Veterinary Anatomy: Swallowing and Dental Issues
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of the tongue in the swallowing process?

  • Relaxing the esophageal sphincter
  • Pushing the bolus to the back of the pharynx (correct)
  • Closing the epiglottis
  • Chewing food

Mastication refers to the chewing of food.

True (A)

Name one major cranial nerve involved in the swallowing process.

CN V (Trigeminal), CN VII (Facial), CN IX (Glossopharyngeal), CN X (Vagus), or CN XI (Accessory).

The process that involves handling food in the mouth is known as ______.

<p>prehension</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the cranial nerves with their key functions in swallowing:

<p>CN V = Mastication, oral cavity sensation CN IX = Pharynx elevation, posterior tongue sensation/taste CN X = Pharyngeal/laryngeal motor control, airway protection CN VII = Lip closure, cheek tension, taste (anterior tongue)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the cricopharyngeus muscle?

<p>To inhibit retrograde movement of the bolus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The relaxation of the esophageal sphincter allows for the acceptance of the bolus.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During swallowing, the closure of the epiglottis leads to ______ of breathing.

<p>inhibition</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following issues can be evaluated during an oral examination of a dog or cat? (Select all that apply)

<p>Tooth resorption sites (A), Periodontal disease (B), Malocclusions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

It is safe to perform an oral exam on an uncooperative animal without sedation.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of dental issue is characterized by inflammation and tartar buildup without bone loss?

<p>Stage 1 Periodontal Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

Class 3 malocclusion is commonly referred to as _____ and may lead to other abnormalities.

<p>underbite</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the treatment for Type 2 malocclusion?

<p>Extraction of affected teeth (A), Surgical intervention to lengthen the jaw (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the signs of periodontal disease with their corresponding stages:

<p>No inflammation; tartar present = Stage 0 Slight swelling and reddening; tartar buildup = Stage 1 Severe bone loss; teeth should be extracted = Stage 4 No bone loss; tartar starting to develop = Stage 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is considered a normal periodontal probing depth for horses?

<p>2-5 mm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical feature of the equine esophagus needs to be considered when treating esophageal diseases?

<p>The long and muscular structure of the esophagus</p> Signup and view all the answers

Malocclusions refer to the overgrowth of multiple teeth.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tooth resorption can only be diagnosed through radiographic examination.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the occlusion exam during an equine dental exam?

<p>Assess grinding function of teeth and check for malocclusions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

The treatment for a hook on the 06s is to reduce the tooth by ______ mm.

<p>5</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following dental terms to their correct definitions:

<p>Rostral = Towards the front of the mouth Medial = Towards the midline of the mouth Distal = Farther away from the point of attachment Apical = Towards the tip of the tooth root</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using standing sedation with an opioid and an alpha-2 agonist during an oral exam?

<p>To ensure the horse will stand still without any discomfort (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The endodontic exam assesses the integrity of the tooth's external appearance.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What components should be included in a basic oral exam of a horse?

<p>Patient history, full physical examination, quality oral examination under sedation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment is commonly recommended for EHEC infections?

<p>Supportive care (A), Rehydration therapy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

ETEC primarily causes bloody diarrhea.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific gene detection is used for diagnosing ETEC infections?

<p>ETEC-specific genes</p> Signup and view all the answers

EPEC mainly affects ______ and causes watery diarrhea.

<p>infants</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complication is associated with EHEC?

<p>Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the bacterial pathogens with their characteristics:

<p>ETEC = Profuse watery diarrhea EPEC = Watery diarrhea in infants EHEC = Bloody diarrhea with HUS complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

Supportive care is the only recommended treatment for EPEC infections.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between ETEC and EHEC regarding diarrhea?

<p>ETEC causes watery diarrhea while EHEC causes bloody diarrhea.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered an ancillary diagnostic for horses with colic?

<p>Endoscopy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Abdominocentesis is performed to help localize gastrointestinal lesions in horses.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two most common causes of colic in horses?

<p>Large colon impaction and Small intestinal obstruction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Two types of cecal impaction include ____ and ____.

<p>primary cecal impaction, secondary cecal impaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the clinical finding to the gastrointestinal disease category:

<p>Colic pain = Common cause of small intestinal disease Elevated heart rate = Indicator of large intestinal disease Dehydration = Risk factor for cecal impaction Persistent rolling = Findings leading to surgical referral</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sign is a key clinical finding that may indicate a small intestinal lesion?

<p>Lack of borborygmi (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fluid therapy plans for colicky horses should only focus on maintenance of fluids without addressing losses.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of cathartics in large colon impactions?

<p>To promote the expulsion of impacted fecal matter.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary evolutionary role of the vomiting reflex?

<p>To protect against toxic substance ingestion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prolonged vomiting can lead to volume depletion and electrolyte derangement.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Name one potential consequence of aspiration pneumonia due to vomiting.

