302.docx

302\. The cells responsible for releasing histamine in allergic conditions are: a) mast cells b) lymphocytes c) eosinophils d) hepatocytes 303. The term referring to the movement of leukocytes toward bacteria is: a) ptosis b) chemotaxis c) phagocytosis d) phototaxis 304. The process by which macroph...

302\. The cells responsible for releasing histamine in allergic conditions are: a) mast cells b) lymphocytes c) eosinophils d) hepatocytes 303. The term referring to the movement of leukocytes toward bacteria is: a) ptosis b) chemotaxis c) phagocytosis d) phototaxis 304. The process by which macrophages and granulocytes ingest microorganisms is called: a) chikungunya b) chemotaxis c) botulism d) phagocytosis 305. The reverse transcriptase of the HIV virus performs the following function: a) transcribes viral DNA into RNA b) transcribes viral RNA into DNA c) converts cellular proteins into viral RNA d) none of the above 306. The following products of the immune system are opsonins: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) IgG d) TCR 307. Which of the following mechanisms do leukocytes use to kill pathogenic organisms: a) oxidative activity b) asphyxiation c) tolerance d) glycolysis 308. Which viral enzymes assist in the integration of the HIV provirus into the cellular genome: a) proteases b) integrases c) ligases d) transcriptases 309. The C3b component of complement is an opsonin because: a) it can lyse bacterial cells b) phagocytes recognize it with their receptors c) it enhances the function of lysosomes d) it enhances the function of the thymus 310. Which of the following cells does NOT belong to the family of macrophages: a) microglial cells b) NK cells c) osteoclasts d) Kupffer cells 311. Which of the following statements about interferons is NOT true: a) they are synthesized in response to viruses b) they inhibit viral replication c) they activate complement d) they stimulate macrophage functions 312. B lymphocytes in humans mature in the: a) bone marrow b) tonsils c) spleen d) synovium of the joint 313. T lymphocytes mature in the: a) posterior cranial fossa b) testes c) thymus d) spleen 314. Which of the following statements about the thymus is NOT true: a) it is located in the mediastinum b) it produces sex hormones c) it is the organ where T lymphocytes mature d) it belongs to the central immune organs 315. In the primary immune response, IgM appears before IgG because: a) their production does not require antigen b) IgG synthesis requires further genomic rearrangement c) IgG synthesis requires a higher concentration of antigen d) IgG antibodies diffuse more slowly into the circulation 316. Which of the following statements is NOT true: a) in the secondary response, antibody production begins earlier b) IgM is the dominant antibody in the primary immune response c) in the secondary immune response, antibody concentrations are higher d) IgD antibodies predominate in the secondary immune response 317. Cell-mediated immunity can be transferred to a non-immune individual by the transfer of: a) immunoglobulins b) T lymphocytes c) B lymphocytes d) complement 318. Patients with DiGeorge syndrome lack a thymus and therefore suffer from: a) hormonal disorders b) IgM deficiency c) anemia d) viral infections 319. T lymphocytes responsible for killing virus-infected cells are called: a) cytolytic T lymphocytes b) cytotoxic T lymphocytes c) regulatory T lymphocytes d) migrating T lymphocytes 320. Which of the following proteins is NOT encoded by genes of the human MHC complex: a) HLA-A b) HLA-C c) hemoglobin d) HLA-DR 321. Which of the following cells expresses Class II MHC products: a) erythrocyte b) hepatocyte c) macrophage d) enterocyte 322. In Myasthenia gravis, there are autoantibodies specific for: a) thyroglobulin b) double-stranded DNA c) vitamin D d) acetylcholine receptor 323. The presence of the HLA-B27 allele does NOT represent an increased risk for the development of one of the following diseases: a) type I insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus b) ankylosing spondylitis c) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis d) Reiter\'s syndrome 324. Which of the following bonds is NOT involved in the antibody-antigen reaction: a) hydrogen bond b) Van der Waals bond c) covalent bond d) electrostatic bond 325. Phagocytic function is possessed only by: a) T lymphocyte b) B lymphocyte c) hepatocyte d) monocyte 326. Macrophages possess a receptor for the Fc fragment of: a) IgA b) IgE c) IgM d) IgG 327. Mast cells express a receptor for the Fc fragment of: a) IgA b) IgF c) IgC d) IgE 328. The maturation of eosinophils depends on: a) TNF b) IL-7 c) IL-5 d) IL-2 329. Which of the following diseases is not mediated by class