5th Year FIU Tests - Infectious Diseases (English) PDF

Кафедра инфекционных болезней с курсом детских инфекций Сборник тестов для студентов факультета иностранных учащихся с английским языком обучения ПО ИНФЕКЦИОННЫМ БОЛЕЗНЯМ, ИНФЕКЦИОННЫМ БОЛЕЗНЯМ У ДЕ...

Кафедра инфекционных болезней с курсом детских инфекций Сборник тестов для студентов факультета иностранных учащихся с английским языком обучения ПО ИНФЕКЦИОННЫМ БОЛЕЗНЯМ, ИНФЕКЦИОННЫМ БОЛЕЗНЯМ У ДЕТЕЙ, ЭПИДЕМИОЛОГИИ УДК 616.9-053.2 (075.8) – инфекционные болезни, инфекционные болезни у детей УДК 616.9-022.363.8-084(076.1) – эпидемиология Авторы-составители: профессор В.М. Цыркунов, профессор В.С. Васильев, доцент М.И. Богуцкий, доцент Ю.В.Кравчук, ассистент О.С. Волосач, А.С. Литвинов Рецензент: Заведующий кафедрой госпитальной терапии, доктор медицинских наук В.М. Пырочкин. Department of infectious diseases with a rate of children's infections The collection of the tests For the students of faculty of the foreign pupils With the English language of training Infectious diseases Сhildren's infections Epidemiology Authors - composers: professor V.M. Tsyrkunov, professor М.S. Vasil’ev, senior lecturer M.I. Bogucki, senior lecturer Y.V. Kravchuk, assistant О.S. Volosach, A.S. Litvinov  QUESTIONS OF TEST ON INFECTIOUS DISEASES 1. Analyse the following definition: «complex of the protective and pathological reactions arising in reply to infiltration of the microorganism in certain environmental conditions». This is: a) Infection; b) Inflammation; c) Infectious process; d) Pathological process; e) Infectious disease; f) Epidemic process. 2. Infectious diseases in antiquity were called: a) Contagious; b) Dangerous; c) Infectious; d) Epidemics; e) Deadly. 3. What is the general number of officially registered infectious diseases: a) From above 10; b) From above 100; c) Over a thousand; d) Over one million. 4. Infectious disease is: a) An extreme degree of development of infectious process; b) Presence of clinical symptomatology; c) Presence of pathomorphological substratum; d) Dynamics of specific antibodies; e) All listed above. 5. Infectious disease is the interaction between: a) Microorganism and macroorganism; b) Microorganism, macroorganism and environment; c) Macroorganism and environment. 6. The subclinical form - is an infection: a) Especially dangerous; b) Early; c) Illegible; d) Typical; e) Inapparant. 7. Innapparant form - is an infection: a) With clinic, without immune response; b) Transitory carriage; c) Without clinic, with immune response; d) Slow one. 8. Transitory carriage is: a) Convalescent; b) Chronic; c) "Healthy"; d) Lifelong. 9. What criteria allow to consider some infectious deaseses as dangerous: a) Ethiological, epidemiological; b) Epidemiological, clinical; c) Immunological, clinical; 2  d) Clinical, diagnostical. 10. The causitive agent of prion pathologies is: a) Fats; b) Proteins; c) Carbohydrates; d) Viruses; e) Bacteria; f) Chlamidias. 11. What criteria the infectious patient is characterized by: a) Pathogenetic, therapeutical, diagnostical, prophylactic; b) Ethiologacal, epidemiological, clinical, immunological; c) Infectious, complex, individual, contemporary. 12. Pathogenity - it is a potential ability of microorganisms to cause: a) Epidemic process; b) Infectious process; c) Inflammatory process; d) Oncological process. 13. Presence of Vi-antigen in microorganism indicates about: a) Antigenity; b) Contagiosity; c) Virulence; d) Immunogenity; e) Toxicity. 14. Infecting dose influences on: a) Prodrome duration; b) Terms of recover; c) Terms of incubation; d) Terms of hospitalisation; e) Terms of prophylactic clinical examination. 15. The ethiological criterion means, that: a) The infectious patient can be a source of infection; b) The concrete agent is the reason of infectious disease; c) In an organism there is the immune response to the concrete agent. 16. The epidemiological criterion means, that: a) The concrete agent is the reason of infectious disease; b) The infectious patient can be a source of infection; c) In an organism there is the immune response to the concrete agent. 17. The immunological criterion means, that: a) The infectious patient can be a source of infection; b) In an organism there is the immune response to the concrete agent; c) The concrete agent is the reason of infectious disease. 18. Toxigenity is an ability of microorganisms to produse: a) Antibodies, immunoglobulins; b) Hialuronidase, collagenase; c) Hemolysins, streptolysins. 19. Antigen mimicry – it is: a) Ability of a microorganism to get human’s macrophages; b) Ability of a microorganism to get human’s antibodies; c) Ability of a microorganism to get human’s antigens; 3  d) Ability of a microorganism to get human’s endotoxins. 20. Gates of the infection – it is: a) Place of the agent’s invasion; b) Place of the agent’s excretion; c) Place of the agent’s localisation. 21. Specify, what of the listed symptoms is not characteristic for an initial stage of a typhoid fever: a) Fever; b) Pain in a stomach; c) Weakness; d) Headache. 22. Define, which complication is specific one typhoid fever: a) Myocarditis; b) Otitis; c) Intestinal bleeding; d) Pyelonephritis; e) Cholecystitis; f) Parotitis. 23. Define the source of infection for typhoid fever: a) Sick person; b) Birds; c) Pets; d) Rodents. 24. Specify, which of the listed symptoms is characteristic for typhoid fever: a) Rapid onset of the disease; b) Pain in eyeballs; c) Burning behind the chest; d) Skin rose spots from about 8th-10th days of illness; e) Disposition to sweat. 25. Specify the mechanism of a transmission of typhoid fever infection: a) Fecal-oral; b) Air-drop; c) Transmissive; d) With blood transfusion; e) Vertical. 26. Which of the listed temperature curves is characteristic for typhoid fever: a) Febris remittens; b) Febris intermittens; c) By Kildjushevsky; d) Febris gectica. 27. What type of rash is characteristic for typhoid fever: a) Hemorrhagic; b) Rose spots; c) Papular; d) Petechias; e) Maculo-papular. 28. The causative agent of typhoid fever concerns to the following group of microorganisms: a) Viruses; b) Bacteria; c) Pathogenic fungi; d) Rickettsias; e) Spirochetes. 4 29. What changes in the general blood test are typical for typhoid fever: a) Leucocytosis; b) Leucopenia; c) Leucocytosis with neutrophilic shift to the left; d) Leucopenia with aneosinophilia. 30. List types of pathogenetic therapy of typhoid fever: a) Rehydration; b) Dehydration; c) Desintoxication; d) Immunomodulation. 31. What laboratory test should be used for diagnostics of typhoid fever: a) Bacteriological; b) Biological; c) Virologic; d) Cytologic. 32. What drug from the listed below is used for etiotropic therapy of typhoid fever patients: a) Haemodesis; b) Chloramphenicol; c) Polyglucin; d) Polymyxin. 33. Specify, which toxin from the listed below incraeses secretion of liquid and salts into the intestinal lumen: a) Endotoxin; b) Cytotoxin; c) Enterotoxin; d) Neurotoxin. 34. Specify, which toxin from the listed below causes intoxication symptoms: a) Endotoxin; b) Cytotoxin; c) Enterotoxin. 35. Specify, which toxin from the listed below damages epithelial cells: a) Endotoxin; b) Cytotoxin; c) Enterotoxin; d) Neurotoxin. 