Test on Tuberculosis PDF

Test on the Tuberculosis History of TB A 1. According to modern view ТВ – is … 1) infectious disease, caused by M.tuberculosis and predominant localization in lungs 2) chronic infectious disease with typical localization in lung tissue 3) chronic i...

Test on the Tuberculosis History of TB A 1. According to modern view ТВ – is … 1) infectious disease, caused by M.tuberculosis and predominant localization in lungs 2) chronic infectious disease with typical localization in lung tissue 3) chronic infectious disease with localization in lymph nodes 4) chronic infectious disease with specific necrosis in lung tissue 2. The most ancient discovery of tuberculosis among people was related to…. 1) infiltrative TB 2) TB of peripheral lymph nodes 3) skin TB 4) backbone TB D 3. The first systemic description of the clinical manifestations and epidemiological features of TB was given by … 1) Aristotle 2) Avicenna 3) Hippocrates C 4) Bartels 4. The supposition about infectious nature of TB was done firstly by …. 1) Aristotle 2) Avicenna 3) Vesalius A 4) Hippocrates 5. The first classical description of miliary TB was done by … 1) Jacob Monget 2) Marten 3) Girolamus Fracastorius A 4) Villemin 6. The term “tuberculosis” was firstly proposed by …. 1) Jacob Monget 2) Laenecc 3) Girolamus Fracastorius B 4) Bayle 7. Physician, who firstly united specific changes in lung tissue and lymphatic nodes in one disease – TB … 1) Fracastorius 2) Antone Villemin D 3) Bayle 4) Laenecc 8. The famous Russian surgeon Pyrogov was connected with …. 1) developing of surgery treatment of TB 2) description of specific necrosis – caseous C 3) description of TB granuloma – giant multinuclear cells 4) description of alveolus macrophages participation in TB inflammation 9. Besides discovery of M.tuberculosis Robert Koch … 1) Improved method of staining of M.tuberculosis 2) Was first who described chest X-ray features of infiltrate in lung 3) Received tuberculin for detecting of infected with TB people C 4) Improved cultural media for growing of M.tuberculosis 10. The scientist who described polymorphic forms of mycobacterium tuberculosis (rode like, granular and coccus like forms) for the first time was … 1) Mechnikov 2) Robert Koch 3) Laenecc A 4) Calmette 11. “Microbe theory” of TB for the first time was supposed by … 1) Jacob Monget 2) Marten 3) Girolamus Fracastorius 4) Antone Villemin C 12. Development of Disseminated Tb in rabbits by insertion of pus from acute TB cavern or lung tissue was demonstrated by … 1) Jacob Monget 2) Marten 3) Girolamus Fracastorius D 4) Antone Villemin 13. Creation of the human vaccine (BCG) for the prevention of TB was related to … 1) Jacob Monget 2) Robert Koch 3) Calmette & Guerin 4) Ziehl & Neelsen C 14. Possibility to compare pathomorphological manifestation of tuberculosis to lifetime tubercular changes in various organs was related with discovery of … 1) Robert Koch 2) W.C. Roentgen 3) Calmette 4) Ziehl & Neelsen B 15. First dispensary for the diagnosis and treatment of TB was opened in … 1) London 2) Paris 3) Edinburgh 4) Bristol C 16. Name of calcified focus on chest X-ray due to primary TB complex is … 1) Ghon’s focus 2) Abricosov’s focus A 3) Aschoff-Paul focus 4) Assman’s focus 17. The round shape infiltrate in lung on chest X-ray for the first time was described by … 1) Ghon 2) Pirogov 3) Assman 4) Aschoff-Paul C 18. Multi-nuclear giant cells in tuberculous granuloma for the first time was described by … 1) Ghon 2) Pirogov-Langhans 3) Assman B 4) Aschoff-Paul 19. Vaccine against TB was made by 1) Mantoux 2) Robert Koch 3) Calmette and Guerin C 4) C. Pirquet 20. Skin allergic test for diagnosis of primary infection with M.tuberculosis was offered by … 1) Mantoux 2) Robert Koch 3) Calmette and Guerin 4) C. Pirquet A Chapter 1. Etiology and pathogenesis of TB 1. M. tuberculosis belongs to … 1) bacteria 2) fungus A 3) protozoa 4) virus 2. The main cause of tuberculosis in human is: 1) M. tuberculosis 2) M. bovis 3) M. africanum A 4) M. microti 3. Modification of mycobacterium tuberculosis occurs first of all under the influence of: 1) vaccination; 2) chemotherapy 3) localization of TB 4) age of patient B 4. Koch bacilli can be transformed due to chemotherapy to: 1) ricketsia 2) viruses 3) L-forms and filtered virus-like forms 4) coccus C 5. Development of resistance of M.tuberculosis to anti-tuberculosis drugs is caused by: 1) natural abilities of mycobacterium tuberculosis to genetic mutations; 2) inadequate treatment (including interruption) with anti-tuberculosis drugs; 3) long treatment by single antituberculosis preparation. D 1) 4) all mentioned 6. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Complex includes all instead of … 1) M. bovis 2) M. africanum 3) M. microti 4) M. avium D 7. Tuberculosis in human is caused by all instead of … 1) M. bovis 2) M. microti 3) M. africanum B 4) M. tuberculosis 8. M. tuberculosis divides every … 1) 4-10 hrs 2) 10-14 hrs 3) 18-24 hrs 4) 25-30 hrs C 9. Growth of M.tuberculosis strain, obtained in clinical settings, on culture media requires … 1) 2-4 days 2) 1 week 3) 2-3 weeks D 4) 4-6 weeks 10. The optimal range of temperature for growth of MBT is … 1) 30-34ºC 2) 34-36ºC 3) 37-38ºC 4) 39-40ºC C 11. Viability of the MBT at 80ºC maintains for... 1) 3 min 2) 5 min 3) 10 min 4) 20 min B 12. Viability of the M.tuberculosis in water maintains maximum up to... 1) 20 days 2) 40days 3) 80 days 4) 150 days D 13. Viability of the M.tuberculosis in frozen state maintains maximum up to... 1) 1 yr 2) 5 yrs C 3) 30 yrs 4) 40 yrs 14. Identification of M.tuberculosis under microscope related to capability… 1) to maintain it’s color after processing with acid 2) to stain with carbol-fuchsine 3) to stain with methylene blue 4) all mentioned D 15. The name of lipid on external membrane of M.tuberculosis, which gives a virulence is … 1) CFP-10 2) ESAT-6 3) tuberculin 4) cord-factor D 16. Clinically L-form of M.tuberculosis first of all is characterized by … 1) low level of metabolism 2) low virulence 3) induce of anti-TB immunity 4) resistance to antiTB chemotherapy A,B,C 17. The main reason of accelerated transformation M.tuberculosis to L-form is … 1) genetic features of person 2) size of cavity in lung tissue 3) long anti-TB treatment C 4) all 18. Positive TST reaction in healthy adults in most of cases related to … 1) post BCG-vaccination allergy 2) post TB changes in lung tissue 3) nonspecific allergy D 4) presence of L-form of MBT in different organs 19. Mutation in inhA gene of M.tuberculosis tells about resistance to … 1) rifampin 2) isoniazid 3) ethambutol B 4) streptomycin 20. Mutation in catG gene of M.tuberculosis tells about resistance to … 5) Rifampin 6) Isoniazid 7) Ethambutol B 8) Streptomycin 21. Mutation in rpoB gene of M.tuberculosis tells about resistance to … 1) Rifampin 2) Isoniazid 3) Ethambutol 4) Streptomycin A 22. The main way of transmission of MBT is: A 1) air-borne 2) alimentary 3) transplacental 4) contact 23. More frequent localization of TB in adults is … 1) gastro intestinal tract 2) excretory organs 3) lung tissue 4) lymphatic system C 24. More frequent localization of TB in children is … 1) gastro intestinal tract 2) excretory organs D 3) lung tissue 4) lymphatic system 25. Air-borne way of TB infection is more typical for following group of high risk.. 1) prison TB 2) HIV-infection 3) contact with SSP C 4) diabetes mellitus 26. Low sensitivity of M.tuberculosis to many antibiotics related to … 1) low frequency of division 2) highly hydrophobic cell surface B 3) high level of metabolism 4) expression of cord-factor on the surface of membrane 27. Multidrug resistance is characterized by.. 1) resistance to Isoniazid & Streptomycin 2) resistance to Isoniazid & Ethambutol C 3) resistance to Isoniazid & Rifampicin 4) resistance to Rifampicin & Fluroquinolons 28. More dangerous factor for M.tuberculosis transmission to another is … 1) long time exposure to SSP 2) immunodeficiency 3) small age A 4) absent of BCG-vaccination at birth 29. Main mechanism of nonspecific resistance to M.tuberculosis on the surface of bronchi related to … 1) antibodies to M.tuberculosis 2) T-lymphocytes 3) alveolar macrophages C 4) B-lymphocytes 30. The basic type of allergic reaction in tuberculosis is: 1) immediate response 2) delayed response 3) late response B 4) anaphylaxis 31. The first morphological reaction at invasion and multiplication of mycobacterium tuberculosis in the focus of tissue damage is: 1) formation of caseous necrosis 2) formation of tuberculosis granuloma 3) fibrotic response B 4) calcification 32. Specific morphological reaction for tuberculosis inflammation is the accumulation in the focus of damage: 1) T-lymphoid cells 2) neutrophil cells C 3) epithelioid cells and multinuclear giant cells of Pirogov–Langhance 4) fibrous tissue 33. More specific for tuberculosis granuloma in comparison to other granulomatous