 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1sm. Question 23 Given: Correct Wingtip bearing change 15o Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Elapsed time between bearing change 7.5 min. Flag True airspeed 85 kts question Rate of fuel consumption 9.6 gal/hr The time, distance and fuel required to fly to the station is Select one: 30 minutes; 42.5 miles; 4.8 gallons ! 48 minutes; 48 miles; 4.58 gallons. 32 minutes; 48 miles; 5.58 gallons. Question 24 Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over Incorrect water Mark 0.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag more than 50 statute miles shore. question in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore. " beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. Question 25 During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. ! Flag question no change in airspeed, but ground speed will decrease. a gain in airspeed equal to decrease in wind velocity. Question 26 What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag. Flag question Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift. ! Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag. Question 27 The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft is know as Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 load factor and directly affects stall speed. ! Flag question load factor and has no relation with stall speed. aspect load and directly affects stall speed. Question 28 Weather Advisory Broadcasts, including Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWWW), Convective SIGMET's and SIGMET's Correct are provided by Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag ARTCC's on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the question airspace under their jurisdiction. ! selected low-frequency and/or VOR navigational aids. AFSS's on 122.2 MHz and adjacent VORs, when any part of the area described is within 200 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction. Question 29 When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above ____ inches of Correct mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs. Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag 32.00 question 30.50 31.00 ! Question 30 If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest Correct time passengers should be carried is Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag 1800 CST question 1900 CST 1959 CST ! Question 31 The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one Correct continuous layer, what is the thickness of the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 7,500 feet MSL). Mark 1.0 out of METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC005 13/11 A2998 1.0 Flag Select one: question 3,500 feet ! 2,500 feet 4,000 feet Question 32 A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of a complete engine after becoming airborne on takeoff is Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 turning back to the takeoff field. Flag question maintaining a safe airspeed. ! landing directly into the wind. Question 33 Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal. Flag question These forces are equal. ! Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight. Question 34 Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgement can be effectively counteracted by Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. Flag question early recognition of hazardous thoughts. redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. ! Question 35 Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 pilot in command of that aircraft. Flag question owner or operator of that aircraft. ! pilot in command and the FAA certified mechanic assigned to that aircraft. Question 36 From which of the following can the observed temperature, wind and temperature/dew point spread be determined at a Incorrect specific altitude? Mark 0.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag Winds Aloft Forecast. " question Stability Chart. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts. Question 37 To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 215 deg and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. Flag question 215 deg and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. 035 deg and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. ! Question 38 As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 increases and the horizontal component of lift increases. Flag question decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains the same. decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases. ! Question 39 With a TAS of 115 knots, the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090o to 095o in 1.5 minutes of elapsed time. The Correct distance to the station would be Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag 34.5 NM. ! question 24.5 NM. 12.5 NM. Question 40 Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm. ! Flag question Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of no hail aloft. Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in the clouds. Question 41 When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can Correct expect what type of weather? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area. question Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. ! Question 42 If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60 deg banked turn, the load factor will Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 remain the same but the radius of turn will increase. ! Flag question increase as well as the stall speed. decrease and the stall speed will increase. Question 43 From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Atmospheric pressure. Flag question The ambient lapse rate. ! The dry adiabatic lapse rate. Question 44 How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. Flag question There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. ! The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. Question 45 Using chart provided and the following conditions Correct Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Flag question Location.................... Madera Airport (MAE) Altitude..................... 1,000 ft AGL Position..................... 7 NM north of Madera (MAE) Time........................ 3 p.m. local Flight visibility............ 1 SM You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You Select one: are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace and may continue for landing. ! may descend to 800 feet AGL (pattern altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport. are in violation of the CFR's; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR. Question 46 While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. ! Flag question decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. Question 47 For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 the circulation of lubricating oil. ! Flag question the proper Freon/compressor output ratio. a properly functioning cowl flap augmenter. Question 48 If an airplane is consuming 9.5 gallons of fuel per hour at cruising altitude of 6,000 feet and the ground speed is 135 Correct knots, how much fuel is required to travel 490 NM? