Biomedical Science and Musculoskeletal System Past Paper PDF 2023

# Biomedical Science and Musculoskeletal System End Module Exam ## Exam Instructions: * All questions are mandatory. * The exam consists of 120 MCQ to be answered in the bubble sheet. * Select the best answer. ## Answer the following Questions: 1) The obturator nerve supply the following muscle:...

# Biomedical Science and Musculoskeletal System End Module Exam ## Exam Instructions: * All questions are mandatory. * The exam consists of 120 MCQ to be answered in the bubble sheet. * Select the best answer. ## Answer the following Questions: 1) The obturator nerve supply the following muscle: * adductor magnus * obturator internus * quadratus femoris * sartorius 2) One of the following statements concerning the muscles of back of thigh is true: * All extend the knee. * All inserted into the tibia. * All arises from ischial spine. * All supplied by sciatic nerve. 3) Which of the following structures passes from the greater to the lesser sciatic foramen? * the sciatic nerve * the pudendal nerve * the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh * the nerve to obturator externus 4) One of the following arteries is a branch of the femoral artery: * deep circumflex iliac artery * deep external pudendal artery * circumflex fibular artery * middle genicular artery 5) With respect to peroneus longus, one is true: * it inserts into the base of the 5th metatarsal * it has a broad tendon that lies behind the medial malleolus * it is supplied by the superficial peroneal nerve * it arises from the upper two thirds of the tibia 6) The psoas major muscle, select the true answer: * the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh appears at its lateral border * is a powerful lateral rotator of the femur * inserts into the greater trochanter * arises from the iliac crest and sacroiliac joint 7) Regarding the tibialis anterior muscle, one is true: * is supplied by the tibial nerve * inserts into the second metatarsal bone * it dorsiflex and invert the foot * does not arise from the interosseous membrane 8) One of the followings is not present in the adductor canal: * femoral artery * femoral nerve * femoral vein * nerve to vastus medialis 9) The following structure passes superficial to the superior extensor retinaculum at the ankle: * Extensor digitorum longus * Deep peroneal nerve * Anterior tibial artery * Superficial peroneal nerve 10) Regarding the anterior cruciate ligament, one is true: * lies within the synovial membrane of the knee joint * attaches from the anterior intercondylar area of tibial to the medial condyle of the femur * prevents forward displacement of the femur on the tibial surface * it become tense in full extension 11) Which of the following muscles is not found in the floor of the femoral triangle? * psoas major * pectineus * adductor magnus * adductor longus 12) Concerning the Gluteus maximus, select the true answer: * Is a powerful lateral rotator of the thigh * The whole muscle inserted into lateral lip of linea aspera * Supplied by superior gluteal nerve * It arises from inner lip of the iliac crest 13) The femoral vein lie within the following compartment of the femoral sheath: * Medial * Intermediate * Lateral * Outside 14) The popliteal artery, select the true answer: * is superficial to the tibial nerve * extends from the hiatus in adductor longus * is the most anterior structure in the popliteal fossa. * has two genicular branches in the popliteal fossa 15) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the femoral nerve? * is formed from the anterior divisions of the L2, 3 and 4 * supplies the iliacus muscle in the abdomen * lies in the iliac fossa between psoas major and iliacus muscles * divides into several branches 3-4 cm below the inguinal ligament 16) One of the following statements concerning the dorsalis pedis artery is incorrect: * It joins the lateral plantar artery. * It is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery. * It can be palpated on the foot medial to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus muscles. * It enters the sole of foot by passing between the two heads of first dorsal interosseous muscle. 17) Tensor fasciae latae muscle is supplied by: * nerve to vastus lateralis * inferior gluteal nerve * anterior division of femoral nerve * superior gluteal nerve 18) Which of the following is false regarding the great saphenous vein? * it is the longest vein in the body * it passes behind the medial malleolus * it receives the superficial circumflex iliac vein. * it end at the saphenous opening into the femoral vein 19) The medial boundary of the femoral ring formed by: * Base of lacunar ligament. * Inguinal ligament. * Pectineal ligament. * Femoral vein. 20) The sural nerve is a branch of which of the following: * femoral nerve * common fibular nerve * tibial nerve * obturator nerve 21) The nerve appeared at the anterior surface of the psoas major muscle: * iliohypogastric nerve. * lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. * genitofemoral nerve. * Ilioinguinal nerve. 