Virology and Serology Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which virus can be grown in the chorioallantoic membrane?

  • Herpes simplex virus (correct)
  • Mumps virus
  • Influenza virus
  • Ebola virus

    • Which of the following is NOT a site for virus growth in embryonated eggs?

  • Yolk sac
  • Allantoic membrane
  • Amniotic sac
  • Chorionic villi (correct)

    • What does ELISA stand for?

  • Electrolyte-linked immunochemical assay
  • Electrolyte-linked immunosorbent assay
  • Enzyme-linked immunochemical assay
  • Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (correct)

    • What is the substrate conjugate reaction?

    <p>A reaction that produces a color change</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following enzymes is NOT commonly used in HIV ELISA?

    <p>Catalase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the titer of a patient numbered 8?

    <p>1/4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which patient was a prozone effect observed?

    <p>Patient no 6</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which serological technique is NOT used in the diagnosis of viral infections?

    <p>Gram staining</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary use of a tissue culture flask in a microbiology laboratory?

    <p>Virus isolation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect (CPE) induced by viruses in susceptible cells?

    <p>Formation of biofilm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT an advantage of HIV rapid tests?

    <p>Requires trained personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is a disadvantage of rapid diagnostic tests for viral infections?

    <p>Effectiveness only after the window period</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name given to the intracellular masses of virions in infected cells?

    <p>Inclusion bodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following media would be LEAST suitable for the purpose of viral isolation?

    <p>Nutrient Agar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key limitation of rapid diagnostic tests regarding the type of results they provide?

    <p>They provide only qualitative results</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one use of the tube precipitation test?

    <p>Measuring the amount of immunoglobulins in blood plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What phenomenon explains the lack of precipitation on top of the tube?

    <p>Post prozone phenomenon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of line is formed between sample A and bovine albumin in the double-diffusion test?

    <p>Pattern of identity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the principle behind the double diffusion technique?

    <p>Antigen and antibody diffuse and form a line at equivalent proportions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is likely to be a false positive?

    <p>Tests A and C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the result determined in the single diffusion precipitation reaction?

    <p>By the diameter of the precipitation line</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of precipitation reaction is seen in the scenario mentioned in Qn. 24?

    <p>Double diffusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the precipitation line indicate in a precipitation reaction?

    <p>Equivalence of antigen and antibody concentrations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are two advantages of the Kirby-Bauer technique?

    <p>It is highly accurate in predicting the in vivo effectiveness of antibiotics.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the principle behind the E-test?

    <p>The E-test uses a gradient of antibiotic concentration to determine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors can influence the size of the inhibition zone in an agar diffusion test?

    <p>All of the above.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the test described in Qn.17, commonly used for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

    <p>Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion Test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the medium used for the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test?

    <p>Mueller-Hinton Agar (MHA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion Test determine?

    <p>Qualitative minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the test described in Qn.18?

    <p>Broth Dilution Test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which milk sample is safe for human consumption?

    <p>Sample A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the principle behind the methylene blue test?

    <p>The presence of bacteria in the milk decolorizes the methylene blue dye, indicating contamination.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test, besides the methylene blue test, can be used to determine whether milk is sterile?

    <p>Phosphatase test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'discordant results' mean in the context of John's HIV test?

    <p>One test gave a positive result and the other gave a negative result.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are possible causes for the discordant HIV test results?

    <p>The rapid tests were expired, leading to inaccurate results.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which confirmatory test should be performed to resolve the discordant HIV test result?

    <p>ELISA or PCR</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a tick indicate in the blood group determination table?

    <p>Agglutination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood group does patient PT4 have based on the agglutination table?

    <p>Blood group AB</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    General Instructions

    • Examination consists of 25 questions.
    • Two minutes allocated per question.
    • Students required to answer all questions.
    • Slides change automatically.
    • Registration number and answers to be written on the answer sheet.

    Qn. 1

    • Four serological techniques used in diagnosing viral infections (select any four):
      • ELISA
      • Antigen/Antibody Rapid Diagnostic Test (RDT)
      • Complement Fixation Test
      • Hemagglutination Inhibition
      • Immunostaining

    Qn. 2

    • Q2 a) Identify the item: Tissue culture flask/bottle
    • Q2 b) Use in microbiology laboratory: Virus isolation
    • Q2 c) Two media used for virus isolation:
      • Roswell Park Memorial Institute medium (RPMI 1640)
      • Dulbecco's modified eagle's medium (DMEM)

    Qn. 3

    • Cytopathic effects (CPE) induced by viruses:
      • Rounding up and detaching of cells
      • Cell lysis
      • Swelling of nuclei
      • Formation of fused cells (syncytia)
      • Inclusion bodies in the nucleus or cytoplasm

    Qn. 4

    • Four advantages of HIV rapid tests:
      • Detects both antigen and antibody.
      • Inexpensive (cheap).
      • Easy to perform.
      • Rapid results (within 30 minutes)
      • Easy to store

    Qn. 5

    • Four disadvantages of rapid diagnostic tests for viral infections:
      • Only effective after the window period.
      • Dependence on antibody production.
      • Provides qualitative results only.
      • Cross-reactivity/false positive results.