diseases is presence of … 1) CD4+ lymphocytes D 2) neutrophils 3) epithelioid cells and multinuclear giant cells of Pirogov–Langhance 4) caseous necrosis 34. Primary TB is... 1) TB, revealed for the first time 2) TB, detected in adults 3) TB, detected in teenagers D 4) TB, developed after and due to primary infection by M.tuberculosis 35. Localization of inflammation in case of primary TB is more typical in … 1) lung tissue 2) periferal lymph nodes 3) pleura C 4) intrathoracic lymph nodes 36. Primary tuberculosis complex consists of: 1) focus in lungs and tuberculosis of regional lymph nodes 2) focus in lung, specific lymphangitis and tuberculosis of regional lymph nodes 3) lung infiltration 4) changes in peripheral lymph nodes B 37. One of the paraspecific reactions in case of TB of children & teenagers is … 1) cough 2) enlargement in a few group of peripheral lymph nodes 3) revmatoid Poncet C 4) all mentioned 38. More frequent localization of TB in peripheral lymph nodes is … 1) neck 2) inguinal 3) axillary A 4) mesenteric  39. Concept of exogenic super infection includes: B 1) mycobacterium penetration from the outside into earlier not infected organism 2) penetration of mycobacterium from the outside into already infected organism 3) repeated penetration of mycobacterium from the outside in previously non infected organism 4) transmission of TB infection throw the air-born way 40. Endogenic reinfection is: 1) activation of the focus of tuberculosis infection with hidden process in an organism 2) occurrence of the focus of tuberculosis infection in internal organs as consequence of exogenous A penetration of the infection into organism 3) activation of the focus of tuberculosis infection in hidden process due to new penetration of infection into organism 4) reversion of L-form of M.tuberculosis 41. Distribution of a tuberculosis infection in case of disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis can be by all ways but … 1) haematogenic 2) lymphagenic D 3) bronchogenic 4) lympho-haematogenic 42. In case of hematogenic disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis localization of process is in : 1) arterioles 2) venules 3) capillaries B 4) arteries 43. The typical size of the foci in lungs in case of miliary tuberculosis is: 1) small 2) medium A 3) large 4) various 44. The secondary tuberculosis is: 1) tuberculosis of adults 2) pulmonary tuberculosis 3) TB, developed in person infected C with M.tuberculosis in past 4) TB in SSP 45. TB process in case of Focal pulmonary TB usually covers all but … 1) one segment of lungs 2) one-two segments of lungs 3) one-two segments of both lungs D 4) at least two lobes 46. The infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis is: 1) pulmonary tuberculosis with clinical symptoms of pneumonia 2) pulmonary tuberculosis, characterized by inflammatory changes with prevalence of exudative component and caseous necrosis 3) acute inflammation in lung tissue 4) limited shadow in lung B  47. Clinical form of pulmonary TB, which looks like pneumonia according to CXR and clinical symptoms, is.. 1) Focal TB 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Fibrous cavernous TB B 4) Tuberculoma of lung 48. The main morphological difference between caseous pneumonia and infiltrative tuberculosis is: 1) big volume of process 2) prevalence of caseous necrosis 3) heavy intoxication B 4) capability to bronchogenic dissemination 49. Tuberculoma of lungs is represented by: 1) focus of caseous necrosis with size more than 10 mm surrounded by a zone of specific granulated tissue 2) focus of caseous necrosis with size more than 10 mm, surrounded by connective tissue capsule B 3) round shape zone of specific inflammation in lung 4) tuberculosis cavern, filled up by caseous mass 50. Cavernous TB is : 1) fresh limited destructive tuberculosis with a cavity, surrounded by thin fibrotic capsule, and without intensive perifocal reaction around it A 2) fresh destructive tuberculosis with cavity at the end of the basic course of chemotherapy 3) zone of caseous necrosis with perifocal inflammation 4) acute cavity with size more than 2 cm 51. Among most virulent Mycobacteria for human are all, but … 1) M.tuberculosis 2) M. bovis C 3) M. microti 4) M. africanum 52. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the major cause of tuberculosis in human in … 1) 45% of cases 2) 65% of cases 3) 80% of cases D 4) 95% of cases 53. Mycobacteria not included into the M. tuberculosis complex can cause diseases – mycobacteriosis is … 1) M.tuberculosis 2) M. avium B 3) M. africanum 4) M. bovis 54. Clinical strains of MBT require for growth on the routine medium … 1) 1-2 days 2) 10-20 days 3) 4-6 weeks C 4) 7-8 weeks  55. Diagnostic features of Ziehl–Neelsen method based on capability of M.tuberculosis in contrast to other bacteria … 1) susceptibility to sulphuric acid 2) susceptibility to carbol-fuchsine A 3) resistance to methylene blue 4) resistance to sulphuric acid 56. Sequence of steps for Ziehl–Neelsen method is … 1) adding of sulphuric acid -> washing -> carbol-fuchsine-> washing -> methylene blue C 2) adding of methylene blue -> washing -> sulphuric acid -> washing -> carbol-fuchsine 3) adding of carbol-fuchsine -> washing -> sulphuric acid -> washing -> methylene blue 4) adding of sulphuric acid -> washing -> methylene blue -> washing -> carbol-fuchsine 57. Inspiration of aerozole that contains M.tuberculosis is typical for … 1) air-droplet transmission of infection 2) air-dust transmission of infection A 3) contact transmission of infection 4) vertical transmission of infection 58. Judicial process in Luebeck (mistaken infection of 252 infants by Kiel strain) is the evidence of … 1) air-born transmission of infection 2) alimentary transmission of infection B 3) contact transmission of infection 4) vertical transmission of infection 59. Localization of TB in mesenterial lymph nodes is typical for 1) air-born transmission of infection 2) contact transmission of infection 3) alimentary transmission of infection C 4) vertical transmission of infection 60. High mortality of newborns due to TB within first days after born more frequently shows … 1) air-born transmission of infection 2) contact transmission of infection 3) alimentary transmission of infection C 4) vertical transmission of infection 61. Main gate of TB infection is … 1) upper airway 2) digestive tract 3) low airway A 4) skin 62. The basic movement of sputum throwing particles occurs directly in front of the patient on distance … 1) 1 m 2) 2 m A 3) 3 m 4) 5 m 63. Induction of immune response in host in not immunized body corresponds to … 1) 1st stage of infection C 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 64. Proliferation of survived MBT in alveolar macrophages of airways after inspiration of sputum particles of SSP corresponds to … 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection B th 4) 4 stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 65. Swallowing MBT by the alveolar macrophages of the non immunized organism in airways corresponds to … 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection A 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 66. Development of nonnegative response to TST in host after infection corresponds to … 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection C th 5) 5 stage of infection 67. Reactivation of TB focus in lung tissue and development of caseous necrosis resulting in appearance of cavity corresponds to … 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection C 5) 5th stage of infection 68. Expectoration of sputum contaminated by MBT and subsequent infection of another person corresponds to … 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection D 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 69. The basis of TB inflammation is … 1) Immediate-type hypersensitivity 2) Delayed-type hypersensitivity B 3) Late-type hypersensitivity 4) Idiosyncrasy 70. The latent TB infection is such infectious process, at which …  1) presence of virulent MBT occurs without clinical symptoms and CXR changes 2) early clinical manifestations of TB are present A 3) there are typical changes of TB on CXR without symptoms 4) (+) TST in combination with (-) IGRA-test Epidemiology of TB 1. Infection is an epidemiologic parameter which is … 1) % patients with CXR(+) changes 2) % persons with of post-BCG allergy D 3) % of persons with hyperergic response to TST 4) % of persons with nonnegative response to TST with the exception of post-BCG allergy 2. Incidence rate of TB is … 1) % of new cases of active TB (events) occurring in an identified population over a time period 2) the number of new cases of active TB (events) occurring in an identified population over a time period (per 100 000 of population) B 3) % of sputum-smear positive patients (SSP) identified over a time period 4) the number of active TB patients