20241215.pdf PDF - Human Anatomy Exam Questions
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These are questions related to Human Anatomy. There appears to be some instruction for the types of answers required. Questions are for examination purposes or practice, and cover various aspects of anatomy.
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# **Instructions:** Write the correct answer legibly and do not use abbreviations. 1. What is the name of the vertical planes that cross the body parallel to the midsagittal plane? 2. What is the term of relationship used to indicate that a structure is closer to the midsagittal plane? 3. What term...
# **Instructions:** Write the correct answer legibly and do not use abbreviations. 1. What is the name of the vertical planes that cross the body parallel to the midsagittal plane? 2. What is the term of relationship used to indicate that a structure is closer to the midsagittal plane? 3. What term describes a structure that is further from the root of a limb or point of origin? 4. What is the term of movement that means moving away from the midsagittal plane? 5. What is the term of movement of rotation of the forearm when the radius rotates laterally and crosses the ulna (cubitus)? 6. Describe the pulmonary circulation or circuit, considering the most important aspects. (value of the correct answer 5 hits) 7. Write the name of the three main arterial branches of the aortic arch. (Value of the correct answer 3 hits) 8. Write four mechanisms that favor the venous return of blood to the heart. (Value of the correct answer 3 hits) ## **Instructions:** Mark with an (X) the correct answer, only one answer should be marked per question. 9. What type of articulation allows the greatest range of motion? a) Amphiarthrosis b) Diarthrosis c) Synarthrosis d) Synchondrosis 10. What is the name of the connective tissue that attaches muscles to bones? a) Tendon b) Ligament c) Fascia d) Cartilage 11. What muscles connect the axial skeleton to the shoulder girdle and humerus, and produce and control the movements of the upper limbs? a) Extrinsic muscles of the intermediate back b) Superficial extrinsic muscles of the back c) Intrinsic muscles of the back 12. Which are intrinsic muscles of the intermediate layer of the back, except? a) Iliocostal b) Longissimus c) Splenius d) Spinalis 13. Which of the following muscles is an intermediate extrinsic muscle of the back? a) Splenius muscles b) Serratus posterior superior and inferior c) Erector spinae muscles d) Rotators 14. What is the main function of the superficial extrinsic muscles of the back? a) Flex and extend the neck b) Produce and control the movements of the upper limbs c) Typically act as superficial respiratory muscles d) Control the movements of the vertebral column 15. What nerve innervates most of the intrinsic musculature of the back? a) Phrenic nerve b) Spinal nerves c) Sciatic nerve d) Radial nerves 16. What is the intrinsic muscle of the intermediate layer of the back that has insertion on ribs, transverse processes, and the mastoid process of the temporal bone? a) Splenius b) Iliocostal c) Longissimus d) Spinalis ## **Instructions:** Note the corresponding number of the figure in the parentheses of the left-hand column ### **POSTEROSUPERIOR VIEW OF AXIS (C2)** ( ) Transverse process ( ) Articular facet ( ) Vertebral foramen ( ) Dens ( ) Spinous process ( ) Body ( ) Transverse foramen ( ) Inferior articular process ( ) Lamina ## **Instructions:** Mark with an (X) the correct answer, only one answer should be marked per question. 