36. Specify what way of transmission is common for Grigoriev-Shiga dysentery: a) With water; b) Contact; c) With food. 37. Specify, what way of transmission is common for Sonne dysentery: a) With water; b) Contact; c) With food. 38. Specify, what way of transmission is common for Flexner dysentery: a) With water; b) Contact; c) With food. 39. Specify, what sign from the listed below is the basic one for diagnostics of shigellosis: a) Stool of “rectum spit” type; 5  b) Stool of "marsh ooze” type; c) Stool of "rice-water” type; d) Stool of "raspberry jelly” type. 40. Name what drugs from the listed below are used in dysentery treatment: a) Erythromycin; b) Penicillin; c) Ciprofloxacin. 41. Specify, what symptoms are characteristic for enteritis: a) Paraumbilical pain; b) Pain in the left iliac area; c) Thenesmas; d) False feeling of defecation. 42. Specify, what symptoms are characteristic for enterocolitis: a) Epigastric pains; b) Abdominal pain of spasmatic character; c) Vomiting by the eaten food; d) Epigastric pain of encircling character. 43. What are the conditions necessary for occurrence of food poisoning caused by conditionaly pathogenic flora: a) Considerable quantity of the agent; b) Contact with the patient suffering of food-poisoning; c) Organism sensibilisation to the agent; d) Attenuation of organism defense mechanisms. 44. Ways of transmission of food poisoning infection: a) Contact; b) With water; c) With food; d) Any of them. 45. Food poisoning can be caused by: a) Staphilococci; b) Proteus; c) Spor-forming anaerobic bacilli (Clostridia); d) Any of them. 46. Food poisoning is caused by bacteria: a) Enterotoxigenic; b) Enteroinvasive; c) Enteropathogenic; d) Any of them. 47. For treatment of food poisoning it is not recommended: a) Prescription of antibiotics; b) Stomach lavage; c) Infusion of electrolyte and glucose- electrolyte solutions. 48. Food poisoning diagnosis statement is possible: a) Only if bacteriologically prooved; b) Only if the causative agent is isolated from foodstuff; c) Using clinical and epidemiological data; d) Using any of the listed criteria. 49. For differential diagnosis of food poisonig and cholera matters: a) Temperature reaction and other symptoms of acute intoxication; 6  b) Abdominal pain syndrome; c) Epidemiological anamnesis; d) All listed above. 50. The solutions preferable for oral desintoxication and rehydration in food poisoning: a) glucose- electrolyte solutions; b) Ringer’s solution; c) 5-10 % glucose solution. 51. For rehydration and desintoxication in food poisoning it is better to use: a) Electrolyte cristalloids; b) Natural colloids; c) Glucose solutions; d) Dextranes. 52. Mechanisms of diarrhea in food poisoning: a) Desorders of waterabsorbtion in the intestine; b) Increased osmotic pressure in the intestine; c) Activation of adenilatecyclase of the enterocytes. 53. The reasons of dehydration in food poisoning: a) Fever; b) Vomiting; c) Dispnoea, sweating. 54. The sources of salmonella infections can be: a) Sick person; b) Carrier; c) Sick pets; d) Animals-carriers; e) Birds; f) All listed above. 55. What way of transmission is impossible in salmonella infection: a) Contact; b) Air-dust; c) With food; d) With water; e) Transmissive. 56. The most common clinical form of salmonellosis is: a) Gastroenteritis; b) Typhoid-like; c) Septic; d) Subclinical. 57. The most common clinical syndrome of gastrointestinal form of salmonellosis is: a) Gastritis; b) Gastroenteritis; c) Gastroenterocolitis; d) Colitis; e) Terminal ileitis syndrome. 58. What stool is not characteristic for salmonellosis: a) Watery, plentiful; b) Liquid, keeping feces character; c) Fetid; d) Without feces smell; e) Dark green colour. 59. For gastrointestinal forms of salmonella infections are characteristic: fever, signs of GIT damage, 7  tachycardia, dehydration is possible: a) The statement is true; b) The statement is false. 60. For typhoid-like form of salmonellosis everything listed below is characteristic, except: a) Pallor of skin; b) Excitation; c) Stupor; d) Prolonged fever; e) Rash; f) Liver and spleen enlargement. 61. What complication is not characteristic for salmonellosis: a) Collapse; b) Hypovolemic shock; c) Acute kidney insufficiency; d) Intestine perforation; e) Pneumonia; f) Acute liver insufficiency. 62. What laboratory test is not used in salmonellosis diagnostics: a) Bacterioscopy; b) Bacteriological; c) Serological; d) Immunofluorescent. 63. As the material for bacteriological test in salmonellosis could be: a) Blood; b) Urine; c) Feces; d) Emetic masses; e) Stomach lavage masses; f) All listed. 64. What are the optimal terms of taking blood samples for serological test from patients with salmonellosis: a) 1st-3rd day; b) 4th-5th day; c) 6th-7th day. 65. What form of salmonella infection is not treated with antibiotics: a) Gastrointestinal (light severity); b) Typhoid-like; c) Septic. 66. What antibiotic is not used in salmonellosis treatment: a) Chloramphenicol; b) Penicillin; c) Ampicillin; d) Gentamycin. 67. What antibiotic from the listed below is the most effective in salmonellosis: a) Penicillin; b) Chloramphenicol; c) Doxycycline; d) Ciprofloxacin; e) Ampiox. 68. What symptoms are characteristic for salmonellosis: 8  a) Fever; b) Pains in stomach; c) Nausea; d) Fetid stool, green colour; e) All listed; f) No one of the listed. 69. Which form of salmonellosis is the localised one: a) Typhoid-like; b) Gastroenterocolitis; c) Nosocomial; d) Nasopharingitis. 70. What clinical form the intrahospital salmonellosis is presented by: a) Gastrointestinal; b) Typhoid-like c) Nosocomial; d) Carriage. 71. The modern cholera is caused by vibrio’s biovar: a) Classical; b) El-tor; c) NAG-vibrios; d) Any. 72. El-tor vibrios differ from classical by: a) Increased virulence; b) Ability to agglutinate O-serum; c) Increased stability in the environment; d) Increased toxigenity. 73. Reproduction of cholera vibrio is promoted by following type of environment: a) Acidic; b) Alkaline; c) Neutral; d) Does not matter. 74. Cholera spreades through: a) Objects of daily use; b) Only through water; c) Only through food; d) Water and food. 75. For a modern cholera it is characteristic the following type of distribution: a) Epidemic; b) Pandemic; c) Sporadic; d) It is not registered. 76. The reason of diarrhoea in cholera: a) Inflammation of intestine mucous layer; b) Influence of endotoxin on intestine wall; c) Influence of exotoxin on intestine wall; d) All these factors. 77. The mechanism of diarrhoea in cholera: a) Disorders of waters absorbtion in the intestine; b) Increased osmotic pressure in the intestine; c) Activation of enterocytes’s adenilatecyclase. 9 78. Diarrhoea in cholera is: a) Invasive; b) Osmotic; c) Secretional; d) Combined. 79. Cholera vibrio parasitizes and multiplies: a) In blood vesselsl; b) In bile ducts; c) In undermucous layer of the intestine; d) In the lumen of small intestine. 80. How many degrees of dehydration is there in adults: a) Two; b) Three; c) Four; d) Five. 81. Amount of weight loss at 3rd degree dehydration in adults: a) 4-6 %; b) 7-9 %; c) More than 10 %; d) 1-3 %. 82. The reasons for dehydration in cholera: a) Fever; b) Diarrhoeia; c) Sweating; d) Dispnoea. 83. Amount of weight loss at 2nd degree of dehydration in adults: a) 1-2 %; b) 3 %; c) 4-6 %; d) More than 6 %. 84. Amount of weight loss at 1st degree of dehydration in adults: a) 1 % – 3 %; b) 4 % – 6 %; c) 7 % – 9 %; d) More than 9 %. 85. Indications for intravenous rehydration in cholera: a) Age; b) Heart failure; c) Dehydration. 86. While providing rehydration therapy in cholera patients it is more important to go by: a) The character of dehydration (iso-, hypo-, hypertonic); b) The degree of dehydration. 