in general population 3. Prevalence of tuberculosis is … 1) % of new cases of TB occurring in an identified population over a time period 2) % of sputum-smear positive patients (SSP) identified over a time period C 3) number of patients with active forms of tuberculosis in a population at the end of the year per 100 000 population 4) number of active TB patients in general population in % 4. A cumulative morbidity of tuberculosis closely related to … 1) infection of TB 2) prevalence of tuberculosis 3) incidence rate of TB B 4) coverage of population by fluorography 5. Infected with TB persons are those, who are … 1) carriers of MBT without clinical manifestation and active TB changes in organs and tissues 2) all TST(+) patients A 3) all patients with post TB changes on CXR 4) all IGRA(+) patients 6. Active TB patients are those which in most of cases… 1) TST(+) 2) IGRA(+) 3) have symptoms of TB D 4) SSP(+) and CXR(+) 7. The high incidence rate of tuberculosis corresponds to : 1) less than 30 new cases of TB per 100.000 population 2) 30-60 new cases of TB per 100.000 population 3) 60-90 new cases of TB per 100.000 population D 4) more than 100 new cases of TB per 100.000 population 8. Number of infected with MBT persons in high burden for TB countries … 1) < 10% of general population 2) ~1/3 of general population C 3) ~2/3 of general population 4) more than 90% of general population 9. One untreated sputum smear positive patient usually infects per year … 1) 50 persons 2) 20 persons 3) 5-10 persons B 4) 1-3 persons 10. The Notified incidence of TB in India last 5 years corresponds to … 1) 40-60 new cases per 100.000 population 2) 80-100 new cases per 100.000 population 3) 100-150 new cases per 100.000 population 3) >200 new cases per 100.000 population C 11. % of HIV associated with active TB persons in South Africa last 5 years corresponds to … 1) 1-5% 2) 6-20% 3) 25-50% C 4) more than 50% 12. Number of deaths due to TB in mortality of HIV patients corresponds to … 1) 5-10% 2) 20-30% 3) 40-50% B 4) more than 50% 13. In 2014 TB was a reason of death over the World of … 1) 0,5 millions 2) 1,0 millions 3) 1,5 millions C 4) 3 millions 14. Number of new cases of TB over the World in 2014 was … 1) 5,1 millions people 2) 8,3 millions people 3) 9,6 millions people C 4) 10,5 millions people 15. Among infectious diseases, tuberculosis, as the reason of death occupies: 1) 1st place 2) 5th place 3) 6th place 4) 8th place A 16. The Notified incidence of TB in Republic of Tatarstan in 2014 was … 1) ~150 new cases per 100.000 population 2) ~100 new cases per 100.000 population 3) ~80 new cases per 100.000 population 4) ~40 new cases per 100.000 population C 5) ~10 new cases per 100.000 population D 17. India as high burden country of TB gives … 1) ~10% of all new cases of TB over the World 2) ~20% of all new cases of TB over the World 3) ~30% of all new cases of TB over the World 4) ~40% of all new cases of TB over the World 5) ~50% of all new cases of TB over the World 18. Maximal morbidity of TB in Russia Federation was in 1) 1991 2) 2000 B 3) 2008 4) 2014 19. Number of infected with MBT healthy persons over the World is 1) ~1/10 of population 2) ~1/3 of population 3) ~1/2 of population B 4) more than 90% of population 20. Number of HIV infected patients among active TB in countries of South Africa … 1) 5-10% 2) 10-30% 3) 40-50% C 4) more than 50% 21. Chance of developing of TB during life in HIV associated TB patient is 1) ~5-10% 2) ~10-20% C 3) ~ 50% 4) more than 60% 22. A patient who has never had treatment for TB or who has taken antituberculosis drugs for less than 1 month belongs to … 1) chronic case of TB 2) relapse C 3) new case of TB 4) active form of TB 23. A patient previously treated for TB who has been declared cured or treatment completed, and is diagnosed with bacteriologically positive (smear or culture) tuberculosis belongs to … 1) new case of TB 2) relapse 3) chronic case of TB B 4) active form of TB 24. In high burden for TB countries TB of adults in most of case belongs to … 1) primary TB 2) secondary TB 3) chronic TB 4) relapse B 25. In high burden for TB countries TB of children & teenagers belongs to … 1) primary TB 2) secondary TB 3) chronic TB A 4) relapse 26. Detection of active TB on the basis of TST is typical for 1) age up to 14 2) age 15-17 years 3) age 25-40 years A 4) age more than 55 27. Morbidity of TB meningitis of children in Russia at the moment is … 1) 60 per 100.000 children 2) 10-15 per 100.000 children D 3) 1-2 per 100.000 children 4) less 10 cases 28. Prison TB in Russia covers … 1) 2-3% of all new TB cases 2) 10-12% of all new TB cases B 3) 15-20% of all new TB cases 4) 20-25% of all new TB cases 29. Relapse of TB in Russia covers … 1) 2-3% of all new TB cases 2) 10-12% of all new TB cases 3) 15-20% of all new TB cases C 4) 20-25% of all new TB cases 30. MDR-TB in Russia covers … 1) 2-3% of all new TB cases 2) 10-15% of all new TB cases C 3) 20-25% of all new TB cases 4) 30-35% of all new TB cases Diagnosis of TB 1. The most specific attribute of cough in case of active TB diagnosis is … 1) appearance early in the morning 2) on exertion 3) unknown reason and duration more than 2-3 weeks C 4) connection with cigarette smoking 2. The most typical symptom of TB in comparison to other airway disease is 1) dry or productive cough 2) high temperature 3) weight loss 4) dyspnea C 3. The most obvious clinical symptom which corresponds to caseous process (cavity) in lung tissue is … 1) heavy intoxication 2) dyspnea D 3) fever 4) hemoptysis (cough with blood) 4. Antibiotic with high level of activity against MBT belongs to … 1) aminopenicillins 2) fluoroquinolones 3) cephalosporins B 4) macrolides 5. For the differential diagnostics of TB with pneumonia most important is … 1) level of temperature 2) level of leukocytosis 3) onset of disease D 4) effect of antibiotics 6. In comparison to pneumonia for TB most typical is 1) acute onset 2) gradual onset 3) asymptomatic onset D 4) 2 and 3 7. The onset of respiratory TB mostly depends on … 1) clinical form of TB 2) gender 3) age A 4) localization of TB 8. In case of combination of cough and fever as symptoms of TB it’s necessary to make differential diagnosis first of all with … 1) HIV 2) tumor of lung C 3) flu 4) COPD 9. Most fast method of verification of respiratory TB is … 1) clinical diagnostics 2) culture method C 3) microscopy of sputum 4) fluorography 10. Most common method of active diagnosis of TB in children is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Ziehl-Neelsen C 3) TST 4) blood investigation 11. Ratio between active and non active case-detection of TB is approximately … 1) 2 : 1  2) 1 : 1 B 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 3 12. In the last decades, one of a new and most powerful factors of increasing TB morbidity was … 1) diabetes mellitus 2) peptic ulcer 3) COPD D 4) HIV 13. Detection of new TB case by fluorography in combination with good general condition is most typical for … 1) TB pleurisy 2) infiltrative TB D 3) disseminated TB 4) focal TB 13. Detection of new TB case on the basis of symptoms (temperature, cough, night sweats) and heavy general condition most typical for … 1) TB pleurisy 2) caseous pneumonia 3) disseminated TB 4) focal TB B 14. For TB pleurisy most typical is … 1) isolated character 2) perifocal character 3) neutrophil exudate C 4) old age 15. Most typical for TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is … 1) acute onset 2) infiltration in upper lobe of lung D 3) rales in lungs 4) absence of positive effect to broad spectrum antibiotics 16. One of the most important signs, that should raise suspicion of possible tuberculosis, is 1) cough is productive 2) onset is acute C 3) that the symptoms are developing gradually over weeks or months 4) temperature is febrile and wave form 17. Main method of active diagnosis of TB in children is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Zeihl-Neelsen 3) PCR D 4) TST 18. Main method of active diagnosis of TB in adults in India is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Zeihl-Neelsen B 3) PCR 4) TST 19. Main method of active diagnosis of TB in adults in Russia is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Zeihl-Neelsen 3) PCR A 4) TST 20. Most high probability that patient is sputum-smear positive is … 1) hemoptysis 2) infiltrative TB of upper lobe 3) acute onset of TB A 4) heavy intoxication 21. Most high probability that patient is sputum-smear positive is … 1) TB pleurisy 2) infiltrative TB 3) tuberculomas of lung D 4) caseous pneumonia 22. Absence of symptoms and detection by fluorography is most typical for … 1) infiltrative TB 2) caseous pneumonia 3) tuberculomas of lung C 4) disseminated TB 23. It is necessary to take into consideration long development of TB during at least 2 years for diagnosis of … 1) infiltrative TB 2) caseous pneumonia D 3) tuberculomas of lung 4) fibrous cavernous TB 24. Clinical form of TB which looks like pneumonia is … 1) infiltrative TB A 2) disseminated TB 3) tuberculomas of lung 4) fibrous cavernous TB 25. Chest pain in combination with dyspnea, cough, fever is most typical for … 1) caseous pneumonia 2) infiltrative TB 3) TB pleurisy C 4) tuberculomas of lung 26. Weight loss as a symptom of TB on the moment of detection a new case of TB tells about … 1) acute onset of disease 2) gradual onset of disease B 3) asymptomatic onset of disease 4) not typical for TB 27. For cough as a symptom of TB is most typical …  1) connection with smoking 2) connection with dyspnea C 3) duration for 2-3 weeks 4) dry character 28. Between different symptoms of TB in comparison to other lung disease the most typical is … 1) fever 2) cough 3) night sweating C 3) dyspnea 29. What group of antibiotics between recommended for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia makes the detection of M.tuberculosis in sputum of TB patient more difficult ? 