22) The anterior tibial artery, select the true answer: * begin at the upper border of popliteus muscle. * supplies the lateral compartment of the leg * the arcuate artery is one of its branches. * it share in the anastomosis around knee and ankle 23) The structure passes superficial to the sciatic nerve is: * short head of biceps * posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh * quadratus femoris * adductor magnus 24) Regarding arteries of lower limb choose the false statement: * Femoral artery begins behind mid inguinal point. * Posterior tibial artery enters the sole behind the lateral malleolus * Deep external pudendal artery arises from the femoral artery. * The lateral plantar artery share in the formation of the plantar arch. 25) One of the followings is not a branch of the femoral nerve: * lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh * medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh * Intermediate (anterior) cutaneous nerve of the thigh * nerve to vastus medialis 26) All of the following are ankle joint ligaments except: * Deltoid ligament * Calcaneofibular ligament * Oblique ligament * Posterior talofibular ligament 27) The skin of the roof of the femoral triangle is supplied by: * Obturator nerve * Medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh * Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh * Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve 28) Under the extensor retinaculum of the foot the most lateral structure is: * Sural nerve * Dorsalis pedis artery * Peroneus tertius * Extensor hallucis longus 29) Which is not true of the tendo-Achilles: * It inserts into the middle third of the posterior surface of the calcaneous * It is invested in a synovial sheath * It is formed from the soleus and gastrocnemius muscles * A bursa lies between the tendon and the upper third of calcaneous 30) The congenital limb anomaly in which two or three digits are fused together is called: * Brachydactyly * Polydactyly * Meromelia * Syndactyly 31) Following an injury to the leg, a patient is unable to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged? * Deep branch of the common peroneal nerve * Superficial branch of the common peroneal nerve * Sural nerve * Saphenous nerve 32) Skin on the lateral side of little toe is supplied by sural nerve while that on its medial side is supplied by: * Superficial peroneal nerve * Deep peroneal nerve * Anterior tibial nerve * Saphenous nerve 33) Which of the followings is not a component of the second layer of the sole of the foot? * Tendon of flexor hallucis longus * The lumbrical muscles * Abductor hallucis * Flexor accessorius 34) The given artery is not sharing in the anastomosis around anterior superior iliac spine: * Deep external pudendal * Deep circumflex iliac * Superficial circumflex iliac * Superior gluteal 35) The peroneal artery is a branch of the: * anterior tibial artery. * popliteal artery. * posterior tibial artery. * lateral plantar artery. 36) Regarding chondroblasts: * Acidophilic cells. * Form isogenous groups. * Present in lacunae. * Responsible for appositional growth. 37) The type of cartilage not surrounded by perichondrium is found in: * Intervertebral disc. * Epiglottis. * Ear pinna. * Costal cartilage. 38) Bone remodeling is the function of the following bone cell: * Osteoclast. * Fibroblast. * Osteogenic cell. * Osteocyte. 39) By E.M., the bone cells connected by gap junctions are: * Osteogenic cells. * Osteoblasts. * Osteocytes. * Osteoclasts. 40) Regarding bone matrix, the following is correct: * It is basophilic in staining. * It contains collagen type 1. * It is rubbery in consistency. * It contains collagen type III. 41) Concerning the Haversian systems: * It is the structural unit of compact bone. * It is found in spongy bone. * It has no blood vessels. * Osteoblasts are found inbetween its bone lamellae. 42) Spongy bone: * Has many osteons. * Has irregular bone marrow cavities. * Found in the shaft of long bones. * Has no endosteum. 43) Endomysium is formed of: * Dense C.T. that surrounds the whole muscle. * Reticular fibers that surround the whole muscle. * Dense C.T. that surrounds each muscle fiber. * Reticular fibers that surround each muscle fiber. 44) During contraction of the skeletal muscle: * A band decrease in size. * I band is constant. * H band disappears. * Actin & myosin filaments decrease in size. 45) Nuclei of skeletal muscles are: * Multiple and peripheral. * Single and central. * Multiple and central. * Single and peripheral. 46) Cardiac muscle fibers are characterized by: * Cylindrical & non branched. * Having intercalated discs. * Non striated with peripheral nuclei. * Basophilic sarcoplasm. 