87. The most valuable criterion of dehydration in cholera is: a) Sodium level in plasma; b) Potassium level in plasma; c) Hematocrit level. 88. For rehydration in cholera patients following solutions are indicated: a) Electrolyte solutions; b) Natural colloids; c) Glucose solutions; d) Dextranes. 10 89. Clinical indicators of rehydration efficiency in cholera: a) Normalisation of blood temperature; b) Increase of diuresis; c) Headache relief. 90. For differentiation of food poisoning and cholera matters: a) Temperature reaction and other symptoms of intoxication; b) Abdominal pain syndrome; c) Epidemiological anamnesis; d) All listed. 91. Initial symptoms of cholera: a) Rise of body temperature, pain in a stomach; b) Rise of body temperature, vomiting; c) Headache, fever, diarrhoeia; d) Absence of intoxication, diarrhoea. 92. Characteristic stool for cholera: a) Poor, mucous; b) Plentiful, watery; c) "Meat slops" type; d) Any of them. 93. For cholera there are characteristic: a) Acute pain in whole abdomen; b) Spasmatic pain in lower abdomen; c) Dull pain in perineum; d) Absence of pain. 94. Following conditions are the most dangerous for patient’s life in cholera: a) Intoxication; b) Heart failure; c) Dehydration. 95. This is most dangerous in cholera: a) Hypersodiumemia; b) Hyperpotassiumemia; c) Hyposodiumemia; d) Hypopotassiumemia. 96. Abdominal pain in intestinal amebiasis is mainly localised in: a) Epigastric area; b) Umbilical area; c) Left iliac area; d) Right iliac area. 97. Laboratory test for intestinal amebiasis diagnostic is: a) Bacteriological test of bile; b) Bacteriological test of urine; c) Microscopy of feces; d) Bile microscopy. 98. Crucial importance in diagnostics of intestinal amebiasis has detection in feces: a) Tissue form of Entamoeba (trophozoit); b) Lumen form; c) Before-cyst form; d) Cyst; e) Any of the listed forms. 11 99. For development of botulism it is necessary the presence in an organism: a) Clostridia spors; b) Vegetative forms; c) Exotoxin; d) All listed. 100. Specify the correct sequence of development of syndromes in botulism: a) Gastrointestinal, general intoxication, paralytic; b) General intoxication, paralytic, gastrointestinal; c) General intoxication, gastrointestinal, paralytic. 101. Signs of severe botulism: a) Repeated vomiting; b) Obstipation; c) Breathing disorders. 102. Characteristic for botulism vision disorders: a) Midriasis; b) Ptosis; c) Diplopia; d) All listed. 103. The most significant and commonly used diagnostical method for botulism: a) Agent isolation; b) General blood test; c) Biological test; d) Allergic test. 104. Types of sera used for treatment of botulism in Belarus: a) A, B, C; b) B, C, D; c) A, B, E; d) A, C, E; e) A, D, E. 105. One time treatment dose of contrabotulinic sera A, B and E, accordingly: a) 20, 10 and 10 thousand МЕ; b) 10, 5 and 10 thousand МЕ; c) 10, 20 and 10 thousand МЕ; d) Voluntary. 106. Botulism is transmitted: a) From person to person; b) From animal to person at direct contact; c) Through use of milk from the infected animal; d) By all specified ways it is not transmitted. 107. What agent causes so called "vegetable" botulism: a) A; b) B; c) E; d) D. 108. Specify optimal temperature for toxin production by Clostridium botulinum of type Е: a) 1-2°С; b) 3-4°С; c) 5-6°С; d) 7-8°С. 12 109. Specify rare cases of botulism: a) Vegetable, dairy; b) Wound-born, newborn’s; c) Air-drop, intestinal; d) Meat, mushroom. 110. Enteral way of infection is actual for: a) HBV; b) HCV; c) HAV; d) HDV. 111. HAV is transmitted: a) Sexually; b) With water; c) Parenterally; d) Through blood-sicking insects. 112. Viral hepatitis A more often affects: a) Children of preschool age; b) Adults senior than 30 years; c) Elderly persons. 113. For viral hepatitis Е the most characteristic ways of transmission are: a) Water-born; b) Parenteral; c) Transmissive; d) Transplacentary. 114. Viral hepatitis Е has severe course in: a) Elderly; b) Pregnant women; c) Breast-feeded children; d) Children of preschool age. 115. Viral hepatitis Е occures more often in countries: a) South-East Asia; b) Belarus; c) Ukraine. 116. Basic marker of acute hepatits A (AHA) is: a) HBsAg; b) anti-HBc IgM; c) anti-HAV IgM; d) anti-HAV IgG. 117. What is the main factor damaging liver cells in AHA: a) HAV; b) Autoimmune reactions; c) Hyperimmune reactions. 118. The fecal-oral mechanism of transmission of viral hepatits is characteristic for: a) Viral hepatitis D and Е; b) Viral hepatitis A and B; c) Viral hepatitis A and C; d) Viral hepatitis A and Е. 119. HAV transmission in daily life: a) Is possible; b) Is impossible. 13 120. General blood test results in viral hepatitises are characterized by: a) Leucopenia, lymphocytosis, increased ESR; b) Leucocytosis, neutrophilesis, increased ESR; c) Leucopenia, lymphocytosis, normal or decreased ESR; d) Leucocytosis, lymphopenia, increased ESR. 121. Following tests are not used for detection of AHA markers: a) ELISA (immuno-enzyme analysis); b) RDHA (Reaction of Direct Hemagglutination); c) RIA (Reaction of Inhibition of Agglutination); d) CFR (Complement Fixation Reaction); e) PCR. 122. General blood test in liver failure is characterized with: a) Leucopenia with lymphocytosis, decreased ESR; b) Leucopenia with shift to the left; c) Leucocytosis with neutrophilesis increased ESR. 123. Transformation to chronic form is not characteristic for viral hepatitises: a) B and C; b) A and B; c) A and E; d) D and B 124. The incubation period in AHA: a) 5-7 days; b) 12 days; c) From 2 weeks till 2 months; d) More than 6 months. 125. Etiotropic therapy of acute hepatitis by interferons is used in: a) Hepatitis A; b) Hepatitis B; c) Hepatitis C; d) Hepatitis D; e) Hepatitis E. 126. Frequency of chronisation after acute hepatitis B: a) 0 %; b) 2-4 %; c) 5-10 %; d) 20-50 %; e) 60-80 %; f) 100 %. 127. Frequency of chronisation after acute hepatitis A: a) 0 %; b) 2-4 %; c) 5-10 %; d) 20-50 %; e) 60-80 %; f) 100 %. 128. Frequency of chronisation after acute hepatitis C: a) 0 %; b) 2-4 %; c) 5-10 %; d) 20-50 %; e) 60-80 %; f) 100 %. 14 129. Vaccination against what hepatitises is realised in Belarus: a) A,B; b) C,D; c) A,C; d) B,D. 130. Source of infection in epidemic typhus: a) Carrier of the typhus agent; b) Person sick with typhus; c) Louse. 131. The rash in epidemic typhus appears on: a) 2-3 day of illness; b) 4-6 day of illness; c) 7-8 day of illness. 132. Characteristic rash for epidemic typhus: a) Macular-papular; b) Papular; c) Roseolar; d) Roseola-pethechial; e) Petechial. 133. What symptoms may be the same in patients with epidemic typhus and typhoid fever: a) Face hyperemia; b) Injection of sclera and conjunctival vessels; c) Tachycardia; d) Excitation; e) All listed; f) No one of listed. 134. Brill-Zinsser disease – it is: a) Repeated disease as a result of new infection; b) Late relapse of epidemic typhus due to the activation of endogenously persisting infection. 135. For haemograms of epidemic typhus patients leucopenia with limfo - and monocytosis are characteristic: a) The statement is true; b) The statement is false. 136. All serological reactions listed below are used in diagnostics of epidemic typhus, except: a) CFR; b) RNHA (Reaction of Nondirect Hemagglutination); c) IFR (Immunoflurescent Reaction); d) Weil-Felix reaction; e) Paul-Bunnel reaction of heterohemagglutination. 137. What symptoms characterise the appearance and the behaviour of endemic typhus patient: a) Adynamy; b) Pallor of the face; c) Stupor; d) All listed; e) Nothing of the listed. 