1) aminopenicillins 2) fluoroquinolones 3) cephalosporins B 4) macrolides 30. For the diagnosis of negative sputum smear respiratory TB in history of disease is most typical … 1) dry cough 2) acute onset D 3) upper localization of process in lung 4) lack of response to a trial of broadspectrum antimicrobial agents 31. For which forms of tuberculosis symptoms are not typical: 1) focal pulmonary tuberculosis 2) infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis 3) disseminated tuberculosis 4) fibrous- cavernous tuberculosis A 32. For cough as a symptom of TB is most typical … 1) connection with smoking 2) connection with dyspnea 3) hemoptysis C 4) dry character 33. Symptoms of the TB patient … 1) are specific for this disease and make it possible to make differential diagnosis 2) have some features of specificity that makes it possible to suspect tuberculosis of the respiratory B system 3) are nonspecific and can’t be used for suggestion of the TB nature of disease 4) are not informative for detection of TB 34. The only way to confirm TB in everyone who had a cough for more than 3 weeks is … 1) blood investigation 2) chest X-ray C 3) sputum examination for MBT at least 3 times 4) TST 35. For bronchiectasis most typical is … 1) connection with Tobaco smoking  2) chronic cough with purulent sputum since childhood B 3) connection with allergens 4) connection with occupational dust 36. One of the most important signs of symptoms, which should raise suspicion of possible tuberculosis, is 1) acute character of symptoms C 2) seasonal character 3) developing gradually over weeks or months 4) connection with age 37. Dyspnea as early symptom of TB in most of cases is due to all reasons but … 1) an extensive TB process in lung tissue 2) pleural effusion D 3) COPD in anamnesis 4) congestive heart failure 38. For general condition of TB patient most typical is … 1) good health despite long duration of disease 2) acute progression 3) fast development of cachexia 4) connection with age of patient A 39. Most common signs of TB at auscultation of chest is … 1) crepitation in upper lobe 2) absence of abnormal signs 3) wheezing A 4) sound shortening in low parts of lungs 40. Correlation between presence of cavity on Chest X-ray and SSP is … 1) 20-30% 2) 40-50% 3) 60-70% D 4 80-100% Tuberculin Skin test 1. For the first time Tuberculin was extracted from products of M. tuberculosis by … 1) Perquet 2) Geren D 3) C. Mantoux 4) R. Koch 2. TST is method for … 1) verification of primary TB B 2) detection of specific sensitivity caused by MBT or BCG vaccine 3) induction of antituberculous immunity 4) verification of secondary TB 3. For the first time tuberculin was offered for clinical practice by … 1) Perquet 2) Geren C  3) C. Mantoux 4) R. Koch 4. Tuberculin is … 1) water-glycerin extraction from culture of M. tuberculosis A 2) water-glycerin extraction from culture of M. bovis 3) water-glycerin extraction from culture of mycobacterium BCG 4) recombinant proteins produces by Escherichia coli BL21(DE3)/pCFP-ESAT 5. Chemical structure of Diaskintest consists of … 1) water-glycerin extraction from culture of M. tuberculosis D 2) water-glycerin extraction from culture of mycobacterium BCG 3) recombinant proteins produces by M. bovis 4) recombinant proteins produces by Escherichia coli BL21(DE3)/pCFP-ESAT 6. The main thermo-stable component of tuberculin is 1) antigen Cord-factor 2) antigen A60 3) antigen CFP10 B 4) antigen ESAT6 7. Tuberculin as hapten (incomplete antigen) … 1) is capable to produce antituberculous immunity C 2) is capable to produce sensibilization to M. tuberculosis 3) can’t produce antituberculous immunity & produce sensibilization to M. tuberculosis 4) is capable to produce antituberculous immunity only in high doses 8. Tuberculin as allergen … 1) is capable to produce sensibilization to M. tuberculosis 2) is capable to produce antituberculous immunity D 3) can produce skin reaction after 2-3 hours of injection 4) can produce skin reaction in infected with M.tuberculosis person 9. After contamination with M.tuberculosis host body can react to injection of Tuberculin … 1) after 2-3 hour 2) after 2-3 days 3) after 2-3 weeks B 4) after 6-8 weeks 10. The basis of skin response to injection of tuberculin is … 1) immediate type of hypersensitivity 2) delayed type of hypersensitivity 3) late type of hypersensitivity 4) idiosyncrasy B 11. Most common indication for TST is … 1) detection of TB in adults 2) estimation of number of infected with TB person in general population B 3) detection of primary TB infection 4) detection of secondary TB infection 12. For active diagnosis of TB TST is carrying out In Russia …  1) annually up to 15 2) annually up to 7 3) every 6 mo B 4) in case of TB suspicion 13. 0,1 ml of PPD-S includes …. 1) 1 TE 2) 2 TE 3) 5 TE C 4) 8 TE 14. 0,1 ml of PPD-L includes …. 1) 1 TE 2) 2 TE 3) 5 TE B 4) 8 TE 15. The name of first drug form of tuberculin is … 1) purified protein derivative 2) Koch’s alt-tuberculin B 3) liquid form of tubercular allergen purified in standard solution 4) dry purified tuberculin 16. The WHO and the International Union Against Tuberculosis and Lung Disease recommend using PPD-RT23 … 1) PPD-L 2) PPD-S B 3) Koch’s alt-tuberculin 4) PPD-RT23 17.Way of injection of PPD is … 1) intradermally 2) subcutaneously 3) intramuscularly A 4) intravenously 18. Only hyperemia as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction B 4) hyperergic reaction 19. Infiltrate of skin 8 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction C 4) hyperergic reaction 20. Infiltrate of skin 4 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction B  4) hyperergic reaction 21. Infiltrate of skin 15 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction C 4) hyperergic reaction 22. Infiltrate of skin 18 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction D 4) hyperergic reaction 23. Pustule on the surface of skin after injection of PPD is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction D 4) hyperergic reaction 24. Infiltrate of skin 10 mm in size as response to TST in BCG vaccinated 1 year child most probably tells about … 1) conversion of TST 2) primary TB infection C 3) postvaccination allergy 4) nonspecific allergy 25. Infiltrate of skin 10 mm in size as response to TST in BCG vaccinated 5 year child most probably tells about … 1) conversion of TST 2) primary TB infection A 3) postvaccination allergy 4) nonspecific allergy 26. Infiltrate of skin 7 mm in size after negative previous year as response to TST in BCG vaccinated 5 year child most probably tells about … 1) conversion of TST 2) primary TB infection 3) postvaccination allergy A 4) nonspecific allergy 27. Pustule on the surface of skin after injection of PPD in BCG vaccinated 3 year child tells about … 1) conversion of TST 2) primary TB infection 3) postvaccination allergy A 4) nonspecific allergy 28. Response to TST in HIV associated with TB patient … 1) in most of cases will be negative 2) in most of cases will be positive A 3) first of all depends on number CD4+ lymphocytes in blood  4) first of all depends on duration of HIV-infection 29. Contraindication for the TST is … 1) MBT infection in past 2) active tuberculosis 3) HIV-infection D 4) bronchial asthma 30. False-positive response to TST is expected in case of … 1) Sarcoidosis of intrathoracic lymph nodes 2) Psoriasis 3) HIV-infection B 4) Caseous pneumonia 31. False-negative response to TST is expected in case of … 1) Sarcoidosis of intrathoracic lymph nodes 2) Pneumonia 3) Silicosis 4) TB pleurisy A 32. Contraindication for the TST is … 1) MBT infection in past 2) active tuberculosis D 3) HIV-infection 4) quarantine of child infection within 1 mo 33. Indication for IGRA test is all but 1) differential diagnosis of TB and other lung disease D 2) detection of primary infection 3) detection of postvaccination allergy 4) detection of latent