47) Histological characteristics of purkinje muscle fiber include: * Central multiple nuclei. * Few peripheral myofibrils. * Few glycogen. * Intercalated disc. 48) Tubular system is replaced by caveolae in the following type of muscle fibers: * Skeletal muscle fibers. * Cardiac muscle fibers. * Smooth muscle fibers. * Purkinje muscle fibers. 49) Intense mitotic figures are found in the cells of the following layer: * Stratum basale. * Stratum granulosum. * Stratum lucidum. * Stratum comeum 50) Apocrine sweat gland has: * Apocrine mode of secretion. * Excretory duct that opens into a hair follicle. * Secretory cells with intercellular canaliculi. * No myoepithelial cells. 51) Birbeck's granules are found in the following cell: * Merckel's cell. * Melanocytes. * Langerhans cell. * All keratinocytes. 52) The intracellular fluid: * accounts for 80% of total body wight * includes 5% intravascular fluid and 15% interstitial fluid * has the same osmolarity as plasma * Main cation is sodium 53) Which of the following is the main cation extracellularly? * Sodium * Potassium * Magnesium * Glucose 54) The sodium- potassium pump: * is an example of passive transport * activity is energy independent * has 2 binding sites for Nat and 3 binding sites for K+ * has ATPase activity 55) The rate of diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is inversely proportional to: * concentration gradient for the substance * temperature around the cell membrane * surface area available for diffusion * thickness of the membrane (distance) 56) The Strength-Duration Curve shows: * Stimuli of extremely short duration will excite the nerve no matter how intense they may be * The higher the excitability of nerve, the shorter is the chronaxie * When the stimulus strength is below the rheobase (sub-threshold), stimulation gives maximal response * If the excitability of nerve is high, the chronaxie is prolonged 57) The resting membrane potential (RMP) of a nerve fiber membrane is: * dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater than that to Na+ * independent on Na+/K+ ATPase pump * equal to the equilibrium potential of K+ * equal to the equilibrium potential of Nat 58) Concerning nerve action potential: * The firing level is the level at which the slow depolarization begins * The rapid repolarization represents 30% of the repolarization process * During hyperpolarization the membrane is more negative due to slow closure of K+ channels * The absolute refractory period is the period from the firing level until repolarization is completed 59) In nerve action potential, decreased membrane potential from -90 mV to zero mV is called: * Repolarization * Hyperpolarization * Depolarization * Plateau 60) During depolarization, the nerve membrane potential reaches 0 mV. This level is called: * latent period * isopotential * hyperpolarization * reversal of polarity 61) A nerve fiber has a RMP of -70 mV and a firing level of - 50 mV. This nerve fiber would be unexcitable at all when its membrane potential is: * - 30 mV * - 55 mV * - 60 mV * - 70 mV 62) All of the following statements about electrotonic potentials and local response are correct Except: * They are graded responses * They are local (non-propagated) responses * They may be depolarizing or hyperpolarizing * They are produced by a threshold stimulus. 63) Which of the following decreases nerve excitability? * Familial periodic paralysis * Low extracellular Ca++ concentration * High extracellular K+ concentration * Increased membrane permeability to Na+ ions 64) Which of the following covers the binding active sites on actin during muscle relaxation? * Tropomyosin * Cross bridge * Troponin C * Myosin tail 65) Isometric contraction of skeletal muscle shows: * decreased whole muscle length * external work is done * increased muscle tension * more energy consumption than isotonic contrction 66) Muscle fatigue is due to accumulation of: * ATP * Glucose * Glycogen * Lactic acid 67) As regard the sarcomere, all are true Except: * It lies between two Z lines * It is shortened during contraction. * The width of the I band does not change during muscle contraction. * The width of the A band does not change during muscle contraction. 68) Fast skeletal muscle fibers differ from slow fibers in that they: * are adapted for short rapid muscle contractions. * have less glycolytic enzymes * have more extensive blood supply. * contain more mitochondria. 69) Increasing the afterload on a skeletal muscle fiber: * decreases the velocity of shortening * increases the amount of shortening * increases the degree of shortening * decreases the number of muscle fibers 70) As regards plasticity of smooth muscle, all of the following are true Except: * It is a relation of length to tension * Stretch of smooth muscle exerts increased tension at first. * Maintained stretch of the muscle increases the tension rapidly and progressively * Due to this property, urine can accumulate in the urinary bladder without much increase in tension 71) Dinitrophenol uncouples oxidative phosphorylation in electron transport chain through: * inhibiting electron transport and ATP synthesis * inhibiting electron transport without impairment of ATP synthesis * allowing electron transport to proceed with ATP synthesis. * allowing electron transport to proceed without ATP synthesis. 