Questions and Answers
What reports provide a record of significant performance in an additional duty or temporary additional duty status?
CONCURRENT
The reporting senior can, for good cause, submit an administrative change or evaluative supplement within how long from the ending date of a report?
2 years
The reporting senior must retain copies of enlisted EVALs and CHIEFEVALs for how long?
5 years
The command must retain copies of enlisted EVALs and CHIEFEVALs for how long?
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A periodic report may be omitted if the member has received a graded regular report within the past how many months?
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US NAVY REGULATIONS, 1990, what article requires that a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL containing adverse matter be referred to the member for a statement?
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FITREPS, CHIEFEVALs, or EVALs shall respect the principles of judicial independence, as stated in the manual for courts-martial, part II, what rule?
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FITREPS, CHIEFEVALs, and EVALs are subject to what act?
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Reporting seniors shall retain copies of FITREPS on officers and CHIEFEVALs on CPOs for at least how long?
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Commands shall retain copies of EVALs on all enlisted personnel for at least how long following the end date of the report?
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What supplies application programs to support the automated preparation and submission of FITREPS and EVALs?
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For activities to which no UIC is assigned, enter what when preparing the performance report?
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What includes those markings that identify the source of classification?
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What includes any equipment or interconnected system used in the automatic acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, or transmission of data?
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What includes Universal Serial Bus drives, flash drives, pen drives, compact drives, recordings, etc?
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Documents containing RD or FRD shall not be marked with any downgrading or declassification instructions, other than those approved by what?
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As a member of the armed forces, you complain to any superior officer under what article of the UCMJ if you believe you have been wronged?
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What abbreviation shall be used to designate unclassified portions containing information exempt from mandatory release?
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The authority to grant waivers of the portion marking requirement rests with the what?
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Associated markings shall not be placed on the what of any classified document?
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The 'classified by' and 'reason' lines are rarely used because what estimated percent of all DON documents are derivatively classified?
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Declassification instructions and other downgrading instructions do not apply to documents containing restricted data or what else?
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Only what designated declassifier can declassify an RD document?
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What advises document holders that additional protective measures are necessary?
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Per title 42, U.S.C., mark classified documents containing RD and/or FRD with the applicable warning notice in what area?
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What, which is a subset of RD, is subject to special dissemination controls and marking requirements?
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The marking policies and dissemination procedures for CNWDI are contained in what reference?
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Per what reference, there is national policy prohibiting foreign disclosure of NNPI?
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During class discussions, what method of instruction is used?
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The hat device is centered on the front of the ball cap how many inches above the visor?
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How far from the front and lower edge of the collar is the collar device placed?
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Detailed information on the duties and responsibility of a training petty officer can be found in what document?
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What series of OPNAV instructions provides detailed instructions on a wide range of safety concerns?
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Under article 31 of the UCMJ, special caution is cited for which of the following areas?
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During counseling, you allow the subordinate to determine the direction of the session. What type of counseling session is this?
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A petty officer can take certain measures to correct minor infractions under which of the following articles of the UCMJ?
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Extra military instruction is classified as what type of corrective action?
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Hair should be tapered from the lower hairline upward by at least how many inches?
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The results of a preliminary inquiry of an alleged offense are given to which person?
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Officers must have a minimum of how many years of service to be a casualty assistance calls officer?
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Which document serves as a reference for special programs and projects?
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Information on personal financial management can be found in what OPNAVINST?
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The military cash awards program provides payment of cash incentives based on what?
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Which of the following programs is the Navy's program to combat alcohol and drug abuse?
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Where in the field enlisted service record can you find a copy of all previously completed page 4s?
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The qualifications for enlisted Surface Warfare can be found in what publication?
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The page 2 of the enlisted service record is the?
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After how many total years of service are you eligible to be transferred to the retired list?
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All personnel shall comply with what policy for access to classified information?
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Foreign national access to CUI shall be in accordance with what reference?
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All Top Secret information must be continuously accounted for and entered into a command what?
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Who shall obtain a record of receipt from each recipient for Top Secret information distributed internally?
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Top Secret information shall be physically sighted or accounted for how often?
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Commanding officers shall establish procedures to control and mark all secret and confidential working papers for more than how many days?
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A document transmitted over a classified IT system is considered what?
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What reference requires an administrative system for controlling the NWP library within the command?
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Control and safeguard NATO classified information per what reference?
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Maintain records for the receipt and transmission of Top Secret FGI for how many years?
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Maintain records for the receipt and transmission of Secret FGI for how many years?
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Maintain records for the receipt and transmission of Confidential FGI for how many years?
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Control and safeguard RD and FRD per what reference?
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Control and safeguard COMSEC information per what reference?
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Control and safeguard SCI per what reference?
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Control and safeguard SIOP and SIOP-ESI per what reference?
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Control and safeguard SAP information per what reference?
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Control and safeguard NNPI per what reference?
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Control and safeguard FOUO information per what reference?
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Control and safeguard DoD UCNI per what reference?
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When an original Classification Authority (OCA) determines that other security measures are insufficient, what may be employed?