TB infection 34. Injection of Diaskintest in child undergone TB is … 1) out of sense because of TB in past 2) indicated for estimation of TB activity 3) indicated for detection of primary TB infection B 4) indicated for detection of postvaccination allergy 35. Negative response to Diaskintest after 6 mo of chemotherapy in child with active primary TB tells about … 1) effective course of chemotherapy 2) immunosuppression A 3) false-negative response 4) sterilization of organism from MBT 36. Diaskintest in contrast with TST 1) can’t detect primary infection 2) can react in case of immunosuppresion C 3) can detect postvaccination allergy 4) can’t detect secondary TB 37. Growing reaction to PPD in child 3 years old after TST conversion …  1) is indication for total examination for active TB 2) is routine response and doesn’t need anything to do 3) needs Diaskintest for detection of primary infection 4) needs to repeat TST 2 mo later 38. Tactics for diagnosis of infection in case of bronchial asthma consists in … 1) supervision only 2) conduction of TST 3) conduction of IGRA-test A 4) direction of a patient to chest X-ray 39. Latent TB infection (LTBI) can be diagnosed on the basis of … 1) sputum investigation for MBT 2) chest X-ray 3) IGRA-test D 4) TST 40. Routine schema of chemoprophylaxis of LTBI consists of … 1) 2-3 mo of Isoniazide daily 2) 4 mo of Isoniazide daily D 3) 6 mo of Isoniazide daily 4) 9 mo of Isoniazide daily 41. Schema of chemoprophylaxis of LTBI of HIV-patient consists of … 1) 2-3 mo of Isoniazide daily 2) 4 mo of Isoniazide daily 3) 6 mo of Isoniazide daily C 4) 9 mo of Isoniazide daily 42. Selection of contingents for BCG-revaccination based on … 1) Diaskintest 2) IGRA-test C 3) TST 4) Koch’s test 43. Indication for BCG-revaccination is 1) negative TST at age of 7 2) doubtful TST at age of 7 3) positive response to Diaskintest A 4) negative response to Diaskintest 44. Most common indication for Diaskintest in child is … 1) age of 5 2) cough for 2-3 weeks 3) age of 10 4) HIV-infection B 45. Features of post-vaccination allergy are all but … 1) annual decrease in size of infiltration 2) non-hyperergic response D 3) maximal manifestation after 1-1,5 years of BCG 4) increase to more than 6 mm in contrast to previous  46. Conversion of TST is A 1) hyperergic response to TST 2) detected for the first time positive response to TST after previous negative 3) size of skin infiltration 11 mm 4) appearance of pustule on the surface of skin 47. Signs of primary infection on the basis of TST are all but … 1) hyperergic response to TST 2) positive response to TST detected for the first time after previous negative C 3) maximal size of skin infiltration after 1st year of BCG-vaccination 4) appearance of pustule on the surface of skin 48. Infiltration 10 mm in size to TST and 12 mm to Diaskintest in 5 year child with changes in root of lung on CXR and HRCT tells about … 1) primary TB infection only 2) high probability of TB in Intrathoracic lymph nodes B 3) high probability of Hodgkin disease 4) high probability of Sarcoidosis in lymph nodes 49. Features of LTBI are all but … 1) changes on CXR similar to TB 2) positive TST 3) positive IGRA-test A 4) sputum smear negative 50. Skin infiltrate in size of 2-4 mm or only hyperemia of any size after TST corresponds to …. 1) positive response 2) doubtful response 3) hyperergic response 4) negative response to B 51. Skin infiltrate more than 5 mm and less than 15 mm in size after TST corresponds to …. 1) positive response 2) doubtful response 3) hyperergic response A 4) negative response to 52. False negative response to TST can be detected in all cases except … 1) healthy not infected patient 2) heavy disseminated TB 3) Hodgkin disease A 4) HIV-infection 53. False positive response to TST can be detected in all cases except … 1) allergic disease 2) vaccination against measles 3) 1 year after BCG-vaccination C 4) psoriasis 54. False positive response to TST can be detected in case of … 1) conversion of TST 2) atopic dermatitis B 3) 1 year after BCG-vaccination 4) infiltrative TB 55. After an injection of PPD an estimation of Mantoux reaction carries out … 1) 1 hour later 2) 12 hour later 3) 24 hour later D 4) 48-72 hour later 56. An estimation of TST result based on measurement all except of… 1) skin itching 2) skin hyperemia 3) skin infiltration A 4) pustule of skin 57. IGRA test based on excretion of gamma-interferon by … 1) dendritic cells 2) alveolar macrophages 3) CD4+ lymphocytes 4) B-lymphocytes C Microbiology 1. Multi-drug resistance of M.tuberculosis is … 1) resistance to Isoniazid & Streptomycin 2) resistance to Isoniazid & Riphampicin B 3) resistance to Isoniazid & Fluoroquinolones 4) resistance to Riphampicin & Streptomycin 2. Extremely-drug resistance of M.tuberculosis is … 1) MDR plus resistance to Streptomycin 2) MDR plus resistance to Fluoroquinolones 3) MDR plus resistance to Ethambutol D 4) MDR plus resistance to Fluoroquinolones & Aminoglycosides 3. Most fast diagnostics of MDR based on … 1) BACTEC 2) culture method 3) PCR-diagnostics C 4) microscopy of sputum 4. Growth of M.tubeculosis on Lowenstein-Jensen media is expecting in average after … 1) 1 weeks 2) 2-3 weeks C 3) 4-6 weeks 4) 8-10 weeks 5. Culture method of diagnostics based on … 1) visual identification of M.tuberculosis 2) identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M.tuberculosis DNA A 4) identification of M.tuberculosis metabolism level 6. Culture method of diagnostics based on … 1) visual identification of M.tuberculosis 2) visual identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M.tuberculosis DNA B 4) identification of M.tuberculosis metabolism level 7. Microscopy method of diagnostics based on … 1) visual identification of M.tuberculosis 2) visual identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M.tuberculosis DNA A 4) identification of M.tuberculosis metabolism level 8. BACTEC based on … 1) visual identification of M.tuberculosis 2) visual identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M.tuberculosis DNA D 4) identification of M.tuberculosis metabolism level 9. Fluorescence phenomenon is used in … 1) PCR diagnostics 2) BACTEC 3) Lowenstein-Jensen media B 4) routine microscopy of sputum 10. The most clinical value for negative prognosis the detection of M.tuberculosis has in case of … 1) microscopy investigation 2) BACTEC A 3) culture method 4) PCR 11. The main disadvantage of microscopy for the beginning of treatment is … 1) low sensitivity 2) long time of procedure 3) inability of identification drug susceptibility 4) low specificity C 12. The method of using the bronchial washing increases results of culture investigation of … 1) 5-8% B 2) 10-20% 3)25-30% 4) 40-50% 13. The most simplest way to increase sensitivity of microscopy is … 1) to use more than one microbiologist 2) to use at least 3 samples of sputum 3) to use gastric washings B 4) to use induction of sputum 14. Instillation of 15-20 ml of saline solution into trachea is named as … 1) broncho-alveolar lavage 2) induction of sputum 3) bronchial washings C 4) laryngeal washings 15. Acid-fast feature of M.tuberculosis based on … 1) presence of cord-factor 2) mycolic acids of the cell capsule 3) CFP10 peptide B 4) slow duplication 16. The cell capsule of M.tuberculosis includes … 1) 5% of lipids 2) 10% of lipids 3) 20% of lipids D 4) 60% of lipids 17. At the Zeihl-Neelsen stain M.tuberculosis look like … 1) gray on the blue background 2) red on the blue background 3) blue on the red background B 4) bright yellow on the blue background 18. BACTEC in comparison to culture method has it’s advantage due to … 1) use of the Middlebrook media 2) automatic system of control C metabolism 3) detection of early signs of M.tuberculosis 4) special settings of cultivation 19. The most fast diagnostics of drug resistance maybe reached by … 1) use of Middlebrook media in BACTEC 2) PCR diagnostics B 3) use of MGIT (mycobacterium growth indicator tube) 4) IFA-diagnostics 20. Number of SSP in new cases of TB in Russia is approximately … 1) 35-40% 2) 50-55% A 3) 60-65% 4) 75-80% 21. The greatest number of SSP is typical for … 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung C 3) Infiltrative TB 4) TB pleurisy 22. Denaturation is a phase of … 1) preparation of sputum for microscopy 2) preparation of sputum for culture C 3) first step of PCR 4) second step of PCR  23. The most sensitive method of identification of M.tuberculosis is … 1) microscopy of sputum 2) culture method 3) automated system BACTEC D 4) PCR diagnostics 24. The reason of drug-resistant mutant selection is … 1) inadequate treatment 2) spontaneous resistance 3) presence of wild strains A 4) late diagnostics of TB 25. The reason of primary resistance is … 1) inadequate treatment for more than 1 mo 2) long exposure with MDR-TB patient 3) late diagnostics of TB C 4) chronic curse of TB 26. The reason of