72) Carbon monoxide is extremely dangerous as it blocks \_\_\_\_\_ in electron transport chain. * Cytochrome c oxidase * NADH dehydrogenase complex * Succinate dehydrogenase complex * Cytochrome bc1 complex 73) Most of the metabolic pathways are either anabolic or catabolic, but may be amphibolic as in: * glycogenesis * glycolytic pathway * lipolysis * kreb's cycle 74) A 5-year-old child was presented to the emergency as he accidently consumed fluoroacetate? Which one of the following enzymes is mostly inhibited by exposure to this chemical compound? * Aconitase * Isocitrate synthase * Malate dehydrogenase * Isocitrate dehydrogenase 75) Which one of the following enzymes is inhibited by arsenic compounds? * a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase * Isocitrate dehydrogenase * Citrate synthase * Malate dehydrogenase 76) Congenital lactic acidosis may be causes by deficiency of: * isocitrate dehydrogenase * a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase compiex * pyruvate dehydrogenase complex * malate dehydrogenase 77) A patient presented with fasting hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis and ketosis. Diagnosis revealed fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase deficiency. Which metabolic pathway is impaired in this condition? * Glycolysis * Gluconeogenesis * Glycogenesis * Glycogenolysis 78) Hemolytic anemia that develops after eating fava beans or aspirin intake is due to: * glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. * glucokinase deficiency. * glycogen phosphorylase deficiency. * glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency. 79) A two-year-old boy presented with severe fasting hypoglycemia-Investigations revealed lactic acidosis and hepatomegaly. He was diagnosed as Von Gierk disease. What is the defective enzyme in this case? * Glycogen synthase * Glycogen phosphorylase * Glucose 6-phosphatase * Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase 80) Which of the following substances are two important byproducts of hexose monophosphate shunt (HMP)? * NADH and ribose 5-phosphate * NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate * FADH2 and ribose 5-phosphate * ATP and pentose sugar. 81) Which of the following is a gluconeogenic substrate? * Fructose * Even chain fatty acids * Lactate * ketogenic amino acids 82) One of the irreversible reactions of glycolysis is that catalyzed by: * phosphofructokinase 1 * phosphohexose isomerase * fructose 1,6-bisphosphate aldolase * glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase 83) During starvation, muscle proteins are degraded into free amino acids that will be most probably involved in the following process: * Gluconeogenesis in liver * Gluconeogenesis in muscles * Synthesis of long chain fatty acids * Glycogenolysis 84) A 7-year-old girl has signs of anemia. Laboratory examination revealed pyruvate kinase deficiency in erythrocytes. What metabolic process disturbance plays the main role in anemia development? * Anaerobic glycolysis * Oxidative phosphorylation * Fatty acid synthesis * Glycogenesis 85) For accurate estimation of blood glucose, fluoride is added to the blood sample to inhibit. * pyruvate kinase * glucokinase * enolase * hexokinase 86) The committed step of the fatty acid synthesis pathway is catalyzed by: * hormone sensitive lipase * fatty acid synthase * monoacylglycerol lipase * acetyl CoA carboxylase 87) The intracellular site of beta oxidation of fatty acids is: * cytosol * endoplasmic reticulum * mitochondria * ribosomes 88) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as aspirin act by inhibiting the activity of. * lipoxygenase. * cyclooxygenase. * phospholipase A2 * lipoprotein lipase 89) Which of the following metabolic changes occurs in diabetes mellitus? * Increased glycogenesis * Increased gluconeogenesis * Increased lipogenesis * Increased protein synthesis 90) Which of the following apoproteins is an activator of plasma lipoprotein lipase? * Apo A * Apo C II * Apo B * Apo D 91) Long chain fatty acyl-CoA are transported into the mitochondrial matrix by: * malate shuttle. * carnitine shuttle. * glycerophosphate shuttle. * citrate shuttle. 