Veterinary Anatomy: Swallowing and Dental Issues
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of the tongue in the swallowing process?

  • Relaxing the esophageal sphincter
  • Pushing the bolus to the back of the pharynx (correct)
  • Closing the epiglottis
  • Chewing food

    • Mastication refers to the chewing of food.

    True

    Name one major cranial nerve involved in the swallowing process.

    CN V (Trigeminal), CN VII (Facial), CN IX (Glossopharyngeal), CN X (Vagus), or CN XI (Accessory).

    The process that involves handling food in the mouth is known as ______.

    <p>prehension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the cranial nerves with their key functions in swallowing:

    <p>CN V = Mastication, oral cavity sensation CN IX = Pharynx elevation, posterior tongue sensation/taste CN X = Pharyngeal/laryngeal motor control, airway protection CN VII = Lip closure, cheek tension, taste (anterior tongue)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the cricopharyngeus muscle?

    <p>To inhibit retrograde movement of the bolus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The relaxation of the esophageal sphincter allows for the acceptance of the bolus.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During swallowing, the closure of the epiglottis leads to ______ of breathing.

    <p>inhibition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following issues can be evaluated during an oral examination of a dog or cat? (Select all that apply)

    <p>Tooth resorption sites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    It is safe to perform an oral exam on an uncooperative animal without sedation.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of dental issue is characterized by inflammation and tartar buildup without bone loss?

    <p>Stage 1 Periodontal Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Class 3 malocclusion is commonly referred to as _____ and may lead to other abnormalities.

    <p>underbite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the treatment for Type 2 malocclusion?

    <p>Extraction of affected teeth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the signs of periodontal disease with their corresponding stages:

    <p>No inflammation; tartar present = Stage 0 Slight swelling and reddening; tartar buildup = Stage 1 Severe bone loss; teeth should be extracted = Stage 4 No bone loss; tartar starting to develop = Stage 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered a normal periodontal probing depth for horses?

    <p>2-5 mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical feature of the equine esophagus needs to be considered when treating esophageal diseases?

    <p>The long and muscular structure of the esophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Malocclusions refer to the overgrowth of multiple teeth.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Tooth resorption can only be diagnosed through radiographic examination.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the occlusion exam during an equine dental exam?

    <p>Assess grinding function of teeth and check for malocclusions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The treatment for a hook on the 06s is to reduce the tooth by ______ mm.

    <p>5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following dental terms to their correct definitions:

    <p>Rostral = Towards the front of the mouth Medial = Towards the midline of the mouth Distal = Farther away from the point of attachment Apical = Towards the tip of the tooth root</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using standing sedation with an opioid and an alpha-2 agonist during an oral exam?

    <p>To ensure the horse will stand still without any discomfort</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The endodontic exam assesses the integrity of the tooth's external appearance.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What components should be included in a basic oral exam of a horse?

    <p>Patient history, full physical examination, quality oral examination under sedation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment is commonly recommended for EHEC infections?

    <p>Supportive care</p> Signup and view all the answers

    ETEC primarily causes bloody diarrhea.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific gene detection is used for diagnosing ETEC infections?

    <p>ETEC-specific genes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    EPEC mainly affects ______ and causes watery diarrhea.

    <p>infants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which complication is associated with EHEC?

    <p>Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the bacterial pathogens with their characteristics:

    <p>ETEC = Profuse watery diarrhea EPEC = Watery diarrhea in infants EHEC = Bloody diarrhea with HUS complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Supportive care is the only recommended treatment for EPEC infections.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key difference between ETEC and EHEC regarding diarrhea?

    <p>ETEC causes watery diarrhea while EHEC causes bloody diarrhea.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT considered an ancillary diagnostic for horses with colic?

    <p>Endoscopy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Abdominocentesis is performed to help localize gastrointestinal lesions in horses.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two most common causes of colic in horses?

    <p>Large colon impaction and Small intestinal obstruction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Two types of cecal impaction include ____ and ____.