secondary resistance is … 1) inadequate treatment for more than 1 mo 2) long exposure with MDR-TB patient 3) late diagnostics of TB A 4) chronic curse of TB 27. Polyresistance (combined) is … 1) MBT resistance to Isoniazid & Riphampicin 2) MBT resistance to two or more anti-tuberculosis drugs without resistance to Isoniazid & B Rifampicin 3) MBT resistance to Fluoroquinolones & Streptomycin 4) MBT resistance to Ethambutol & Streptomycin 28. Number of new case of TB with MDR in Russia is … 1) 3-5% 2) 6-10% 3) 15-20% C 4) 20-25% 29. Successful treatment of new case of TB during initial faze of chemotherapy is limited by … 1) slow growth of MBT on culture media (1-1,5 mo) 2) high frequency of adverse reaction to antiTb drugs 3) slow involution of changes on chest X-ray A 4) slow inverse dynamics of symptoms 30. Genetic mutants of MBT with resistance to antituberculous drugs can be detected by … 1) BACTEC 960 2) immunosorbent assay 3) PCR C 4) use of special media 31. Acquired (secondary) resistance of mycobacterium tuberculosis is: 1) drug resistance of mycobacterium tuberculosis developed during treatment of tuberculosis A 2) drug resistance, which is revealed among mycobacterium, produced from the patient who has never takes anti-tubercular preparations 3) infection by resistant strain of mycobacterium tuberculosis 4) TB developed outside the hospital 32. During treatment with single or combination of inadequately chosen anti-tuberculous drugs, resistance of mycobacterium tuberculosis can be developed in: 1) 2-3 weeks 2) 2-3 months 3) 4-6 months A 3) in one year 33. MDR-TB increases course of antituberculous treatment up to … 1) 1-2 mo 2) 3-4 mo 3) 5-6 mo D 4) 10-12 mo Chest X-ray 1. Favorite localization of secondary TB is 1) S 1-2-6 2) S 9-10 A 3) S 3-4 4) S 8 2. Favorite localization of primary TB is 1) upper lobe 2) low lobe 3) middle lobe 4) root of lung (hilar) D 3. Radiologic method which gives possibility to estimate internal structure of shadow is … 1) anterior-posterior chest X-ray 2) fluorography C 3) tomography 4) chest X-ray in lateral view 4. X-ray examination in case of respiratory diseases should begin with … 1) fluorography with anterior-posterior and lateral view 2) radioscopy in various projections 3) chest X-ray in anterior-posterior and lateral projections C 4) tomography of lungs in anterior-posterior and lateral projections 5. For estimation of chest X-ray film rigidity it is necessary … 1) to compare intensity of shadow and ribs 2) to measure distance between clavicles 3) to look at the position of scapulae D 4) to look at the fissures between Th1-Th4 6. Position of S1 on anterior-posterior view of chest X-ray corresponds to … 1) so called «student’s caverns» 2) second intercostal space 3) lateral sinuses A 4) medial corner 7. On normal chest X-ray upper level of diaphragm in healthy person corresponds to … 1) 4-th rib 2) 5-th rib 3) 6-th rib C 4) 7-th rib 8. Segments with predominant projection on back surface are … 1) S 3, 4, 5 2) S 8 3) S 2, 6, 8 C 4) S 1 9. Normally position of root lung body corresponds to … 1) 1st intercostal space – 3-th rib 2) 3rd intercostal space – 5-th rib 3) 2nd intercostal space – 4-th rib C nd th 4) 2 -4 rib 10. Root of lung has normally … 1) round shape 2) cylindrical form 3) butterfly shape 4) polygonal form B 11. Name of upper part of lung root is … 1) “body“ (corpus) 2) “tail“ (cauda) 3) “head“ (caput) C 4) “neck“ 12. Low branches of pulmonary artery form a … 1) “body“ of lung root 2) “tail“ of lung root B 3) “head“ of lung root 4) “neck“ of lung root 13. Middle lobe of right lung consists of … 1) S2, S3 2) S3, S4 3) S4, S5 D 5) S6, S5 14. Part of pulmonary artery by which it exit out of mediastinum is … 1) “body“ 2) “tail“ 3) “head“ C 4) “neck“ 15. On lateral view the point which defines projection of main fissure is … 1) bifurcation of trachea 2) main bronchus 3) 5th rib A 4) 6th rib 16. Low-lateral position on chest X-ray has … 1) S2 2) S6 3) S8 D 4) S10 17. Position in front of lung root on anterior-posterior view of chest X-ray has … 1) S2 2) S6 B 3) S8 4) S10 18. Shadow with size less than 1,5 cm is … 1) round shape shadow 2) diffuse shadow 3) limited shadow D 4) focus 19. Shadow with size more than 1,5 cm and less than 2/3 of lung field is … 1) round shape shadow 2) diffuse shadow 3) limited shadow C 4) focus 20. Shadow with size more than 2/3 of lung field is … 1) round shape shadow 2) diffuse shadow 3) limited shadow B 4) focus 21. A lot of foci within two intercostal spaces is … 1) dissemination 2) group of foci 3) node B 4) local shadow 22. A lot of foci which occupy more than two intercostal spaces is … 1) dissemination 2) group of foci 3) node A 4) local shadow 23. Shadow with density equals to low border of posterior rib has … 1) middle intensity 2) low intensity 3) high intensity A 4) very high intensity 24. Calcification on chest X-ray has … 1) middle intensity 2) low intensity C 3) high intensity 4) very low intensity 25. Infiltrate on chest X-ray in most of cases has … 1) middle intensity 2) low intensity 3) high intensity B 4) very low intensity 26. Section of tomography which goes throw the hilar of lung is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section 4) lateral section C 27. Section of tomography which goes throw the third segments is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section 4) lateral section A 28. Section of tomography which goes throw the sixth segments is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section C 4) lateral section B 29. Section of tomography which goes throw the eight segments is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section B 4) lateral section 30. Section of tomography on which only lateral parts of ribs are seen is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section C 4) lateral section 31. Limited shadow in S1, S2 with size 5 10 cm heterogeneous low density with nonprecise border and lucency in the center corresponds to …. 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 3) Infiltrative TB C 4) Disseminated TB 32. Round shape shadow in S2 with size 2 cm homogeneous middle density with precise border corresponds to …. 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung B 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Disseminated TB 33. Group of foci with size less than 1 cm in S1-2 of lung with nonprecise border low density corresponds to … A 1) Focal TB 2) Primary Tb complex 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Disseminated TB 34. Both side dissemination in all parts of lung with size of foci 1-2 mm corresponds to … 1) Disseminated TB 2) Focal TB 3) Miliary TB C 4) Tuberculomas o lung 35. Limited homogeneous shadow low density with nonprecise oblique border and localization in costa-diaphragmatic angle corresponds to … 1) Caseous pneumonia 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB B 4) Disseminated TB 36. Diffuse heterogeneous, middle density shadow within whole lung with a few giant caverns more than 5 cm in size and dissemination into ipsilateral lung corresponds to … 1) Caseous pneumonia 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB A 4) Disseminated TB 37. Combination of changes in root of lung, infiltrate 2-3 cm in diameter and connection between the root and infiltrate corresponds to …. 1) TB of Intrathoracic Lymph nodes 2) Primary TB complex B 3) TB intoxication of children and teenagers 4) Infiltrative TB 38. Apneumatosis with shift of mediastinum to same side is typical for … 1) Disseminated TB 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB D 4) Caseous pneumonia 39. Diffuse homogeneous shadow in lateral sinus with shift of mediastinum to contrlateral side is typical for … 1) Disseminated TB 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB B 4) Caseous pneumonia Clinical forms of TB 1. The modern classification of tuberculosis in Russia is based on: 1) pathogenesis of TB 2) morphological principle 3) clinical and radiological principle C 4) clinical and immunological principle 2. Clinically for Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers is characterized by … 1) the complex of functional disorders at early period of primary tuberculous infection (1 year after conversion of TST) 2) asymptomatic course of disease 3) an intensive progression of TB with involvement of lung tissue A 4) changes in root of lung on chest X-ray 3. Morphologically in the basis of Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers lays … 1) TB process in lung tissue 2) a cavitation in lungs 3) slow TB process in mediastinal lymph nodes C 4) TB process in bones 4. For localization of TB process in case of Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers it is necessary to carry out …. 