17. What component of a typical rib has a smooth articular portion for the transverse process of the vertebra and a rough portion for the insertion of costotransverse ligament? a) Tubercle b) Angle of the rib c) Head d) Neck 18. Which costal cartilages articulate with the sternum by means of synovial joints that allow movement during respiration? a) From the 1st to the 2nd pair b) From the 20th to the 70th pair c) From the 80th to the 10th pair 19. The irrigation of the thoracic wall is derived from the following arteries, except? a) Cervical artery b) Axillary artery c) Subclavian artery d) Aorta 20. How many pairs of intercostal muscles are there? a) 13 pairs b) 10 pairs c) 11 pairs d) 12 pairs 21. What is the name of the thoracic muscles that are thin muscular strips that extend from the internal surface of the angle of a rib to the internal surface of the second or third inferior rib? a) Transverse muscles b) Subcostal muscles c) Intercostal muscles 22. How many lobes is the parenchyma of the mammary glands made up of? a) 2 to 6 b) 15 to 20 c) 7 to 14 d) 20 to 29 23. What ligaments help support the lobes and lobules of the mammary gland? a) Mammary ligaments b) Suspensory ligaments c) Supporting ligaments 24. What is the name of the dilated portion of the lactiferous ducts where milk droplets accumulate in lactating mothers? a) Lactiferous ducts b) Lobule of the gland c) Lactiferous sinus d) Nipple 25. Which of the following bones is not part of the carpus? a) Scaphoid b) Trapezium c) Trapezoid d) Metacarpal 26. What is the main function of the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus? a) Form the elbow joint b) They serve as insertion and point of support for some scapulohumeral muscles. c) Protect the radial nerve. 27. What thin and fibrous structure connects the interosseous borders of the radius with the ulna (cubitus) in the forearm? a) Forearm fascia b) Radial collateral ligament c) Intermuscular septum d) Interosseous membrane 28. What are the main superficial veins of the upper limb? a) Basilic and cephalic veins b) Subclavian veins 29. What are the cutaneous nerves that innervate the arm and forearm, except? a) Lateral b) Anterior c) Medial d) Posterior 30. Where can the styloid process of the radius be palpated? a) On the lateral side of the wrist b) On the medial side of the wrist c) At the elbow d) At the shoulder 31. What bone forms the tip of the shoulder? a) Coronoid b) Clavicle c) Coracoid d) Acromion 32. Which of the following joints allows the greatest range of motion in the upper limb? a) Elbow joint b) Interphalangeal joint c) Glenohumeral joint d) Wrist joint 33. What is the main muscle responsible for elbow flexion? a) Biceps brachii b) Coracobrachialis c) Brachialis d) Triceps 34. What muscle of the rotator cuff is most frequently injured? a) Supraspinatus b) Infraspinatus c) Subscapularis d) Teres minor ## **Instructions:** Note the corresponding number of the left-hand column in the parentheses of the figure ### **ANTERIOR VIEW OF THE DISTAL EPIPHYSIS OF THE HUMERUS** ( ) Capitulum (condyle) ( ) Lateral epicondyle ( ) Radial fossa ( ) Medial supracondylar crest ( ) Olecranon fossa ( ) Trochlea ( ) Lateral supracondylar crest ( ) Medial epicondyle ( ) Coronoid fossa ( ) Humerus ( ) ## **Instructions:** Mark with an (X) the correct answer, only one answer should be marked per question. 35. Which rotator cuff muscle has its proximal insertion on the lateral border of the scapula and its distal insertion on the inferior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus? a) Supraspinatus b) Infraspinatus c) Teres minor 36. What portion of the axillary artery is located posterior to the pectoralis minor muscle and has two branches: the thoracoacromial artery and the lateral thoracic artery? a) First part b) Second part c) Third part d) Last part 37. What muscles are located in the posterior compartment of the forearm and are innervated by the radial nerve? a) Flexors and pronators b) Lateral and pronators c) Extensors and supinators d) Medial and pronators 38. What is the group of muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm that insert proximally on the medial epicondyle of the humerus by means of a common tendon? a) Superficial layer of flexors b) Deep layer of flexors c) Superficial layer of extensors d) Deep layer of extensors ## **Instructions:** Note the corresponding number of the figure in the parentheses of the left-hand column ### **ANTERIOR VIEW OF THE DIAGRAM OF THE BRACHIAL PLEXUS** ( ) Trunks of the brachial plexus ( ) Anterior branches of the nerves (C5, C6, C7 and T1) ( ) Fascicles of the brachial plexus ( ) Roots of the brachial plexus ( ) Peripheral nerves ( ) Divisions of the brachial plexus ( ) Anterior branches of the nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1) # **Instructions:** Write the correct answer legibly and do not use abbreviations. 