138. The source of infection for hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome are: a) Sick people; b) Pets; c) Wild animals; 15  d) Rodents. 139. What way of transmission from the listed below is not characteristic for hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome: a) Contact in daily life; b) Air-dust; c) Alimentary; d) Transmissive. 140. For an initial stage of hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome these symptoms are characteristic: a) Sudden onset; b) High fever; c) Backache; d) Face and neck hyperemia; e) Injection of sclera and conjunctival vessels; f) All listed; g) Nothing of the listed. 141. What symptom from the listed below is rare in oliguric phase (from 4th for 8th-11th day of illness) of hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome: a) Vomiting; b) Severe hemorrhages; c) Dryness in a mouth; d) Positive Pasternatsky symptom; e) Edemas. 142. For hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome all changes in urine test listed below are characteristic, except: a) Considerable proteinuria; b) Hematuria; c) Casts - "fibrin casts"; d) Pyuria. 143. For hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome all complications listed below are characteristic, except: a) Acute renal failure; b) Kidney rupture; c) Bleeding; d) Uraemia; e) Neuritis of n.auricularis and n.ocularis. 144. This can not be the source of infection for Crimean hemorrhagic fever: a) Birds; b) Mammal (cows, sheep, goats, hares); c) Sick people. 145. The reservoir and transmitter of the causative agent of Omsk hemorrhagic fever are: a) Flies; b) Mosquitoes; c) Mites; d) Fleas; e) All listed. 146. Choose the method of early laboratory diagnostics of malaria: a) Haemoculture; b) Stool culture; c) Urine culture; d) Roseola culture; e) Blood microscopy; f) Vidal reaction. 147. Define the complication of tropical malaria: 16  a) Myocarditis; b) Otitis; c) Coma; d) Pyelonephritis; e) Cholecystitis; f) Parotitis. 148. Define the source of infection for malaria: a) Sick person; b) Birds; c) Sick animals; d) Rodents. 149. Specify the mechanism of transmission of infection in malaria: a) Fecal-oral; b) Air-drop; c) Transmissive; d) Vertical. 150. What temperature curves are characteristic for malaria: a) Remittens; b) Trapezoid (by Wounderlich); c) Intermittens; d) Wavy (by Botkin). 151. What group of microorganisms does the malaria causative agent concern to: a) Viruses; b) Bacteria; c) Pathogenic fungi; d) Rickettsiae; e) Spirochetes; f) Protozoa. 152. What laboratory method should be used for malaria diagnostics: a) Bacteriological; b) Microscopic; c) Biological; d) Virologic; e) Cytologic. 153. The infectious period in uncomplicated influenza proceeds up to: a) 1-3 days; b) 4-5 days; c) 5-7 days; d) 8-10 days. 154. What syndrome is prevailing in the clinical course of influenza: a) Intoxication; b) Arthralgic; c) Exudative. 155. In influenza fever reaches its maximum in the first days of illness and lasts no more than 3-6 days: a) The statement is true; b) The statement is false. 156. On examination of influenza patient there are: a) Pallor of face; b) Smallmacular rash on the skin of trunk and extremities; c) Diffused painfulness on abdomen palpation; d) Liver and spleen enlargment; 17  e) All listed symptoms; f) No one of listed symptoms. 157. It is mostly characteristic for parainfluenza to affect mucous membranes of: a) Nose; b) Pharynx; c) Larynx; d) Trachea; e) Bronchi; f) Bronchioli. 158. What symptoms of parainfluenza are not characteristic for influenza: a) Gradual onset of the disease; b) Prevalence of exudative processes over intoxication symptoms; c) Subfebrile temperature, sometimes with quick risings; d) Rude barking cough; e) All listed; f) Nothing of the listed. 159. It is mostly characteristic for adenovirus infection to affect mucous membranes of: a) Nose; b) Pharynx; c) Larynx; d) Trachea, e) Bronchi. 160. In adenovirus infection following syndromes are defined: a) Acute rhinopharyngitis; b) Rhinopharyngotonsillitis; c) Pharyngo-conjunctival fever; d) Acute conjunctivitis or ceratoconjunctivitis; e) Mesadenitis with diarrhoea; f) All listed. 161. Which method is not used in diagnostic of adenovirus infection: a) Biochemical; b) Virologic; c) Serologic; d) Rhinocytoscopic. 162. In what Acute Respiratory Viral Infection (ARVI) rash may present as a symptom: a) Adenovirus infection; b) Parainfluenza; c) Respiratory-sincitial (RS) infection; d) Rhinovirus infections; e) All listed. 163. What ARVI the enlargement of lymph nodes is characteristic for: a) Parainfluenza; b) Adenovirus infection; c) Respiratory-sincitial (RS) infection; d) Rhinovirus infections; e) All listed. 164. What ARVI the liver and spleen enlargement is possible in: a) Parainfluenza; b) Adenovirus infection; c) Influenza; d) Rhinovirus infections; e) All listed. 18 165. Specify, what is the typical character of rash in meningococcal infection: a) Vesicular; b) Hemorrhagic; c) Roseola; d) Macular-papular 166. The first elements of hemorrhagic rash in meningococcemia appear on the skin of: e) Trunk; f) Upper extremities; g) Lower extremities; h) Face. 167. The way of transmission for meningococcal infection: e) Contact in daily life; f) Air-drop; g) Air-dust; h) With food; i) With water. 168. All forms of meningococcal infection listed below are generalised, except: a) Meningitis; b) Nasopharyngitis; c) Meningococcemia; d) Meningoencephalitis. 169. What kind of material from the patient with meningococcal infection is not used for bacteriological test: a) Nasopharynx mucus; b) Blood; c) Feces; d) CSF; e) Byoptates of rash elements. 170. What kind of pathogenetic therapy is not used in meningococcal infection: a) Rehydration; b) Measures against toxicosis; c) Measures against brain edema; d) Measures for getting the patient out of shock; e) Cardiac and vascular drugs according to indications. 171. Defining factors for streptococcal erysipelas occurrence are: a) Individual predisposition of congenital character; b) Individual predisposition of the acquired character; c) Delayed-hypersensitivity to hemolytic streptococcus; d) All listed; e) No one of the listed. 172. For erysipelas the following type of inflammation is characteristic: a) Serous; b) Purulent; c) Necrotising; d) Fibrinotic. 173. After erysipelas convalescence remains: a) Stable immunity; b) Unstable immunity; c) Predisposition. 174. In typical cases erysipelas begins: a) With intoxication symptoms, and then in 12-24 hours local changes appear; 19  b) Local changes and intoxication symptoms appear simultaneously; c) With local changes and then intoxication symptoms appeare. 175. Local changes in erysipelas are: a) Diffused bright hyperemia; b) Edema and infiltration of the skin extended out from hyperemia borders; c) Affected site of skin is painless; d) Nothing from the listed; e) All listed. 176. For erythematous form of erysipelas it is characteristic: a) Polyadenopathy; b) Absence of lymph nodes enlargement; c) Regional lymph nodes enlargement; d) Suppuration and rupture of regional lymph nodes; e) Hyperemia of skin over enlarged lymph nodes. 177. The most severe forms of erysipelas are: a) Erythematous; b) Erythematous-vesicular; c) Erythematous-hemorrhagic; d) Vesicular-hemorrhagic; e) Severity depends not only on the form, but also is defined by intoxication and abundance of the process. 