1) chest X-ray 2) HRCT of Thoracic cage B 3) Bronchoscope 4) Diaskintest 5. Verification of Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers based on … 1) Chest X-ray 2) HRCT D 3) Positive response to 1-2 mo of chemotherapy 4) Conversion on the basis of TST 6. In Clinical classification of TB in Russia Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers was distinguished into a separate group due to …. 1) a special clinical picture 2) features of localization in lungs 3) an absence of visual localization C 4) very young age of patient 7. The early stage of TB is all but … 1) infiltration 2) destruction (cavitation) 3) dissemination D 4) scarring 8. Stage, which first of all reflects progression of TB is all but … 1) infiltration 2) cavitation C 3) resolution 4) calcification 9. Stage of TB mostly typical for TB of children is... 1) infiltration 2) cavitation 3) resolution D 4) calcification 10. The name of the period from the moment of infection till the manifestation of the disease is known as … 1) immunity induction period 2) incubation period B 3) latent TB infection 4) primary infection 11. What is the most typical for uncomplicated primary complex: 1) dry cough 2) hemoptysis 3) chest pains D 4) syndrome of intoxication 12. Infiltrate 2-3 cm in size in lung tissue due to primary TB complex chest X-ray is … 1) Lymphadenitis 2) Lymphangitits 3) Primary affect C 4) Path to root 13. The Primary tubercular complex is most often necessary to differentiate with: 1) lung cancer with metastasis in thoracic lymph nodes 2) community equated pneumonia 3) Hodgkin’s disease 4) eosinophilic infiltration B 14. Late stage of the Primary tubercular complex is … 1) syndrome of bipolarity 2) pneumonic stage 3) Ghon’s focus C 4) resolution 15. Earliest stage of the Primary tubercular complex is … 1) syndrome of bipolarity 2) pneumonic stage 3) Ghon’s focus 4) resolution B 16. Discrete character of pulmonary affect and lymphadenitis on chest X-ray corresponds to… 1) syndrome of bipolarity 2) pneumonic stage 3) Ghon’s focus B 4) stage of infiltration 17. Most typical localization of Intrathoracic lymph nodes TB in root of lung is … 1) parartracheal lymph nodes 2) bifurcation 3) bronchopulmonary lymph nodes C 4) tracheobronchial lymph nodes 18. Expanded root of lung with nonprecise contour in case of TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes corresponds to … 1) tumor like form B 2) infiltrative form 3) small forma 4) calcified form 19. Expanded root of lung with precise contour in case of TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes corresponds to … 1) calcified form 2) infiltrative form D 3) small forma 4) tumor like form 20. Heterogeneous shadow with indrawn walls and triangle form in low lobe on chest X-ray in case of Intrathoracic lymph nodes TB corresponds to … 1) stage of infiltration 2) stage of dissemination 3) syndrome of compression C 4) syndrome of valve emphysema 21. For Hodgkin’s disease in comparison with TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes is typical all but … 1) intoxication syndrome 2) localization in paratracheal lymph nodes 3) negative TST A 4) changes in cervical lymph nodes 22. Most frequent localization of Peripheral lymph node TB is … 1) cervical 2) inguinal 3) axillary A 4) mixed 23. Verification of Peripheral lymph node TB base on … 1) microscopy 2) Mantoux test C 3) puncture and histological examination 4) culture method 24. Differential diagnosis with Cat scratch syndrome should be made in case of … 1) Infiltrative TB 2) Fibrous-cavernous TB 3) Tb of Intrathoracic lymph nodes C 4) Primary TB complex 25. Erythema nodosum as early manifestation of TB is typical for … 1) Infiltrative TB 2) Fibrous-cavernous TB 3) Tb of Intrathoracic lymph nodes C 4) Caseous pneumonia 26. For the paraspecific reaction due to Primary TB typical all but … 1) hemoptysis 2) dry cough 3) revmatoid Poncet B 4) keratitis 27. For the Primary TB in comparison with Secondary most typical is … 1) localization in pleura C 2) localization in lung tissue 3) localization in lymph nodes 4) Extrathoracic localization 28. Small calcified stones in root of lung which can be detected on fluorography corresponds to … 1) old foci due to Focal TB 2) old foci due Disseminated TB 3) residual changes after Primary TB in past C 3) active Tb of Inthathoracic lymph nodes 29. Identification of M.tuberculosis in sputum for many times in combination to normal chest X-ray corresponds to … 1) Tb of peripheral lymph nodes 2) Latent TB infection 3) Healthy infected in past D 4) TB of bronchus 30. In which segments of lungs is focal tuberculosis located: 1) 3, 4 2) 1, 2 3) 5, 6 B 4) 6, 8, 9 31. The main method of detecting of focal pulmonary tuberculosis in adults is: 1) prophylactic fluorography 2) diagnostic chest X-ray 3) Mantoux test A 4) microscopy investigation of sputum 32. Group of foci within 1-2 segment on Chest X-ray is typical for … 1) Focal TB 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB A 4) Tb of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 33. Capability for self-healing is typical for 1) Focal TB 2) Infiltrative TB A 3) Disseminated TB 4) TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 34. Number of cases of Focal TB which are SSP is … 1) 10-15% 2) 20-40% 3) 40-50% A 4) 60-70% 35. For Focal TB is most typical … 1) progression of process 2) bronchogenic dissemination 3) cavity formation D 4) low frequency of cavity 36. Appearance of new active foci in S1-2 of lung is typical for the … 1) Focal TB fibrous type 2) Focal TB soft type 3) Foci as a residual changes after primary TB B 4) Stage of bronchogenic dissemination 37. Exacerbation of old Foci in S1-2 of lung on Chest X-ray is characteristic of … 1) Focal TB fibrous type 2) Focal TB soft type 3) Foci as a residual changes after primary TB 4) Stage of bronchogenic dissemination A 38. Reliable sign of active Focal TB is … 1) dry cough for 203 weeks 2) febrile temperature 3) weakness 4) hemoptysis A 39. Reliable sign of active Focal TB is … 1) dry cough for 203 weeks 2) febrile temperature 3) positive Diaskintest 4) general weakness A 40. Reliable sign of active Focal TB on Chest X-ray is … 1) both side group of foci 2) path to root 3) small cavity B 4) polymorphic character 41. The most reliable sign of active Focal TB is …. 1) nonprecise border of foci 2) path to root 3) positive response to chemotherapy C 4) polymorphic character 42. Clinics without sharp clinical symptoms, absence of respiratory noises during auscultation more typical for the : 1) Focal pulmonary tuberculosis 2) Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis 3) Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis B 4) Fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis 43. Caseous process in lung tissue morphologically limited by thin fibrotic capsule is typical for the... 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung B 3) Fibrous-cavernous TB 4) Chronic disseminated TB 44. Round shape shadow with size 2-3 cm, precise contour, heterogeneous in S2 or S6 most typical for the 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung B 3) Round shape Infiltrative TB 4) Aspegiloma 45. Ball-syndrom (ring shape shadow with mass inside) is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 3) Round shape Infiltrative TB D 4) Aspegiloma 46. Number of cases of Tuberculomas of lung which are SSP is … 1) 10-15% 2) 20-40% 3) 40-50% A 4) 60-70% 47. Number of cases of Tuberculomas of lung with cavity in lung is … 1) 10-15% 2) 20-40% 3) 40-50% A 4) 60-70% 48. Main method of detecting of Tuberculomas of lung is … 1) by physician on the basis of symptoms 2) actively by fluorography 3) microscopy B 4) PCR diagnostics 49. Most frequently Tuberculomas of lungs is outcome of … 1) exacerbation of single TB focus 2) spontaneous but not complete resolution of round shape infiltrate 3) filling of cavity B 4) exacerbation of group of foci 50. The indication for the surgical operation of Lung Tuberculomas is … 1) 1-2 cm 2) 3-4 cm B 3) destruction 4) nonprecise contour 51. Detecting of small (1-2 cm) Tuberculomas of lung is indication for the.. 1) chemotherapy 2) Diaskintest for the estimation of activity A 3) surgical operation 4) supervision during 1-2 mo 52. For the Tuberculomas of lung in comparison with Lung Cancer is most important …. 1) localization in upper lobe 2) presence of destruction 3) path to root D 4) satellite foci around shadow 53. For the Tuberculomas of lung in comparison with Lung Cancer is most important …. 1) localization in S 1-2-6 2) presence of destruction A 3) absence of growth of shadow during last 1-2 years 4) path to root 54. For the diagnosis of progressive course of Lung Tuberculomas the most informative is … 1) chest X-ray 2) Diaskintest A 3) culture investigation 4) HRCT 55. One of the sign of Tuberculomas progression is … 1) big size (more than 4 cm) 2) path to root 3) indefinite contour A 4) positive Diaskintest 56. 