1. What is the name of the movement of bringing the lower limb closer to the midsagittal plane? 2. What is the movement that moves the sole of the foot away from the midsagittal plane and rotates it laterally? 3. What part of the skin is a dense layer of interwoven collagen and elastic fibers that gives the skin tone and strength? ## **Instructions:** Mark with an (X) the correct answer. Only one answer should be marked per question 4. What is the correct order of the bones of the carpus, from lateral to medial in the distal row? a) Hamate, capitate, trapezoid, and trapezium b) Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform c) Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate 5. What type of joints are the metacarpophalangeal joints? a) Ellipsoid synovial joints b) Hinge synovial joints c) Saddle synovial joints 6. The tendons of most of the flexor muscles of the hand are kept on the anterior side of the carpus by? a) Tendon sheaths b) Palmar carpal ligament c) Synovial tendon sheaths 7. What is the name of the triangular portion of the deep fascia of the palm of the hand that covers the soft tissues, is thick, strong, and well defined? a) Thenar fascia b) Hypothenar fascia c) Palmar aponeurosis 8. In which compartment is the adductor pollicis muscle located? a) Thenar compartment b) Hypothenar compartment c) Adductor compartment 9. Which of the short muscles of the hand flexes the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints and extends them at the interphalangeal joints? a) Dorsal interosseous muscles b) Palmar interosseous muscles c) Lumbrical muscles 10. What artery has the superficial palmar arch as its main termination? a) Metacarpal palmar arteries b) Ulnar artery c) Radial artery ## **Instructions:** Mark with an (X) the correct answer. Only one answer should be marked per question 11. What nerve does not innervate any muscles of the hand? a) Radial nerve b) Median nerve c) Ulnar nerve 12. What is the bony ring that connects the vertebral column with the two femurs? a) Greater pelvis b) Lesser pelvis c) Pelvic girdle ## **Instructions:** Note the corresponding number of the figure in the parentheses of the left-hand column ### **Inferior view of the perineum, lithotomy position** ( ) Perineal body ( ) Greater sciatic foramen ( ) Iliococcygeus muscle ( ) Urogenital hiatus ( ) Coccygeus muscle ( ) External anal sphincter ( ) Puborectalis muscle ( ) Sacroiliac joint ( ) Anococcygeal ligament ( ) Pubococcygeus muscle ( ) Ischial tuberosity ( ) Sacrospinous ligament ( ) Pubic symphysis ## **Instructions:** Mark with an (X) the correct answer. Only one answer should be marked per question 13. What is the main nerve of the perineum and the main sensory nerve of the external genitalia? a) Pudendal nerve b) Sciatic nerve c) Anococcygeal nerve 14. Lymphatic drainage of the pelvis tends to replicate venous drainage, EXCEPT for? a) Sacral lymph nodes b) Internal iliac lymph nodes c) External iliac lymph nodes 15. Where does lymph from lymph nodes located in the pelvis or adjacent areas drain? a) External iliac lymph nodes b) Common iliac lymph nodes c) Internal iliac lymph nodes 16. The coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three primary bones, EXCEPT for? a) Coccyx b) Ilium c) Ischium ## **Instructions:** Mark with an (X) the correct answer. Only one answer should be marked per question 17. On what part of the proximal epiphysis of the femur do the abductor and rotator muscles of the thigh primarily insert? a) Lesser trochanter b) Greater trochanter c) Intertrochanteric line 18. The patella forms in the tendon of which muscle? a) Pectineus muscle b) Sartorius muscle c) Quadriceps femoris muscle 19. Which part of the superior end of the tibia is the site for the distal insertion of the patellar ligament? a) Tibial tuberosity b) Anterolateral tubercle of the tibia (Gerdy's tubercle) c) Anterior border of the tibia 20. What is the bone of the leg that has the main function of muscle insertion? a) Tibia b) Femur c) Fibula 21. What bone of the tarsus