92) Statins are a group of drugs that used to lower plasma cholesterol through inhibition of........... * squalene synthetase * mevalonate kinase * HMG CoA synthetase * HMG CoA reductase 93) The Lipoprotein particles which transport dietary lipids from the intestinal cells to the systemic circulation are: * chylomicrons * LDLs * VLDLS * HDLs 94) The source of all the carbon atoms in cholesterol is: * bicarbonate * propionyl-CoA * acetyl-CoA * succinyl-CoA 95) Vascular complications of diabetes mellitus are due to accumulation of: * sorbitol * mannitol * dulcitol * ethanol 96) A 10-year-old boy presents with progressive neurological symptoms. Diagnostic testing reveals accumulation of phytanic acid within multiple tissues. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? * Lesch-nyhan syndrome * Dubin-johnson syndrome * Zellweger's syndrome * Refsum's disease 97) Which of the following lipoprotein particles are involved in reverse cholesterol transport? * VLDLS * HDLS * LDLS * Chylomicrons 98) The main product of cytosolic fatty acid synthesis in humans is: * arachidonic acid * oleic acid * linoleic acid * palmitic acid 99) Which one of the following is the main method of removal of ammonia from the brain? * Urea synthesis * Glutamine synthesis * Alanine synthesis * Uric acid synthesis 100) Which one of the following coenzymes is required for transamination reactions of amino acids? * Thiamine pyrophosphate * Pyridoxal phosphate * Niacin adenine dinucleotide * Lipoic acid 101) A 50-year-old man, with a liver cirrhosis, developed tremors and slurred speech. Laboratory investigations showed hyperammonemia. What is the mechanism of ammonia toxicity in such condition? * Decreased a-ketoglutarate in the brain. * Decreased glutamine in the brain. * Inereased GABA neurotransmitter * Increased a-ketoglutarate in the brain. 102) Which one of the following conditions produces negative nitrogen balance? * Growth * Muscular training * Pregnancy * Starvation 103) Laboratory analysis of the urine of a 6-day infant showed excessive concentration of phenylpyruvate and phenylacetate, due to disturbed phenylalanine metabolism, such condition is caused by deficiency of: * tyrosinase * phenylalanine hydroxylase * DOPA decarboxylase * tyrosine aminotransferase 104) Which of the following amino acids is a serotonin precursor? * Threonine * Tyrosine * Tryptophan * Glutamic acid 105) A 13-year-old boy with history of recurrent urinary tract stones, presented with complicated renal disease. He was diagnosed as primary hyperoxaluria, a disease due to a disturbance in the metabolism of: * serine * tyrosine * glycine * threonine 106) A 5-year-old girl with mental retardation presented with vision difficulty. Examination shows dislocated lenses. Blood tests reveal low cystathionine synthase activity. Which one of the following compounds will be increased in urine? * Alanine * Arginine * Leucine * Homocysteine 107) Photosensitivity manifestations in porphyria disease are due to: * decrease ATPase activity in nerve cells. * accumulation of ALA or PBG * release of free radicals due to activation of porphyrins * vitamin B6 deficiency 108) Unconjugated bilirubin is elevated in which of the following conditions? * Dubin-Johnson Syndrome. * Physiologic neonatal jaundice. * Rotor syndrome. * Obstruction of the biliary passages. 109) A jaundiced patient has elevated serum levels of ALT, AST and γ-GT. This patient most probably has: * hemolytic jaundice * obstructive jaundice * hepatocellular jaundice * acholuric jaundice 110) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease may be caused by deficiency of which of the following enzymes? * Glucose-6-phosphatase * Xanthine oxidase * PRPP synthetase * Adenosine deaminase 111) A drug which decreases uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is: * allopurinol * methotrexate * colchicine * probenecid 112) A 2-year-old child with a mental retardation and manifestations of self-mutilation has a high concentration of uric acid. Diagnosis revealed HGPRTase deficiency. What is the most likely diagnosis? * Lesch-nyhan syndrome * Von gierke disease * Hartnup disease * Gilbert disease 113) Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness? * Vitamin K * Vitamin A * Vitamin D * Vitamin C 114) Prolonged intake of antibiotics may cause deficiency of............ * vitamin K * vitamin E * vitamin B6 * folic acid 115) Vitamin C deficiency causes anemia due to: * impaired heme synthesis. * decreased conversion of tryptophan to niacin. * defective vit D absorption. * defective iron absorption. 116) The active form of vitamin D is: * cholecalciferol * 7-dehydrocholesterol * calcidiol * calcitriol 117) Which of the following is the most essential nutrient for a pregnant woman to prevent birth defects? * Thiamine * Folic acid * Vitamin C * Vitamin E 118) Niacin can be synthesized in human beings from: * histidine * phenylalanine * tyrosine * tryptophan 119) Which of the following will provide the main fuel for muscle contraction during sprinting? * Plasma free fatty acids * Muscle triacylglycerol * Muscle glycogen * Plasma glucose 120) Chronic alcoholism is accompanied by: * hypocholesterolemia * hypercholesterolemia. * hypouricemia * hyperglycemia # End of Exam