178. What changes of haemogram are characteristic for erysipelas: a) Leucocytosis with neutrophilesis and formula shift to the left; b) Normocytosis with lymphocytosis; c) Leucopenia with lymphocytosis; d) Normal haemogram. 179. Erysipelas complications are: a) Abscesses; b) Phlegmon; c) Sepsis; d) Phlebitis; e) All listed; f) Nothing of the listed. 180. Erysipelas outcomes are: a) Recovering; b) Residual signs; c) Hyperceratosis; d) Elephantiasis; e) All listed. 181. In erysipelas treatment following etiotropic drugs may be used: a) Penicillin; b) Ampicillin; c) Cefotaxim; d) Erythromycin; e) All listed. 182. In pathogenic treatment of relapsing forms of erysipelas following drugs are used: a) Ascorutin; b) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; c) Vitamins; d) Glucocorticoids; e) All listed; f) Nothing of the listed. 20 183. For anthrax carbunculum all listed below is characteristic, except: a) Elevation over a skin surface; b) Presence of an eschar or crust of black colour; c) Presence of secondary vesicles around the eschar; d) Painfull on palpation; e) Extensive edema of hypodermic cellular tissue. 184. What signs of anthrax carbunculum are not characteristic for ordinary carbunculum: a) Painlessness; b) Black eschar; c) Extensive edema of hypodermic cellular tissue; d) All listed; e) No one of the listed. 185. The source of plague infection can be: a) Gophers; b) Chickweeds, field voles; c) Rats; d) Camels; e) Humans; f) All listed. 186. The basic way of plague transmission from rodent to person: a) Contact; b) Alimentary; c) Transmissive; d) Air-drop. 187. For peripheral blood of a patient with plague it is characteristic: a) Leucocytisis with neutrophilesis; b) Leucopenia with lymphocytosis; c) Normocytosis. 188. The symptoms characterising local changes in bubonic form of plague: a) Lymph nodes are well shaped; b) The skin over lymph nodes is not changed; c) Lymph nodes are not inclined to suppuration; d) All listed; e) No one of the listed. 189. What clinical symptom is not characteristic for primary pulmonary form of plague: a) Sudden onset; b) Fever; c) Cough; d) Pain in the chest; e) Serous-purulent sputum; f) Bloody foamy sputum. 190. What material is not used for bacteriological test cutenous-bubonic form of plague: a) Content of vesicles, pustules; b) Puncture material from buboes; c) Urine. 191. What material is used for bacteriological test in the primary pulmonary form of plague: a) Blood; b) Sputum; c) Mucus from pharynx; d) All listed; e) Nothing of the listed. 21 192. Can any person be infected with tularemia from other person?: a) Yes; b) No. 193. What is the source of infection in tularemia: a) Field vole; b) Water rat; c) House rat; d) Hare; e) All listed; f) Nobody from the listed. 194. Ways of transmission in tularemia: a) Contact; b) Alimentary; c) With water; d) Air-dust; e) Transmissive; f) All listed. 195. What form of tularemia appears from contact way of infection: a) Bubonic; b) Oculobubonic; c) Glandular-bubonic; d) Abdominal; e) Pulmonary. 196. What clinical form of tularemia appears from alimentary way of infection: a) Bubonic; b) Ulceroglandular; c) Oculobubonic; d) Glandular-bubonic; e) Pulmonary. 197. What symptom of the listed below is not characteristic for tularemia: a) Fever; b) Pallor of face skin; c) Hyperemia of oropharynx; d) Liver and spleen enlargement; e) Enlargement of lymph nodes. 198. What symptoms characterise tularemic bubo: a) Acute painfulness; b) Cohesion with surrounding cellular tissue and skin; c) Skin hyperemia over a bubo; d) "Dim" contours of bubo; e) All listed; f) Nothing of the listed. 199. For glandular-bubonic form of tularemia following clinical symptoms are characteristic: a) Hyperemia of oropharynx; b) Affection of single tonsil; c) Necrotic fur on the tonsil; d) Enlargement of submaxillary lymph nodes; e) All listed; f) No one of the listed. 200. What clinical symptom is not characteristic for abdominal form of tularemia: a) Muscular pains; b) Abdominal pains; 22  c) Nausea and vomiting; d) Frequent watery stool; e) Liver and spleen enlargement. 201. For the pulmonary form of tularemia it is characteristic: a) Enlargement of bronchial and paratraheal lymph nodes; b) Prolonged fever; c) Liability to relapses; d) Liver and spleen enlargement; e) All listed; f) Nothing of the listed. 202. What symptoms of bubonic plague are characteristic for bubonic form of tularemia: a) Highly expressed symptoms of intoxication; b) Grogginess of walking; c) High painfulness of bubo; d) Skin change over bubo; e) All the listed; f) Nothing of the listed. 203. For intestinal yersiniosis the following type of intestine affection is characteristic: a) Gastroenteritis; b) Enterocolitis; c) Terminal ileitis; d) Gastroenterocolitis; e) Appendicitis; f) All listed. 204. What symptoms of the listed below are not characteristic for yersiniosis: a) Dotty or smallmacular rash; b) Hyperemia of oropharynx mucous membranes; c) Lymphadenitis; d) Painfullness on palpation of left areas of the abdomen; e) Liver enlargement; f) Watery stool with mucus and blood. 205. For intestinal yersiniosis treatment all antibiotics listed below may be used, except: a) Penicillin; b) Abactala; c) Levomycetin; d) Gentamycin; e) Cyproby. 206. The basic reservoir of the pseudotuberculosis causative agent is: a) Humans; b) Mammals; c) Rodents; d) Birds. 207. The basic way of transmission in pseudotuberculosis is: a) Contact in daily life; b) Alimentary; c) Air-drop; d) Transmissive; e) Air-dust; f) All listed. 208. All clinical symptoms listed below are characteristic for pseudotuberculosis, except: a) Fever; 23  b) Convulsions; c) Symptoms of "hood", "gloves", "socks"; d) Macular rash; e) Liver and spleen enlargement. 209. Leptospirosis is the disease: a) Anthroponosic; b) Zoonotic; c) Zooanthroponosic. 210. As the source of leptospirosis infection may be all listed, except: a) Wild animals; b) Pets; c) Rodents; d) Sick person. 211. What are the ways of leptospirosis infection of the human: a) Professional contact; b) Alimentary; c) With water; d) All listed; e) No one of the listed. 212. Characteristic complaints of the leptospirosis patient are: a) Pain in the neck; b) Pain in large joints; c) Pain in urination; d) All listed; e) Nothing of the listed. 213. What changes in urine are not characteristic for leptospirosis patients: a) Proteinuria; b) Hematuria; c) Casturia; d) Pyuria. 214. In haemogram of leptospirosis patients leucocytosis, neutrophilesis with shift to the left, increase of ESR are revealed : a) The statement is true; b) The statement is false. 215. All the types of material listed below may be used for bacterioscopy and bacteriological test in leptospirosis, except: a) Blood; b) Urine; c) Feces; d) CSF. 216. All serological reactions listed below are used in diagnostics of leptospirosis, except: a) RALL (Reaction of microAgglutination and Lysis of Leptospiras); b) CFR; c) Reaction of heterohemagglutination; d) RDHA. 217. What symptoms appearing in leptospirosis, are not characteristic for a influenza: a) Liver and spleen enlargement; b) Renal syndrome; 24  c) Exanthema; d) Jaundice; e) All listed. 218. What serological reaction is not used in diagnostics of brucellosis: a) Right’s reaction of agglutination; b) Paul-Bunnel’s reaction of heterohemagglutination; c) Heddlson’s reaction of agglutination; d) CFR; e) RBHA (Reaction of Braking of Hemagglutination). 219. Wich type of microorganism does the HIV-infection causative agent concern to: a) Viruses; b) Bacteria; c) Protozoa; d) Worms. 