lacks muscle and tendon insertions? a) Calcaneus b) Cuboid c) Talus 22. What is the name of the deep fascia of the leg? a) Fascia lata b) Crural fascia c) Cribriform fascia 23. What is the superficial vein of the lower limb that forms from the union of the dorsal vein of the big toe and the venous arch of the foot, and ascends anterior to the medial malleolus? a) Great saphenous vein b) Small saphenous vein c) Anterior tibial vein 24. What phase of the gait cycle begins when the toes leave the ground and ends when the heel contacts the ground? a) Stance phase b) Swing phase c) Take off 25. What is the name of the medial compartment of the muscles of the thigh, according to their action at the knee joint? a) Adductor b) Extensor c) Flexor 26. What is the main artery of the branches of the femoral artery and the main artery of the thigh? a) Obturator artery b) Profunda femoris artery c) Circumflex femoral artery 27. What muscles make up the triceps coxae, EXCEPT? a) Internal obturator muscle b) External obturator muscle c) Superior and inferior gemellus muscles 28. Which of the following ischiotibial muscles inserts on the fibula? a) Biceps femoris muscle b) Semitendinosus muscle c) None 29. What plexus do the branches of the deep gluteal nerves belong to? a) Brachial plexus b) Lumbar plexus c) Sacral plexus 30. From what arteries do the arteries of the gluteal region originate, directly or indirectly? a) Profunda femoris artery b) Internal iliac arteries c) External iliac arteries 31. What veins are tributaries to the superior and inferior gluteal veins? a) Internal iliac veins b) External iliac veins c) Femoral vein 32. What retinaculum is a strong and wide band of the deep fascia of the leg that extends from the fibula to the tibia, proximal to the malleoli? a) Inferior retinaculum of the extensor muscles b) Superior retinaculum of the extensor muscles c) Inferior retinaculum of the fibular muscles 33. What nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg? a) Superficial fibular nerve b) Deep fibular nerve c) Anterior tibial nerve 34. What are the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg, EXCEPT? a) Third fibular muscle b) Long fibular muscle c) Short fibular muscle 35. Which of the following muscles of the posterior leg share the calcaneal tendon, EXCEPT? a) Gastrocnemius muscle b) Soleus muscle c) Plantar muscle 36. What bones are located in the anatomical region of the hindfoot? a) Talus and calcaneus b) Navicular, cuboid, and cuneiform bones c) Metatarsals and phalanges 37. Which Trojan warrior shot the arrow that killed Achilles in Greek mythology? a) Hector b) Paris c) Agamemnon 38. Which bones of the skull are pneumatized? a) Inferior nasal concha, nasal, and lacrimal bones b) Frontal, temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones c) Mandible, ethmoid, and vomer 39. What artery is the origin of the facial artery? a) External carotid artery b) Internal carotid artery c) Common carotid artery 40. What division of the trigeminal nerve is mainly sensory, but receives motor fibers (axons) from the motor root of the trigeminal nerve (NC V) that innervate most of the muscles of mastication? a) Ophthalmic nerve (NC V1) b) Maxillary nerve (NC V2) c) Mandibular nerve (NC V3) ## **Form and location** - **Greater wing of the sphenoid, squamous portion of the temporal, and frontal and parietal bones.** It is located over the course of the anterior division of the middle meningeal artery. - **Point on the calvaria at the junction of the lambdoid and sagittal sutures** - **Point on the calvaria at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures** - **Highest point of the neurocranium, in the midline with the skull oriented on an anatomical plane (Frankfort plane)** - **Star-shaped, located at the junction of three sutures: parietomastoid, occipitomastoid, and lambdoid.** - **Smooth prominence, more pronounced in males, over the frontal bones, superior to the root of the nose, and is the most anterior part of the forehead.** - **Most prominent point of the external occipital protuberance** - **Point of the skull where the frontonasal and internasal sutures meet.** ==End of OCR==