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ACCM shall not be used for NATO or non-intelligence Foreign Government Information without the prior written approval of what?
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ACCM shall not be used to protect classified information in acquisition programs as defined in what reference?
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ACCM shall not be used to control classified information designated as Restricted Data (RD), Formely Restricted Data (FRD), communications security (COMSEC) or what else?
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ACCM shall not use what structure or system to control the position and numbers of persons with access to ACCM?
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Who approves the use of ACCM, and ensures that the protection afforded classified information is sufficient?
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What shall be used in message traffic to alert recipients that the transmission involves ACCM protected information?
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What secure transmission methods authorized for processing classified information at the same level may be used to transmit ACCM information?
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Approved ACCM may be applied to cleared DoD contractors only when identified in what form?
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Commanding officers shall establish procedures for end-of-the-day security checks utilizing what checklist?
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What, Security Container Check Sheet, shall be utilized to record that classified spaces have been properly secured?
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Refer to what reference for visit procedures?
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Technical surveillance counter-measures support for meetings involving Top Secret information must be requested per what reference?
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What U.S. Navy enlisted (Field) Service Record (FSR) is maintained for each current enlisted member?
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What is available to assist the commanding officer in making daily personnel decisions?
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What material shall not be filed in the FSR without first affording the member an opportunity to review it?
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If no statement has been submitted after how many working days, the adverse material will be filed directly in the FSR?
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The FSR is maintained by the administration office that supports the members duty station per what?
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Study Notes
Flashcards Overview
- Concurrent Reports document significant performance in additional or temporary duties.
- Administrative Changes to reports can be submitted within 2 years from the report ending date.
- Reporting seniors must keep copies of enlisted EVALs and CHIEFEVALs for 5 years.
- Commands must maintain these copies for 2 years.
- A periodic report may be omitted if a graded regular report was previously issued within 3 months.
- Adverse FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL must be referred to the member under Article 1122.
- Judicial independence is respected in evaluations, per Rule 104 of the courts-martial manual.
- FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, and EVALs are regulated by the Privacy Act of 1974.
- Reporting seniors should retain FITREPs and CHIEFEVALs for 5 years.
- Commands must keep enlisted EVALs for 2 years after the report ends.
- NAVPERSCOM provides automated application programs for FITREP and EVAL preparation.
- Performance reports require specific information, ending at the promotion status.
Markings and Dissemination
- Associated markings denote classification authority and reasoning.
- IT Systems encompass all equipment for data processing and management.
- Electronic media includes flash drives, tapes, and various data storage formats.
- RD or FRD documents should not carry downgrading instructions without approval from the DOE.
- Members can appeal under Article 138 UCMJ after being denied redress.
- FOUO is the designation for unclassified information exempt from public release.
Security and Information Control
- The Director, ISOO possesses the authority to grant waivers on marking requirements.
- Markings are prohibited on the back cover of classified documents.
- Approximately 99% of DON documents are derivatively classified.
- Downgrading instructions do not apply to restricted data or formerly restricted data.
- Department of Energy is the designated declassifier for RD documents.
- Warning notices indicate necessary protective measures for documents.
Title 42 and National Security
- Classified documents containing RD/FRD must include warnings per DOD Directive 5210.2.
- CNWDI is subject to special handling within the context of RD.
- Comprehensive policies regarding CNWDI handling are outlined in DoD Directive 5210.2.
- Disclosure policies for NNPI are established in NAVSEAINST 5511.32C.
Counseling and Command Structure
- Facilitating is the instructional method used during discussions.
- The hat device on ball caps should be placed 1 1/4 inches above the visor.
- Collar devices are to be positioned 1 inch from the front edge of the collar.
- The duties of a training petty officer are detailed in the Standard Organization and Regulations of the US Navy.
Personnel Management
- Officers require a minimum of 2 years of service to become a casualty assistance calls officer.
- Personal financial management resources can be found in OPNAVINST 1740.5.
- The military cash awards program is detailed in OPNAVINST 1650.8.
- Programs like NADSAP combat alcohol and drug abuse in the Navy.
Record Keeping and Security Checks
- Enlisted service records contain copies of all previously completed Page 4s on the right side.
- Records must be maintained for 5 years for Top Secret FGI, 3 years for Secret FGI, and 2 years for Confidential FGI.
- SF 701 is used for end-of-day security checks, while SF 702 records the security of classified areas.
- Procedures for visit protocols are referenced in SECNAVINST 5510.30.
Technical Surveillance and Document Management
- Technical surveillance support is requested under SECNAVINST 3850.4.
- The U.S. Navy enlisted Field Service Record (FSR) is maintained via NAVPERS 1070/600.
- Adverse material in the FSR must be reviewed by the member before being filed.
- If no member statement is submitted within 15 working days, the adverse material can be filed.
Conclusion
- Proper knowledge of regulations, security measures, and management practices is crucial for Navy personnel. Understanding these key processes and requirements ensures compliance and readiness in various operational environments.
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Description
Test your knowledge of key terms and definitions relevant to Yeoman Third Class duties. This quiz will cover important concepts and reporting protocols you need to understand in your role. Ideal for those preparing for evaluations and promotions.