220. The main way of HIV-infection transmission is: a) With food; b) With water; c) Parenteral; d) Air-drop. 221. HIV is not revealed in: a) Blood; b) Sperm; c) Saliva; d) Tears; e) Vomiting masses. 222. HIV may be inactivated by ethanol of following concentration: a) 20 °; b) 50 °; c) 70 °; d) 96 °. 223. HIV may be inactivated in 10-15 minutes in water of following temperature: a) 25 °; b) 50 °; c) 65 °; d) 100 °. 224. First of all HIV affects: a) Hepaticytes; b) Enterocytes; c) T-lymphocytes; d) Brain vessels; e) Nephrocytes. 225. The basic method of HIV-infection diagnostics is: a) RDHA (Reaction of Direct HemAgglutination); b) IFA (ImmunoFluorescent Analysis); c) RNGA; d) CFR; e) RNIF (Reaction of Nondirect ImmunoFluorescence). 226. The main receptor (superficial) of HIV: a) CD4; b) gp-120; c) CD8; d) HBsAg; e) p-24 (25). 25 227. Nucleocapsid receptor of HIV: a) CD4; b) gp-120; c) CD8; d) p-24 (25); e) HBcAg. 228. The presentation of HIV to T-helpers is performed by: a) Lymphocytes; b) Platelets; c) Macrophages; d) Antibodies; e) Antigen. 229. Specify the main immune mediator between T - and B-lymphocytes: a) Ig M; b) Macrophage; c) CD4; d) Thymopoetin; e) CD8. 230. The clinical standard for starting of antiviral therapy in HIV-infection is decrease of CD4 level to: a) 400/mkl; b) 500/mkl; c) 600/mkl; d) 200/mkl; e) 100/mkl. 231. The basic drug for HIV-infection treatment is: a) Penicillin; b) Cefalosporins; c) Azidotimidin; d) Fansidar; e) Sumamed. 232. The minimal duration of incubation period in rabies is: a) 1-3 days; b) 4-7 days; c) 7-9 days; d) 10-30 days; e) 3 months and more. 233. The duration of incubation period in rabies depends on: a) Immunity state; b) Bite localisation; c) Size and depth of wound; d) All listed factors; e) No one of the listed factors. 234. What symptoms are characteristic for rabies in initial (depression) period: a) Headache; b) Rise of body temperature to subfebrile numbers; c) Aching pain in the wound area; d) Feeling of fear, melancholy, trouble; e) Apathy, depression; f) All listed; 26  g) Nothing of the listed. 235. For rabies in excitation period all symptoms listed above are characteristic, except: a) Anxiety; b) Hydrophobia; c) Aerophobia; d) Aggression; e) Hypersalivation; f) Normal body temperature. 236. What symptoms are characteristic for rabies in paralytic period: a) Mental calm; b) Paralyses of cranial nerves; c) Paralyses of extremities; d) Bulbaric disorders; e) All listed. 237. The outcome of rabies is: a) Full recover; b) Residual signs; c) Death. 238. The sources of infection in dysentery are all listed, except: a) Patients with acute dysentery; b) Patients with chronic dysentery; c) Carriers; d) Pets. 239. What way of transmission is not characteristic for dysentery: a) Contact in daily life; b) With water; c) With food; d) Air-dust. 240. Basic symptoms of dysentery are: a) Spasmatic pain in left iliac area; b) Presence of mucus and blood lines in stool; c) Thenesmas; d) Spasm of sigmoid colon; e) All listed; f) Nothing from the listed. 241. In colitis variant of acute dysentery stool is: a) Plentiful, watery; b) Dark, with greenish colour and fetid smell; c) Watery, poor, with mucus and blood; d) Watery, fecal, without pathological impurity; e) Watery, with an abundance of not digested particles. 242. What products listed below outbreaks of dysentery are mostly connected with: a) Meat products; b) Vegetables and fruit; c) Drinks; d) Sour cream and other dairy products; e) Bakery products. 243. What material should be taken from the patient for bacteriological test if dysentery is suspected: a) Urine; b) Blood; c) Sputum; 27  d) Feces; e) All listed. 244. What is the source of infection in amebiasis a) Human; b) Horned cattle; c) Pigs; d) Rodents. 245. The basic method of intestinal amebiasis therapy: a) Rehydration; b) Desintoxication; c) Nutritional therapy (diet); d) Chemotherapy. 246. Symptoms, characteristic for intestinal amebiasis: a) Watery stool of mucus-bloody character, spasmatic pain in the left half of abdomen, body temperature 39oС; b) Watery mucus-bloody stool in the form of "raspberry" jelly, discomfort in the abdomen, subfebrility; c) Plentiful watery stool, rumbling in the abdomen,normal body temperature; d) Plentiful watery stool with "greens", pain and rumbling in all parts of abdomen, body temperature 39,5oС. 247. The basic method of laboratory diagnostics of intestinal amebiasis: a) Parasitological blood test; b) Serological blood test; c) Parasitological test of feces; d) Parasitological bile test. 248. The most frequent reason of botulism is the consumption of following tinned products of domestic preparation: a) Apples; b) Mushrooms; c) Cucumbers; d) Juice. 249. The first symptom of botulism is: a) Dyspepsia; b) Snuffle of voice; c) Dysphagia; d) Dyspnoea. 250. What is the correct sequence of phases of malaria paroxysm: a) Fever-chill-sweat; b) Sweat-chill-fever; c) Chill-fever-sweat; d) Chill-sweat-fever. 251. What is the source of infection in anthrax: a) Agricultural animals; b) Humans; c) Insects; d) Rodents. 252. More often the gates of infection in anthrax are: a) Mucous membranes of respiratory tract; b) Damaged skin; c) Mucous membranes of gastrointestinal tract; d) Conjunctiva. 253. What is the character of local inflammation in anthrax: 28  a) Fibrinotic; b) Proliferative; c) Serously-hemorrhagic; d) Purulent. 254. Anthrax carbuncule is characterized by: a) Prominent edema of tissues and acute painfullness; b) Prominent edema of tissues and painlessness; c) Absence of tissue edema and acute painfullness; d) Absence of tissue edema and painlessness. 255. Typical variant of the cutaneous form of anthrax is: a) Erysipeloid; b) Edematous; c) Vesicular; d) Carbuncular. 256. What is Brucella sp. the most pathogenic for humans: a) bovis; b) suis; c) melitensis; d) ovis; e) canis; f) neotomae. 257. Indications for vaccinotherapy in brucellosis: a) Severe course of acute brucellosis; b) Torpid course of subacute and chronic brucellosis; c) Stable residual processes; d) Compensated forms of chronic brucellosis. 258. In what helmintosis jaundice development is possible: a) Trichiniasis; b) Trichuriasis; c) Opistorchosis; d) Hymenolepidosis. 259. In opistorchosis treatment are used: a) Extract of male brake; b) Fenosal; c) Praziquantel; d) Felicsan; e) Decaris. 260. In small intestine all listed helmints parasitize, except: a) Ascarid; b) Pinworm; c) Wide лентеца; d) Opistorchis. 261. In large intestine following parasites are localised: a) Ascarids; b) Trichuris; c) Diphyllobotrium latum; d) Opistorchis; e) Taenia saginata; 29  f) Taenia solium. 262. The control of dehelmentisation efficiency should be performed in: a) 2-3 days; b) 1 week; c) 2-3 weeks; d) 1-2 months. 263. Which of the named drugs is used in treatment of ascariasis patients: a) Combantrin; b) Bemosad; c) Difesil; d) Mintesol; e) All listed. 264. In natural smallpox takes place: a) False polymorphism of rash; b) True polymorphism of rash. 265. The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is: a) Escherichia; b) Yersinia; c) Epstein-Barr virus; d) Spirochet. 266. The most frequent way of transmission in infectious mononucleosis: a) Air-drop; b) Artificial; c) Vertical; d) Transmissive. 267. In infectious mononucleosis all symptoms listed below are observed, except: a) Tonsillas enlargement; b) Filmy furs on tonsillas; c) Enlargement of submaxillary and cervical lymph nodes; d) Hepatolienal syndrome; e) Purulent conjunctivitis. 