Virology and Hepatitis Markers

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following bands is considered positive for Western blot?

  • P24
  • Gp41
  • Gp10
  • Gp160
  • All of the above (correct)

What is the major subtype of HIV?

  • P
  • M (correct)
  • N
  • O

Which virus can cause superinfection of Hepa B?

  • Hepa A
  • Hepa D (correct)
  • Hepa C
  • Hepa E

What is the most common mode of transmission of Hepa C?

<p>Parenteral (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which marker appears first at the end of the incubation period?

<p>HBSAg (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which marker rises at the end of the acute stage?

<p>Anti-HBe (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which marker begins to rise a couple of weeks into the acute phase?

<p>Anti-HBc (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which marker peaks at about the same time as the surface antigen?

<p>HBeAg (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which marker appears last during Hepa B infection?

<p>Anti-HBe (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mode of transmission for Hepa A?

<p>Fecal-oral (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which titer is suggestive of infectious mononucleosis (IM)?

<blockquote> <p>56 (C)</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

Agglutination with horse RBC after absorption with guinea pig kidney cells and no agglutination after absorption with beef RBCs indicates:

<p>IM (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with lymphocytosis with many reactive (atypical) lymphocytes?

<p>IM (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A malignant neoplasm of the B lymphocytes is seen in:

<p>Burkitt lymphoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Determinants OSPC are suggestive of:

<p>Borrelia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The strain of T. pallidum used in FTA-ABS test is:

<p>Nichol's (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test utilizes charcoal particles for VDRL testing?

<p>RPR (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

VDRL is classified as:

<p>Flocculation test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

VDRL detects:

<p>Reagin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The titer of ASO is determined using:

<p>The last tube without hemolysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

CD4 is a marker for:

<p>T cell (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The principle of the Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) test is:

<p>Indirect immunofluorescence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A positive result for complement fixation is indicated by:

<p>No hemolysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The attachment of a soluble antigen to a particle is involved in:

<p>Passive agglutination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A method used to quantify antigens:

<p>Rocket immunoelectrophoresis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When excess antibody is present, this condition occurs:

<p>Prozone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ouchterlony technique is based on:

<p>Double immunodiffusion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The extent of binding capacity of multivalent antigens and multiple antibodies is known as:

<p>Avidity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The strength of the interaction between a single antibody binding site and a single epitope is known as:

<p>Affinity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Screening for prostate cancer is done using:

<p>PSA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Neoplastic cells of testicular cancer are identified by:

<p>HCG (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A marker for colon cancer is:

<p>CEA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hepatocellular carcinoma is identified using:

<p>AFP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A marker for metastatic disease is:

<p>CEA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Monitoring of cancer therapy is done using:

<p>AFP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Western blot positive bands?

Indicates a positive result for HIV when testing with Western blot.

Major HIV Subtype?

The major subtype of HIV.

Superinfection of Hepa B?

Hepa D requires Hepa B to cause superinfection.

Hepa C transmission?

The most common mode of transmission for Hepa C.

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First Hepa B marker?

Appears first at the end of the incubation period for Hepa B.

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Hepa B acute stage marker?

This marker rises at the end of the acute Hepa B stage.

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Hepa B marker rising in acute phase?

Marker that begins to rise a couple of weeks into the acute phase of Hepa B.

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Hepa A transmission?

The mode of transmission for Hepa A.

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IM suggestive titer?

The titer suggestive of infectious mononucleosis (IM).

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FTA-ABS T. pallidum strain?

The strain of T. pallidum used in FTA-ABS test.

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Study Notes

  • Western blot positivity is indicated by the presence of P24, Gp41, Gp120, and Gp160 bands.
  • HIV's major subtype is M.
  • Hepatitis D is able to cause superinfection of Hepatitis B
  • Parenteral is cited as the most common mode of Hepatitis C transmission.
  • HBSAg marker appears first at the end of the incubation period
  • Anti-HBe marker rises at the end of the acute stage of Hepatitis B infection.
  • Anti-HBc marker begins to rise a couple of weeks into the acute phase.
  • HBeAg marker peaks at about the same time as the surface antigen.
  • Anti-HBe marker appears last during Hepatitis B infection.
  • Fecal-oral is the mode of transmission for Hepatitis A.
  • A titer >56 is suggestive of infectious mononucleosis (IM).
  • Agglutination with horse RBC after absorption with guinea pig kidney cells and no agglutination after absorption with beef RBCs indicates IM.
  • Infectious mononucleosis (IM) is associated with lymphocytosis with many reactive (atypical) lymphocytes.
  • Burkitt lymphoma is a malignant neoplasm of the B lymphocytes.
  • Determinants OSPC are suggestive of Heterophile.
  • The strain of T. pallidum used in the FTA-ABS test is Nichol's.
  • VDRL testing utilizes charcoal particles in the RPR test.
  • VDRL is classified as a flocculation test.
  • VDRL detects Cardiolipin.
  • ASO is classified as agglutination test.
  • The titer of ASO is determined using the last tube without hemolysis.
  • CD4 is a marker for T cells.
  • CD41 is a marker for platelets.
  • CD16 is a marker for macrophages.
  • CD19 is a marker for B cells.
  • CD2 is a marker for T cells.
  • The principle of the Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) test is indirect immunofluorescence.
  • A positive result for complement fixation is indicated by no hemolysis.
  • The attachment of a soluble antigen to a particle is involved in passive agglutination.
  • Rocket immunoelectrophoresis is a method to quantify antigens.
  • When excess antibody is present, a prozone occurs.
  • The Ouchterlony technique relies on double immunodiffusion.
  • Avidity is the extent of binding capacity of multivalent antigens and multiple antibodies
  • The strength of the interaction between a single antibody binding site and a single epitope is known as affinity.
  • Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is used in screening for prostate cancer.
  • Neoplastic cells of testicular cancer are identified by Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG).
  • Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a marker for colon cancer.
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma is identified using Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP).
  • Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a marker for metastatic disease.
  • Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in monitoring of cancer therapy.

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