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag 27 gallons question 30 gallons 35 gallons ! Question 49 One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 below rotor clouds ! Flag question below lenticular clouds above rotor clouds Question 50 If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 can not be started with the switch in the BOTH position. Flag question could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder. ! will not operate on one magneto. Question 51 Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no Correct interruption, this Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong. question should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF postion. ! is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-off. Question 52 The ADF is tuned to non-directional radio beacon and the relative bearing changes from 085o to 090o in 2 minutes Incorrect elapsed time. The time en route to the station would be Mark 0.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Remove flag 18 minutes. 15 minutes. " 24 minutes. Question 53 Regulations which refer to the "operational control" of a flight are in relation to Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 the specific duties of any required crew member. Flag question acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft's controls. exercising authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight. ! Question 54 What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Surface friction. Flag question Coriolis force. ! Pressure gradient force. Question 55 If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternative airport on your IFR flight plane, you should Correct plane to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternative airport, Mark 1.0 out of and fly thereafter for 1.0 Flag Select one: question 30 minutes at slow cruising speed. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. ! 1 hour at normal cruising speed. Question 56 The remarks section of the Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) contains the following coded information. What Correct does it mean? Mark 1.0 out of RMK FZDZB42 WSHFT 30 FROPA 1.0 Flag Select one: question Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage. ! Freezing drizzle with cloud bases below 4,200 feet. Freezing drizzle below 4,200 feet and wind shear. Question 57 An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface. Flag question higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface. ! negative air pressure below and vacuum above the wing's surface. Question 58 The CG of an aircraft may be determined by Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 multiplying total weight by total weight moments. Flag question dividing total arms by total moments. dividing total moments by total weight. ! Question 59 Applying carburetor heat will Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 lean the fuel/air mixture. Flag question enrich the fuel/air mixture. ! not affect the mixture. Question 60 When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Stay well below its final approach flight path and land at least 2,000 feet behind. Flag question Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path. Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown. ! Question 61 The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependant upon the Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 stability of the air being lifted. ! Flag question temperature of the air being lifted. source of lift. Question 62 For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight Correct plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 sm. question ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach and landing under basic VFR. ! ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 sm. Question 63 In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog and steam fog differ in their formation or location? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is the most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms Flag over a water surface. ! question Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiation cooling of the ground. Advection fog deepens as wind speed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation. Question 64 Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. Flag question Judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. ! An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. Question 65 Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 which requires repairs to landing gear. Flag question which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics ! to an engine caused by engine failure in flight. Question 66 What is a characteristic of stable air? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Fair weather cumulus clouds. Flag question Stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation. Stratiform clouds. ! Question 67 Which is true regarding the use of an Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures Flag question To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure ! To use a DP, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard departure. Question 68 Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus Correct clouds? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag Wind 15 knots or stronger. ! question Night time cooling. Surface radiation. Question 69 If an airplane is consuming 9.5 gallons of fuel per hour at cruising altitude of 6,000 feet and the ground speed is 135 Correct knots, how much fuel is required to travel 490 NM? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag 30 gallons question 27 gallons 35 gallons ! Question 70 If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show Correct that it was test flown approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag with passengers aboard. ! question for compensation or hire. under VFR or IFR rules. Question 71 14 CFR part 1 defines VNE as Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 never-exceed speed. ! Flag question maximum landing gear extension speed. maximum nose wheel extend speed. Question 72 Which information section is contained in the Aviation Area Forecast (FA)? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Winds aloft, speed and direction. Flag question VFR clouds and weather. ! In-Flight Aviation Weather Advisories. Question 73 Virga is best described as Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground. Flag question streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. ! turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds. Question 74 When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL. Flag question make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. ! fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL. Question 75 Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all Incorrect Mark 0.0 out of Select one: 1.0 upward forces are less than the sum of all downward forces. " Flag question forward forces are equal to the sum of all rearward forces. rearward forces are greater than the sum of all forward forces. Question 76 Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude. ! Flag question Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed. Change power settings as necessary to maintain constant airspeed. Question 77 During flight a fire, which was extinguished, burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by Incorrect regulations? Mark 0.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag No notification or report required. " question An immediately notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office. A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours. Question 78 Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 a warm front is about to pass. ! Flag question there are thunderstorms in the area. a warm front has passed. Question 79 When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Any flight conducted for compensation or hire. Flag question Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. ! IFR flights only. Question 80 A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give Correct way? Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give away; the other airplane is to the left. question The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right. ! Each pilot should alter course to the right. Question 81 An aircraft is loaded with a ramp weight of 3,650 pounds and having a CG of 94.0, approximately how much baggage Correct would have to be moved from the rear baggage area at station 180 to the forward baggage area at station 40 in order to Mark 1.0 out of move the CG to 92.0? 1.0 Flag Select one: question 62.24 pounds. 78.14 pounds. 52.14 pounds. ! Question 82 Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 decision making process which relies on good judgements to reduce risks associated with each flight. Flag question mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. ! Question 83 Detonation may occur at high-power settings when Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder. Flag question an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power. the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly. ! Question 84 For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 large angle of attack and high RPM Flag question large angle of attack and low RPM small angle of attack and high RPM ! Question 85 A common location of clear air turbulence is Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 in an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream. ! Flag question south of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage. near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow. Question 86 To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack. Flag question a higher true airspeed for any give angle of attack. ! the same true airspeed regardless of the angle of attack. Question 87 Fuel quantity................. 47 gal. Correct Power-cruise lean........... 55 percent Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Approximately how much flight time would be available with a night VFR fuel reserve remaining? Flag question Select one: 3 hours 43 minutes 3 hours 8 minutes 3 hours 22 minutes ! Question 88 Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Radar Summary Chart. Flag question Weather Depiction Chart. ! Surface Weather Map. Question 89 Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm. Incorrect Mark 0.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm. Flag question The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm. " Question 90 At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased. Flag question fouling of spark plugs. ! engine to overheat. Question 91 A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes. Flag question receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix. ! maneuvering at minimum safe altitude. Question 92 If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 centerline of the nose or tail wheel, depending on the type. Flag question nose, or out in front of the airplane. ! centerline of the main wheels. Question 93 The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is Correct Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Flag question Select one: 1,200 feet AGL. 700 feet AGL. ! 1,200 feet MSL. Question 94 Inbound on the 090 radial, a pilot rotates the OBS 010o to the right, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant Incorrect heading, the pilot determines that the elapsed time for the CDI to center is 8 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE Mark 0.0 out of to the station is 1.0 Remove flag Select one: 24 minutes 16 minutes " 8 minutes Question 95 Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are trying to Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. Flag question promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. complete a flight as planeed, please passengers, meet schedules and demonstrate the "right stuff." ! Question 96 The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail and tornadoes are generally associated with Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 squall lines ! Flag question slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause. fast-moving occluded fronts. Question 97 Which is true regarding squall lines? Correct Mark 1.0 out of Select one: 1.0 They are associated with frontal systems only. Flag question They form slowly, but move rapidly. They offer the most intense weather to aircraft. ! Question 98 When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the Correct preceding Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag 30 days or 30 hours of flight time. question 30 days. ! 10 days or 10 hours of flight time. Question 99 The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040o and the relative bearing is 290o, the magnetic Correct bearing TO that radiobeacon would be Mark 1.0 out of 1.0 Select one: Flag 150 deg question 285 deg 330 deg ! Question 100 What does good cockpit stress management begin with? Incorrect Mark 0.0 out of Select one: 1.0 Knowing what causes stress. " Flag question Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues. Good life stress management. Finish review Quiz navigation 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 Show one page at a time Finish review Manage