    Qn. 6

    • Virus growth sites in embryonated eggs:
      • Chorionicallantoic membrane: Poxvirus, herpes simplex virus
      • Allantoic membrane: Influenza virus, mumps virus
      • Amniotic sac: Influenza virus, mumps virus
      • Yolk sac: Herpes virus

    Qn. 7

    • Qn. 7 a) Long form of ELISA: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
    • Qn. 7 b) Colour development mechanism in ELISA: Substrate conjugate reaction
    • Qn. 7 c) Two enzymes commonly used in HIV ELISA: Horseradish peroxidase and Alkaline phosphatase

    Qn. 8

    • Provided image is a result of an HIV ELISA test.

    Qn. 9

    • Four roles of public health microbiology laboratories:
      • Investigating disease outbreaks.
      • Testing environmental samples (water, food)
      • Conducting research on communicable diseases.
      • Confirming etiology during epidemics.

    Qn. 10

    • Qn. 10 a) Use of the MPN table: Determining water suitability for human consumption
    • Qn 10 b) Interpretation of results in row a: Unsatisfactory.
    • Qn 10 c) How to confirm presence of E. coli: Performing IMVIC tests.

    Qn. 11

    • Qn. 11 a) Safe milk sample: A
    • Qn. 11 b) Principle of the test: Methylene blue dye is decolorized by bacteria in the milk.
    • Qn. 11 c) Another test to determine milk sterility: Phosphatase test

    Qn. 12

    • Qn. 12 a) Interpretation of results: Discordant results
    • Qn. 12 b) Two possible causes of discordant results: Expired test kits, low test sensitivity, contamination, window period
    • Qn. 12 c) Further test needed: ELISA or PCR

    Qn. 13

    • Blood groups of 4 patients (PT1 - PT4) determined based on agglutination results.

    Qn. 14

    • Two advantages of Kirby-Bauer technique: Well-standardized and yields data that reliably predict in vivo effectiveness of the tested drug.

    Qn. 15

    • Qn. 15 a) Technique name: E-test
    • Qn. 15 b) Use of the test: Determining minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for isolates.
    • Qn. 15 c) Principle of the test: Agar diffusion using a plastic strip to determine MIC.

    Qn. 16

    • Four factors determining zone sizes in agar diffusion test: Media type/depth, quality of antimicrobial discs, inoculums size, incubation time.

    Qn. 17

    • Qn. 17 a) Test Name: Kirby Bauer disk diffusion
    • Qn. 17 b) Medium used: MHA
    • Qn. 17 c) Result determination: Diameter of inhibition zone
    • Qn. 17 d) Test determination: Qualitative MIC

    Qn. 18

    • Test name: Broth or agar dilution

    Qn. 19

    • Test name: Diagnostic Sensitivity Test
    • Three settings/situations where the setup can be used: Determine antimicrobial concentration, study kinetics of a new drug, verify therapeutic concentrations

    Qn. 20

    • The setup is a precipitation reaction.

    Qn. 21

    • Qn. 21 a) Type of precipitation reaction: Tube precipitation test
    • Qn. 21 b) Use of the method: Measuring immunoglobulins in blood plasma.
    • Qn. 21 c) Reason for lack of precipitation: Post-prozone phenomenon (excess antigens)
    • Qn. 21 d) Test likely to be false positive: A and C
    • Qn. 21 e) Type of precipitation in test C: Post-zone phenomenon

    Qn. 22

    • Samples and results are provided.

    Qn. 23

    • Qn. 23 a) Type of precipitation reaction: Single diffusion
    • Qn. 23 b) Result determination: Diameter of precipitation line
    • Qn. 23 c) Test use: Determining antigen concentration

    Qn. 24

    • Qn. 24 a) Type of precipitation reaction: Double diffusion
    • Qn. 24 b) Principle of the technique: Antigens and antibodies diffuse and form a line when concentrations are equivalent.

    Qn. 25

    • Two reasons for antimicrobial assays in body fluids: ensuring adequate tissue concentrations and preventing toxic concentrations.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on virology concepts, particularly the growth and diagnosis of viruses using various techniques. This quiz covers topics like virus growth in embryonated eggs, ELISA methods, and serological techniques. Perfect for students in microbiology or virology courses.

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