E antibodies: a) hay fever b) asthma c) eczema d) contact dermatitis 330. Which antibodies are present in Rh incompatibility: a) antinuclear b) antiphospholipid c) anti-D d) anti-CD3 331. The best antigen among the following is: a) bovine serum albumin b) polysaccharide c) lipid d) nucleic acid 332. The class of antibodies is determined by: a) molecular weight of polypeptide chains b) amino acid sequence in the constant region of the heavy chain c) amino acid sequence in the variable region of the heavy chain d) appearance of the active site 333. The first immunoglobulin chain synthesized during B lymphocyte maturation is: a) κ light chain b) λ light chain c) γ heavy chain d) μ heavy chain 334. Human Class II MHC products include: a) HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C b) H-2K, H-2D c) HLA-DR, HLA-DP, HLA-DQ d) C2, C4 335. Antigen processing is possible in: a) plasma cells b) erythrocytes c) macrophages d) eosinophils 336. Through the process of negative selection in the thymus, the following are eliminated: a) suppressor T lymphocytes b) NK cells c) B lymphocytes d) clones of autoreactive T lymphocytes 337. Coreceptor molecules on the membrane of T lymphocytes are: a) immunoglobulins b) CD4 and CD8 molecules c) Fab fragments of immunoglobulins d) Fc fragments of immunoglobulins 338. Which of the following groups of molecules are not products of T lymphocytes: a) growth factors b) differentiation factors c) chemokines d) immunoglobulins 339. The activation of the complement system via the alternative pathway does NOT involve: a) C1, C2, C4 b) C5, C6, C7 c) C3 d) C8, C9 340. If autoreactive cells are not eliminated by negative selection in the thymus, it will lead to: a) allergic reactions b) autoimmune diseases c) self-tolerance d) serum sickness 341. The Fab fragment of an antibody does NOT include: a) entire light chain b) N-terminus of the light chain c) N-terminus of the heavy chain d) C-terminus of the heavy chain 342. The primary functions of the Fc fragment of an antibody include all EXCEPT: a) passage of antibodies through the placenta b) binding to mast cells and basophils c) antigen recognition d) complement activation 343. The function of B lymphocytes is NOT: a) cytotoxicity b) antibody synthesis c) antigen presentation d) memory 344. Antigen processing is a function of one of the following cells: a) plasma cells b) hepatocytes c) interdigitating dendritic cells d) megakaryocytes 345. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C are: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) nothing d) antibodies 346. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR are: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) nothing d) antibodies 347. CD8+ lymphocytes recognize the immunogenic peptide presented within: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) cytokine receptors d) thyroxine receptors 348. CD4+ lymphocytes recognize the immunogenic peptide presented within: a) Class II MHC products b) Class I MHC products c) cytokine receptors d) thyroxine receptors 349. CD4+ lymphocytes are: a) B lymphocytes b) T helper lymphocytes c) T cytotoxic lymphocytes d) NK cells 350. CD8+ lymphocytes are: a) B lymphocytes b) T helper lymphocytes c) T cytotoxic lymphocytes d) NK cells 351. Lifespan is measured in years for: a) neutrophils b) basophils c) B lymphocytes d) T lymphocytes 352. IgE binds to mast cells via: a) paratope b) epitope c) Fc fragment d) C3 complement component 353. Passes through the placenta: a) IgA b) IgM c) IgD d) IgG 354. Thymus-independent antigens: a) induce IgM production b) reach the thymus c) are proteins d) activate neurons 355. Thymus-dependent antigens: a) induce IgM production b) reach the thymus c) are lipids d) induce the formation of memory B lymphocytes 356. The antigen receptor on the T lymphocyte membrane is: a) sIg b) TCR c) C3b d) LT 357. Phagocytic function is performed by: a. B lymphocyte b. T lymphocyte c. NK cell d. neutrophil 358. CD4+ Th1 subset lymphocytes produce: a. IL-2, IFNγ, IL-12 b. IL-1, IL-7 c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-10 d. TNF, LT, C3a 359. CD4+ Th2 subset lymphocytes produce: a. IL-2, IFNγ, IL-12 b. IL-1, IL-7 c. IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, IL-13 d. antibodies 360. Immunosuppressive therapy is applied in: a. anthrax b. autoimmune diseases c. viral diseases d. HIV infection 361. C1q molecule participates in: a. phagocytosis b. B lymphocyte proliferation c. complement activation d. antigen presentation 362. Characteristics of nonspecific immunity include all of the following EXCEPT: a. absence of memory b. nonspecificity c. absence of discrimination d. selectivity 363. B lymphocytes in humans originate in: a. liver