2-3 cm round shape shadow with not entirely definite border, middle density is typical for … 1) true type of lung Tuberculomas 2) filled cavern C 3) infiltrative-pneumonic type of Lung Tuberculomas 4) Focal TB 57. Focal TB within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% 2) 10-15% 3) 20-25% B 4) 60-70% 58. Tuberculomas of lung within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% 2) 10-15% 3) 20-25% A 4) 60-70% 59. Infiltrative TB of lung within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% 2) 10-15% D 3) 20-25% 4) 60-70% 60. Disseminated TB of lung within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% B 2) 10-12% 3) 15-20% 4) 60-70% 61. Caseous pneumonia within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 1-2% 2) 10-12% 3) 15-20% A 4) 60-70% 62. Clinical form of TB, which on Chest X-ray looks like pneumonia is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Infiltrative TB C 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 63. Clinical form of TB for which predominance of exudative inflammation in lung is most typical is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB C 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 64. Clinical form of TB for which predominance of productive-proliferative inflammation in lung is most typical is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung A 2) Focal TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 65. Clinical form of TB which was result of not effective two courses of chemotherapy is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Infiltrative TB A 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 66. Clinical form of TB for which predominance of caseous necrosis in lung is most typical is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Caseous pneumonia 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Focal TB B 67. Clinical form of TB for which gradual onset is most typical (most frequent) is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB C 4) Focal TB 68. Clinical form of TB for which acute onset is most typical (most frequent) is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Infiltrative TB B 3) Disseminated TB 4) Focal TB 69. Clinical form of TB for which SSP is most typical (most frequent) is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB B 4) Focal TB 70. Clinical form of TB for which progression in case of spontaneous course is most typical is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Disseminated TB D 4) Infiltrative TB 71. Round shape shadow 3-5 cm in size, indefinite border, heterogeneous, cavity in center, reversible to chemotherapy is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis A 3) Cloud like Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 72. Triangle shape shadow with definite low border and indefinite upper, heterogeneous with localization along major fissure is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis B 3) Cloud like Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 73. Limited shadow more than 5 cm in size, indefinite border, heterogeneous, irregular shape, localization in S2, S6 reversible to chemotherapy is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloud like Infiltrate C 4) Lobitis 74. Diffuse shadow within upper or low lobe, indefinite border, heterogeneous, reversible to chemotherapy is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis D 3) Cloud like Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 75. Infiltrate on Chest X-ray with acute onset, symptoms like pneumonia is most typical for … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloud like Infiltrate D 4) Lobitis 76. Infiltrate on Chest X-ray with asymptomatic onset, detecting on Fluorography by active case- finding is most typical for … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis A 3) Cloud like Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 77. For clinical picture of Infiltrative TB most typical is … 1) acute onset, temperature, hemoptysis, loss of weight B 2) gradual onset, presentation of symptoms more than 2-3 weeks D 3) asymptomatic onset, detecting by fluorography 4) dependence on the lesion volume from asymptomatic to acute onset 78. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical all but … 1) acute onset 2) gradual onset 3) asymptomatic onset C 4) loss of weight 79. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical … 1) acute onset 2) Infiltrate on Chest X-ray 3) dyspnea D 4) loss of weight 80. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical … 1) acute onset 2) Infiltrate on Chest X-ray D 3) upper lobe localization 4) absence of crepitations 81. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical … 1) acute onset 2) Infiltrate (consolidation) of Chest X-ray D 3) chest pain 4) no effect of broad spectrum antibiotics 82. Most objective sign of Infiltrative TB on chest X-ray is … 1) localization in S 1-2-6 2) cavity in the center of consolidation 3) pleural effusion B 4) no resolution of shadow to broad spectrum antibiotics 83. Most fast differential diagnosis of Infiltrative TB with Community equated pneumonia based on … 1) clinical symptoms analysis 2) Chest X-ray changes 3) microscopy of sputum C 4) estimation of response to broad spectrum antibiotics 84. Minimal clinical manifestation is most typical for the … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloud like Infiltrate A 4) Lobitis 85. High frequency of SSP is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB D 4) Caseous pneumonia 86. Fast progression is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB D 4) Caseous pneumonia 87. Cachexia is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB D 4) Caseous pneumonia 88. Expectoration of more than 100 ml of sputum is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB D 4) Caseous pneumonia 89. Dyspnea is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB D 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 90. For the Caseous pneumonia in comparison to Infiltrative is more typical … 1) both side localization 2) acute onset D 3) plural effusion 4) giant caverns or system of a lot of caverns 91. Shift of mediastinum in case of Caseous pneumonia related to … 1) atelectasis of lung due to compression of main bronchus 2) atelectasis of lung due to deficiency of surfactant 3) apneumatosis due expectoration of a lot of purulent sputum C 4) pleural effusion 92. Two hyperinflated caverns 15 cm in size in left lung, shift of mediastinum to the left, negative TST as a new case of TB is most typical for the … 1) Infiltrative TB of right lung 2) Fibrous-cavernous TB C 3) Caseous pneumonia 4) Cavernous TB 93. Localization of foci in case of the Miliary TB is … 1) capillaries 2) venules 3) veins B 4) arteriols 94. Both side Dissemination with foci 1-2 mm in size is typical for the … 1) Subacute Disseminated TB 2) Miliary TB 3) Focal TB B 4) Lymphogenic disseminated TB 95. Both side upper lobe Dissemination is typical for the … 1) Hematogenic Disseminated TB 2) Bronchogenic Disseminated TB 3) Lymphohematogenic Disseminated TB A 4) Lymphogenic Disseminated TB 96. One side dissemination with localization of foci on surface of pleura is typical for the … 1) Hematogenic Disseminated TB 2) Bronchogenic Disseminated TB 3) Lymphohematogenic Disseminated TB D 4) Lymphogenic Disseminated TB 97. In the basis of bronchogenic Disseminated TB is … 1) Giant cavity in lung due to Infiltrative TB 2) Giant cavity in lung due to Fibrous-cavernous TB 3) TB of bronchus C 4) Giant cavity in lung due to Caseous TB 98. Dyspnea, cough, fiver as main manifestation of TB are typical for the … 1) meningeal type of Miliary TB 2) typhoid type of Miliary TB 3) pulmonary type of Miliary TB C 4) chronic Disseminated TB 99. Combination of both side Dissemination in lung with Kernig’s sign is due to … 1) meningeal type of Miliary TB 2) typhoid type of Miliary TB 3) pulmonary type of Miliary TB A 4) chronic Disseminated TB 100. Dyspnea, fiver in combination with both side Dissemination in lungs is more typical to … 1) Miliary TB 2) subacute hematogenic Disseminated TB B 3) chronic Disseminated TB 4) lymphogenic Disseminated TB 101. Cough, loss of weight, weakness, both side dissemination with 8-10 mm size of foci is typical for the … 1) Miliary TB 2) subacute hematogenic Disseminated TB B 3) chronic Disseminated TB 4) lymphogenic Disseminated TB 102. In case of combination of both side dissemination in lung and cough, fiver early differential diagnosis should be made with all but … 1) Pneumonia 2) Malignant dissemination C 3) Disseminated TB 4) Sarcoidis 103. In case of combination of both side dissemination and both side lymphadenopathy in lung differential diagnosis should be made for the first time with … 1) Pneumonia 2) Malignant dissemination 3) Intersticail Lung Fibrosis D 4) Sarcoidis 104. Combination of both side Dissemination in lung and impaired consciousness is due to … 1) Meningeal type of Miliary TB 2) Typhoid type of Miliary TB 3) Pulmonary type of Miliary TB 4) Chronic Disseminated TB B