    <p>primary cecal impaction, secondary cecal impaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the clinical finding to the gastrointestinal disease category:

    <p>Colic pain = Common cause of small intestinal disease Elevated heart rate = Indicator of large intestinal disease Dehydration = Risk factor for cecal impaction Persistent rolling = Findings leading to surgical referral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which sign is a key clinical finding that may indicate a small intestinal lesion?

    <p>Lack of borborygmi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fluid therapy plans for colicky horses should only focus on maintenance of fluids without addressing losses.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of cathartics in large colon impactions?

    <p>To promote the expulsion of impacted fecal matter.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary evolutionary role of the vomiting reflex?

    <p>To protect against toxic substance ingestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Prolonged vomiting can lead to volume depletion and electrolyte derangement.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name one potential consequence of aspiration pneumonia due to vomiting.

    <p>Infection of the lungs or respiratory complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The _____ is the part of the brainstem that contains serotonergic and adrenergic receptors associated with the vomiting reflex.

    <p>emetic center</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the activation of the CRTZ during vomiting?

    <p>Dopamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following medications to their mechanisms of action:

    <p>Maropitant = NK1 antagonist Ondansetron = 5HT3 antagonist Metoclopramide = D2 antagonist Cisapride = 5HT3 and 5HT4 agonist</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ondansetron is contraindicated in animals with GI obstruction.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best use for metoclopramide?

    <p>Ileus, anti-emetic, and increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Prostaglandins increase blood flow and _____ secretion while stabilizing cells.

    <p>mucus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of drugs irreversibly binds to cystines on H-K ATPase?

    <p>Proton Pump Inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cisapride is effective in dogs with idiopathic megaesophagus.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    List one appetite stimulant used in companion animals.

    <p>Diazepam</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hydrogen peroxide is not recommended for inducing emesis in _____ due to its potential toxicity.

    <p>cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the effect of metoclopramide when used as a pro-kinetic drug?

    <p>Increases gastric motility and decreases esophageal reflux</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following conditions with their related treatments:

    <p>Gastroduodenal ulcerations = Proton Pump Inhibitors Hepatic disease = H2 Receptor Antagonists Reflux esophagitis = Proton Pump Inhibitors Delayed gastric emptying = Metoclopramide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Swallowing Phases/Stages in Dogs/Cats

    • Prehension: Handling food in the mouth
    • Mastication: Chewing with masticatory muscles
    • Lubrication: Saliva for lubrication
    • Manipulation: Tongue pushing bolus to pharynx
    • Peristaltic contraction: Moves bolus from pharynx to epiglottis
    • Epiglottis Closure: Prevents breathing during swallowing
    • Esophageal Sphincter Relaxation: Allows bolus acceptance
    • Cricopharyngeal/Thyropharyngeal closure: Prevents retrograde flow of the bolus
    • Epiglottis Return to Relaxed Position: Restores normal breathing

    Cranial Nerves and Muscles Involved in Swallowing

    • CN V (Trigeminal): Mastication, oral cavity sensation
    • CN VII (Facial): Lip closure, cheek tension, taste (tongue)
    • CN IX (Glossopharyngeal): Pharynx elevation, posterior tongue sensation/taste
    • CN X (Vagus): Pharyngeal/laryngeal motor control, airway protection

    Clinical Signs of Oropharyngeal Dysphagia

    • Regurgitation
    • Dropping food
    • Repeated swallowing
    • Gagging
    • Nasal discharge
    • Coughing

    Clinical Differentiation of Dysphagia (Oral, Pharyngeal, Cricopharyngeal, Esophageal)

    • Includes a chart showing different clinical signs and their presence in each type of dysphagia

    Diagnostic Approach for Oropharyngeal Dysphagia

    • History (PE, Labwork (CBC/Chem), Cervical radiographs, Serologic testing for neuromuscular disease)
    • Endoscopy, Video fluoroscopy, Advanced imaging (CT or MRI), Neuromuscular biopsy

    Differences Between Pharyngeal and Cricopharyngeal Dysphagia

    • Pharyngeal prevents bolus movement, while CPD involves UES dysfunction

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    Description

    This quiz covers the anatomy and functions related to swallowing in animals, as well as common dental issues and oral examinations in veterinary practice. Test your knowledge on cranial nerves, muscle functions, and dental conditions in dogs and cats.

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