b. tonsils c. bone marrow d. spleen 364. Faster rise and higher concentrations of higher-affinity antibodies are characteristics of: a. complement activation b. MHC synthesis c. autoimmune diseases d. secondary immune response 365. B lymphocyte membrane markers are: a) CD3 and CD8 b) CD5 and CD78 c) sIg d) IgE 366. Positive selection in the thymus eliminates: a) T lymphocytes that do not recognize self-MHC products b) auto-reactive clones of T lymphocytes c) CD56+ cells d) macrophages 367. NK cells kill virus-infected cells: a) with the help of T lymphocytes b) in collaboration with complement c) by activating neutrophils d) directly 368. The secretory component of antibodies is a product of: a) plasma cells b) macrophages c) T lymphocytes d) epithelial cells 369. Carriers of specific immunity are: a) NK cells b) neutrophils c) T and B lymphocytes d) all of the above 370. The site on an antibody that binds to an antigen is called: a) epitope b) paratope c) top d) alloantigen 371. The size of the mononuclear infiltrate in tumor tissue is positively correlated with the prognosis of malignant disease: a) yes b) it\'s irrelevant c) no d) not always 372. The most numerous cells in lymphoreticular infiltrates of tumors are: a) neutrophils b) NK cells c) lymphocytes d) mast cells 373. Which of the following products of malignant cells does NOT modulate the immune response: a) GM-CSF b) M-CSF c) TGF-β d) CO2 374. Which of the following mechanisms does NOT enable tumor cells to evade the immune response: a) absence and/or reduced expression of MHC products b) inadequate presentation of tumor antigens c) synthesis of glucagon d) tolerance to tumor antigens 375. Co-stimulatory molecules include: a) CD4 b) CD3 c) C5a d) CD40 376. Apoptosis of malignant cells can be induced by: a) T lymphocyte b) NK cell c) Antibody d) mononuclear phagocyte 377. TNF (mark the correct answer): a) is a product of Gram-negative bacteria b) is a cytokine c) is a hormone d) never enters circulation 378. Which interleukin modulates the activity of NK cells: a) IL-2 b) IL-5 c) IL-3 d) IL-7 379. Mark the correct statement: a) LAK cells are activated NK cells b) LAK cells are activated macrophages c) LAK cells are activated K cells d) LAK cells are not used in adoptive immunotherapy of malignant diseases 380. LAK cells are generated: a) in vitro, by high doses of IL-2 acting on NK cells b) in vivo, by lymphocyte proliferation c) in vivo, by activation and proliferation of intratumoral NK cells d) in the elderly organism 381. Tumor antigens encoded by viral genomes: a) are specific to the original tumor b) are not specific to just one tumor c) do not exist d) are specific to the virus 382. Cytotoxic CD8+ T lymphocytes: a) recognize tumor antigens in the context of Class II MHC molecules b) recognize specific hydrocarbon tumor antigens c) recognize tumor antigens in the context of Class I MHC molecules d) do not recognize tumor cells 383. The membrane marker of cytotoxic T lymphocytes is: a) CD4 b) CD8 c) sIg d) CD16 384. The mechanism of cytotoxic action of CD8+ T lymphocytes includes: a) nitric oxide b) oxygen free radicals c) IFN-γ d) perforin 385. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes can induce apoptosis of malignant cells: a) yes b) no c) sometimes d) only in metastases 386. Citotoxic T lymphocytes induce apoptosis of malignant cells via: a) IFN-α b) Fas ligand c) nitric oxide d) antibodies 387. Differentiation of pre-cytotoxic into cytotoxic T lymphocytes requires: a) IL-2 b) IL-3 c) accessory action of nurse cells of the thymus d) thymosin, thymopoietin, thymulin 388. IL-12 is significant for the activation of macrophages. a) IL-2 b) IL-12 c) IFN-γ d) PGE2 389. Macrophages express: a) Class I MHC molecules b) Class II MHC molecules c) TCR d) IgG 390. Macrophages can kill tumor cells by: a) TNF-α b) CD28 c) perforin d) granzymes 391. Macrophages recognize tumor antigens: a) in the context of Class I MHC molecules b) in the context of Class II MHC molecules c) via lectin, thrombospondin, and phosphatidylserine receptors d) accidentally 392. Macrophages can phagocytose neoplastic cells: a) no b) it doesn\'t matter c) only when the malignant cell is tagged with antibodies (ADCC) d) yes 393. Mark the correct statement: a) TAMs are tumor-activated macrophages b) TAMs express high levels of Class II MHC molecules c) TAMs cannot present tumor antigens d) TAMs are hepatocytes 394. TAMs can induce tumor neovascularization: a) no b) yes c) only in secondary foci d) only on Thursdays 395. Non-specific immunotherapy of tumors includes: a) \"vaccination\" with irradiated tumor cells b) LAK cell therapy c) therapy with activated macrophages d) vaccination with attenuated BCG and Corynebacterium parvum