268. What method is not used in laboratory diagnostics of infectious mononucleosis: a) Immunofluorescence; b) Paul-Bunnel’s Reaction; c) CFR; d) RNHA; e) Blood culture; f) Goff-Bauer’s reaction; g) PCR. 269. Specify what mechanism of transmission is characteristic for escherichiosis: a) Fecal-oral; b) Parenteral; c) Air-drop; d) Vertical. 270. What type of Escherichia cause the disease similar on clinic to dysentery: a) Enteropathogenic; b) Enteroinvasive; c) Enterotoxigenic; d) Enteroadhesive. 30 271. What type of Escherichia the colitis development is not characteristic for: a) Enteropathogenic; b) Enteroinvasive; c) Enterotoxigenic; d) Enteroadhesive. 272. What family does the causative agent of ornitosis concern to: a) Orthomyxoviridae; b) Paramyxoviridae; c) Chlamidia; d) Rickettsia; e) Enterobacteriaceae. 273. What group of antibiotics the causative agent of ornitosis is mostly sensitive to: a) Penicillin; b) Tetracycline; c) Amynoglicosides; d) Nitrofuranes; e) Lincosamids. 274. The contagious index in measles is equal to: a) 0,25; b) 0,5; c) 0,75; d) 1,0. 275. The contagious index in typhoid fever is equal to: a) 0,25; b) 0,5; c) 0,75; d) 1,0. 276. The contagious index in viral hepatitis A is equal to: a) 0,25; b) 0,5; c) 0,75; d) 1,0. 277. What class of antibodies is the criterion of an acute phase of infectious process (illness): a) IgA; b) IgM; c) IgG; d) IgD. 278. What class of antibodies is the criterion of completed infectious process: a) IgA; b) IgM; c) IgG; d) IgD. 279. Since what week of illness there is a maximum accumulation of antibodies titre: a) On 1 week; b) On 2 week; c) On 3 week; d) On 4 week. 280. What antibodies form immune complexes: 31  a) IgA; b) IgM; c) IgG; d) IgD. 281. Incubation period – it is: a) The period of prodrome; b) The period of convalescence; c) The period of highest manifestation of disease; d) The initial, latent period. 282. Prodromal period – it is: a) The period of initial symptoms of illness; b) The period of convalescence;; c) The period of highest manifestation of disease; d) The period of incubation. 283. Incrementi stage – it is: a) Stage of highest manifestation of disease; b) Stage of increase of clinical symptoms; c) Stage of decrease of clinical symptoms; d) Recover stage. 284. Decrementi stage – it is: a) Stage of highest manifestation of disease; b) Stage of increase of clinical symptoms; c) Stage of decrease of clinical symptoms; d) Recover stage. 285. Patognomic symptoms are those that: a) Proove the diagnosis; b) Direct to right idea about diagnosis; c) Are facultative. 286. What infection is generalized one: a) Cholera; b) Typhoid fever; c) Dysentery. 287. What clinical form of disease is typical: a) High severity form; b) Hypertoxic; c) Fulminant; d) Comogenic. 288. What clinical form of illness is atypical: a) High severity form; b) Erased; c) Medium severity form; d) Light severity form. 289. How is the course of illness from 2 till 3 months classified: a) Acute; b) Prolonged; c) Subacute; d) Chronic; e) Fulminant. 290. How is the course of illness from 3 till 6 months classified: a) Acute; 32  b) Prolonged; c) Subacute; d) Chronic; e) Fulminant. 291. Specify typical manifestation of infectious disease: a) Inapparant infection; b) Erased infection; c) Manifesting infection; d) Persistent infection. 292. The complications connected with action of the agent are called: a) Atypical; b) Typical; c) Specific; d) Nonspecific. 293. The complications which are not connected with action of the agent are called: a) Atypical; b) Typical; c) Specific; d) Nonspecific. 294. Specify the correct variant of disease course: a) Full clinic, incubation, prodrome, reconvalescence; b) Prodrome, incubation, full clinic, reconvalescence; c) Incubation, prodrome, full clinic, reconvalescence; d) Incubation, full clinic, prodrome, reconvalescence. 295. Specify an absolute method of revealing of the agent: a) Serological; b) Biological; c) Bacteriological; d) Allergic. 296. Specify an absolute method of revealing of the agent: a) IFA; b) RNHA; c) RIA (Immunoenzyme Analysis); d) PCR; e) CFR.. 297. The molecular-genetic method (PCR) reveales: a) Antigenes; b) Antibodies; c) Immune complexes; d) RNA (DNA); e) Receptors. 298. Diagnostic титр of antibodies in paired sera - it is: a) 2-fold rising of Ig titre; b) 3-fold rising of Ig titre; c) 4-fold rising of Ig titre. 299. RNA-containing viruses at luminescent microscopy appear as: 33  a) Bright blue luminescence; b) Bright red luminescence; c) Bright green luminescence; d) Bright light luminescence. 300. DNA-containing viruses at luminescent microscopy appear as: a) Bright blue luminescence; b) Bright red luminescence; c) Bright green luminescence; d) Bright light luminescence. 301. Specify the method of quantitative estimation of the agent’s presence in an organism: a) RNHA; b) IFA; c) PCR; d) CFR; e) RIA. 302. For viral etiology of illness it is characteristic: a) Eosinophilia; b) Neutrophilesis; c) Lymphocytosis; d) Lymphopenia; e) Leucocytosis. 303. For bacterial etiology of illness it is characteristic: a) Eosinophilia; b) Platelet level increased; c) Lymphocytosis; d) Agranulocytosis; e) Leucocytosis. 304. Normal colour of urine with the prominent jaundice testifies in advantage of: a) Mechanical jaundice; b) Hemolytical jaundice; c) Parenchimal jaundice; d) Viral hepatitis. 305. Character of CSF in a typical initially-purulent meningitis: a) Hemorrhagic; b) Neutrophilic; c) Serous; d) Xanthochromic; e) Not changed. 306. Character of CSF in a typical initially-serous meningitis: a) Hemorrhagic; b) Purulent; c) Serous; d) Xanthochromic; e) Not changed. 307. Character of CSF in a tubercular meningitis: a) Hemorrhagic; b) Purulent; c) Serous; d) Xanthochromic; e) Not changed. 34 308. Stool of "crimson jelly» type is characteristic for: a) Eshcherichiosis; b) Shigellosis; c) Amebiasis; d) Salmonellosis; e) Brucellosis. 309. The therapy that neutralizes the action of specific toxin is called: a) Pathogenetic; b) Etiotropic; c) Neutralising; d) Binding; e) Syndromal. 310. What is the direct toxic action of doxycycline: a) Ototoxic; b) Nephrotoxic; c) Hematotoxic; d) Hepatotoxic; e) Neurotoxic. 311. What is the direct toxic action of Levomycetin: a) Ototoxic; b) Nephrotoxic; c) Hematotoxic; d) Hepatotoxic; e) Neurotoxic. 312. What is the direct toxic action of gentamycin: a) Ototoxic; b) Nephrotoxic; c) Hematotoxic; d) Hepatotoxic; e) Neurotoxic. 313. Specify the full list of principles of serotherapy: a) Correctness, timeliness, rationality; b) Specificity, accuracy, sufficiency; c) Rationality, specificity, correctness; d) Timeliness, specificity, sufficiency. 314. What kind of therapy the vaccinotherapy concerns to: a) Etiotropic, nonspecific; b) Pathogenetic, specific; c) Immune, nonspecific; d) Immunosupressive, specific; e) Pathogenetic, nonspecific; f) Etiotropic, specific. 315. What drug does not possess antiviral activity: a) Remantadin; b) Ciprofloxacin; c) Acyclovir; d) Ribavirin; e) Lamivudin. 35 316. What drug does not possess antibacterial activity: a) Sumamed; b) Ciprofloxacin; c) Acyclovir; d) Thienam; e) Meronem. 317. What preparations are haemodynamic blood-replacements: a) Glucose solutions; b) Derivatives of PVP (PolyVinilPyrrolidone); c) Dextran solutions; d) Crystalloids; e) Albumin. 318. What preparations are desintoxication blood-replacements: a) Glucose solutions; b) Derivatives of PVP; c) Dextran solutions; d) Crystalloids. 319. In urgent conditions GCS (GlucoCorticoSteroids) are administrated in a daily dose: a) 1-2 mg/kg; b) 3-4 mg/kg; c) 5-10 mg/kg; d) 20-50 mg/kg. 320. The absolute indication for GCS administration is not: a) Hypovolemic shock; b) Acute liver failure; c) Acute renal failure; d) Acute adrenal failure. 321. The absolute contra-indication for GCS administration is: a) Stomach ulcer disease; b) Wilson-Konovalov disease; c) Itsenko-Kushing disease; d) Tuberculosis; e) Reuter disease. 322. To cytomedins group concerns: a) Acyclovir; b) Cyclodol; c) Cytochrome C; d) Thymalin; e) Zinc drugs. 323. Stimulator of endogenous interferons is: a) Roncoleukin; b) Thymalin; c) Pyrogenal; d) Amyxin; e) Intal. 324. What drug gets through vessel-brain barrier: a) Tetracycline; b) Thienam; c) Biseptol; d) Penicillin; e) Furazolidon. 36 325. Specify the antiparasitic drug: a) Depo-medrol; b) Dimedrol; c) Levamizol; d) Levo-dopa; e) Levomycetin. 326. Antioxidant action has: a) Vitamin E; b) Vitamin D; c) Vitamin B; d) Vitamin РР. 327. Anticholestatic action has: a) Silimarin; b) Allochol; c) No-spa; d) Ursofalk; e) Essentiale; f) Phenobarbital. 328. Specific vaccinal prophylaxis is provided by: a) Cytomedins; b) Vaccines; c) Inyerferons; d) Interleukines. 329. What is the main cause of hepatic encephalopathy: a) Hemorrhage in brain; b) Acute liver necrosis; c) Acute renal failure; d) Acute encephalitis. 330. Specify the correct variant of acute liver failure stages sequence by Rudnev’s classification: a) Precoma-encephalopathy-coma 1-coma 2; b) Precursors-precoma-excitation-coma; c) Precursors -excitation-encephalopathy-coma; d) Precursors -excitation-precoma-coma; e) Precoma 1-encephalopathy-excitation-coma. 331. Specify the correct variant of acute liver failure stages sequence by Bluger’s classification: a) Precoma-encephalopathy-coma 1-coma 2; b) Precursors-precoma-excitation-coma; c) Precursors -excitation-encephalopathy-coma; d) Precoma 1 - precoma 2- coma 1-coma 2; e) Precoma 1-encephalopathy-excitation-coma. 332. What toxic factor has the most important value in pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy: a) Urea; b) Ammonia; c) Creatinin; d) Chlorine; e) Sulfuretted hydrogen. 333. Specify the daily dose of GCS for treatment of acute liver failure: a) 1-4 mg/kg; b) 5-10 mg/kg; c) 11-14 mg/kg; d) 15-20 mg/kg; 37  e) More than 20 mg/kg. 334. The main source of infection in meningococcal infection: a) Person sick of generalised forms of disease; b) Patients with meningococcal nasopharyngitis; c) Neisseria meningitidis carriers; d) Reconvalescents after meningococcal mengitis. 335. Diagnosis-defining data for statement of the diagnosis of meningitis are: a) Meningitis syndrome; b) Symptoms of general intoxication; c) Inflammatory changes in CSF; d) Epidemiological data. 336. The main way of meningococcal infection distribution in human body is: a) Hematogenic; b) Lymphogenic; c) Contact; d) Perineural. 337. The superficial antigen of HBV is: a) HBcoreAg; b) HBsAg; c) HВeAg; d) HВxAg. 338. The syndrome most typical for the preicteric period of viral hepatitis A: a) Asthenovegetative; b) Arthralgic; c) Dyspeptic; d) Influenza-like. 339. The syndrome most typical for the preicteric period of viral hepatitis B: a) Dyspeptic; b) Arthralgic; c) Influenza-like; d) Asthenovegetative. 340. Biochemical indicator which constantly changes in the preicteric period of acute viral hepatitises: a) Activity of AlAT; b) Bilirubin level; c) Timolic test; d) Sulemic titre. 341. Lethal outcomes of viral hepatitis Е are observed more frequently in: a) Pregnant women; b) Homosexuals; c) Drug takers; d) Recipients of blood. 342. The basic method of viral hepatitis A therapy is: a) Symptomatic; b) Pathogenetic; c) Immunomodulating; d) Antiviral. 343. Etiotropic therapy of influenza is provided by: 38  a) Antigrippin; b) Fervex; c) Ozeltamivir; d) Vitamin C. 344. What clinical forms of the listed below do not concern to classification of enterovirus infection: a) Herpangina; b) Epidemic myalgia; c) Epidemic exanthema; d) Pharyngoconjunctival fever. 345. Symptom that is not characteristic for adenovirus infection: a) Lymphadenopathy; b) Conjunctivitis; c) Rhino-pharyngo-tonsillitis; d) Laryngitis. 346. What clinical form of the listed below is not specified in classification of psittacosis: a) Pneumonic; b) Meningo-pneumonia; c) Meningitis; d) Abdominal; e) Asymptomatic. 347. What clinical form of the listed below is not specified in classification of smallpox: a) Smallpox purpura; b) pustulo-hemorrhagic; c) Generalised; d) Confluent; e) Varioloid. 348. What clinical form of the listed below is not specified in classification of tularemia: a) Bubonic; b) Cutaneous-bubonic; c) Ulcerobubonic; d) Oculobubonic; e) Tonsillobubonic. 349. What clinical form of the listed below is not specified in classification of toxoplasmosis: a) Infection; b) Initially-latent; c) Initially-chronic; d) Secondary-latent; e) Secondary -chronic. 350. What clinical form of the listed below is not specified in classification of anthrax: a) Carbuncular; b) Ulcerative; c) Edematic; d) Vesicular; e) Erysipelas-like. 39  Answers 1. с 41. a 81. b 121. d 161. a 201. e 241. c 281. d 321. c 2. d 42. b 82. b 122. c 162. a 202. f 242. d 282. a 322. d 3. c 43. a 83. c 123. c 163. b 203. f 243. d 283. b 323. d 4. e 44. c 84. a 124. c 164. b 204. d 244. a 284. c 324. d 5. b 45. d 85. c 125. c 165. b 205. a 245. d 285. a 325. c 6. c 46. a 86. b 126. b 166. c 206. c 246. b 286. b 326. a 7. c 47. a 87. c 127. a 167. b 207. b 247. c 287. a 327. d 8. c 48. c 88. a 128. e 168. b 208. b 248. b 288. b 328. b 9. b 49. d 89. b 129. a 169. c 209. c 249. a 289. c 329. b 10. b 50. a 90. d 130. b 170. a 210. d 250. c 290. b 330. d 11. b 51. a 91. d 131. b 171. d 211. d 251. a 291. c 331. d 12. b 52. c 92. b 132. d 172. a 212. e 252. b 292. c 332. b 13. c 53. b 93. d 133. f 173. c 213. d 253. c 293. d 333. b 14. c 54. f 94. c 134. b 174. a 214. a 254. b 294. c 334. c 15. b 55. e 95. b 135. b 175. d 215. c 255. d 295. c 335. c 16. b 56. a 96. d 136. e 176. b 216. c 256. c 296. d 336. а 17. b 57. b 97. c 137. e 177. e 217. e 257. b 297. d 337. b 18. c 58. d 98. a 138. d 178. a 218. b 258. c 298. c 338. d 19. c 59. a 99. c 139. d 179. e 219. a 259. c 299. b 339. b 20. a 60. b 100. c 140. f 180. e 220. c 260. d 300. c 340. а 21. b 61. f 101. c 141. e 181. e 221. e 261. b 301. c 341. а 22. c 62. a 102. d 142. d 182. e 222. c 262. d 302. c 342. b 23. a 63. f 103. c 143. e 183. d 223. c 263. a 303. e 343. с 24. d 64. c 104. c 144. a 184. d 224. c 264. b 304. b 344. d 25. a 65. a 105. b 145. c 185. f 225. b 265. c 305. b 345. d 26. c 66. b 106. d 146. e 186. c 226. b 266. a 306. c 346. d 27. b 67. d 107. c 147. c 187. a 227. d 267. e 307. c 347. с 28. b 68. e 108. b 148. a 188. e 228. c 268. e 308. c 348. b 29. d 69. b 109. b 149. c 189. e 229. d 269. a 309. b 349. а 30. c 70. c 110. c 150. c 190. c 230. b 270. b 310. d 350. b 31. a 71. b 111. b 151. f 191. d 231. c 271. c 311. c 32. b 72. c 112. a 152. b 192. b 232. c 272. c 312. b 33. c 73. b 113. a 153. c 193. e 233. d 273. b 313. d 34. a 74. d 114. b 154. a 194. f 234. f 274. d 314. b 35. b 75. b 115. a 155. a 195. a 235. f 275. a 315. b 36. b 76. c 116. c 156. f 196. d 236. e 276. b 316. c 37. c 77. c 117. a 157. c 197. b 237. c 277. b 317. c 38. a 78. c 118. d 158. e 198. f 238. d 278. c 318. b 39. a 79. d 119. a 159. b 199. e 239. d 279. b 319. c 40. c 80. c 120. c 160. f 200. d 240. e 280. a 320. c 40