<p>Infection of the lungs or respiratory complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

The _____ is the part of the brainstem that contains serotonergic and adrenergic receptors associated with the vomiting reflex.

<p>emetic center</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the activation of the CRTZ during vomiting?

<p>Dopamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following medications to their mechanisms of action:

<p>Maropitant = NK1 antagonist Ondansetron = 5HT3 antagonist Metoclopramide = D2 antagonist Cisapride = 5HT3 and 5HT4 agonist</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ondansetron is contraindicated in animals with GI obstruction.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best use for metoclopramide?

<p>Ileus, anti-emetic, and increasing lower esophageal sphincter tone</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prostaglandins increase blood flow and _____ secretion while stabilizing cells.

<p>mucus</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs irreversibly binds to cystines on H-K ATPase?

<p>Proton Pump Inhibitors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cisapride is effective in dogs with idiopathic megaesophagus.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

List one appetite stimulant used in companion animals.

<p>Diazepam</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hydrogen peroxide is not recommended for inducing emesis in _____ due to its potential toxicity.

<p>cats</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of metoclopramide when used as a pro-kinetic drug?

<p>Increases gastric motility and decreases esophageal reflux (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following conditions with their related treatments:

<p>Gastroduodenal ulcerations = Proton Pump Inhibitors Hepatic disease = H2 Receptor Antagonists Reflux esophagitis = Proton Pump Inhibitors Delayed gastric emptying = Metoclopramide</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Prehension

The process of taking food into the mouth and preparing it for swallowing.

Mastication

The act of chewing food using masticatory muscles.

Lubrication

The process of lubricating food in the mouth with saliva.

Manipulation

The process of using the tongue to move the food bolus towards the back of the pharynx.

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Peristaltic Contraction

A wave-like contraction of muscles that moves the food bolus through the pharynx.

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Epiglottis

The flap of cartilage that covers the trachea during swallowing to prevent food from entering the airway.

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Esophageal Sphincter

The muscle at the top of the esophagus that relaxes to allow the food bolus to enter.

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Cricopharyngeal and Thyropharyngeal muscles

The muscles that prevent the food bolus from moving back up the pharynx.

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Occlusion

The grinding function of the teeth, range of motion of the jaw, and the presence of malocclusions or missing teeth.

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Malocclusion

An abnormal alignment of the teeth, leading to improper chewing and potential dental issues.

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Overgrowth of single tooth

A tooth that is longer than normal, requiring reduction to restore proper function.

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Wave Pattern (tooth wear)

Tooth wear pattern characterized by uneven steps or ridges on the chewing surfaces. Requires multiple treatments over time.

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Hooks and Ramps (tooth wear)

An abnormal alignment of the teeth, with sharp projections on the buccal surface (hooks) and the lingual surface (ramps).

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Periodontal Probing Depth

The distance from the gingival margin to the base of the periodontal pocket as measured with a periodontal probe.

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Interdental Spaces

The space between adjacent teeth, which should be consistent and free of debris.

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Diastema

A normal space or gap between the incisors and the premolars in horses.

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Periodontal Disease

Inflammation and destruction of tissues surrounding the teeth, characterized by plaque and tartar buildup, gum recession, and bone loss.

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Stage 1 Periodontal Disease

The first stage of periodontal disease with no bone loss, but tartar buildup and slightly inflamed gums.

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Stage 4 Periodontal Disease

The most severe stage of periodontal disease, with significant bone loss and potential for tooth loss.

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Tooth Resorption

An abnormal condition in which the tooth root is slowly resorbed, often appearing as a smooth, polished surface.

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Maxilla

An anatomical term describing the upper jaw

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Mandible

An anatomical term describing the lower jaw.

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Base Narrow Malocclusion

A condition where the upper jaw is too narrow, leading to crowded teeth and potential need for extraction.

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Type 2 Malocclusion: Overbite

A condition where the lower jaw is too short, resulting in an overbite.

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Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)

A type of diarrheal illness caused by bacteria that produce toxins, such as heat-labile (LT) and heat-stable (ST) toxins, which lead to watery diarrhea.

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Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC)

A diarrheal illness caused by bacteria that attach to the lining of the small intestine and cause damage to the epithelial cells, resulting in watery diarrhea.

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Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)

A serious diarrheal illness caused by bacteria that produce Shiga toxin, which damages the lining of the intestines and can lead to severe complications like hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS).

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Enteric viral infection

A type of diarrheal illness caused by viruses that infect the digestive tract, leading to inflammation and disruption of the normal function of the intestines.

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Parvovirus

A type of enteric virus that causes gastrointestinal illness, particularly in young animals, characterized by vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.

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Panleukopenia virus

A type of enteric virus that causes gastrointestinal illness, particularly in young animals, characterized by vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.

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Rotavirus

A type of enteric virus that causes gastrointestinal illness, particularly in young animals, characterized by vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.

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Coronavirus

An enteric virus that causes gastrointestinal illness, characterized by vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration.

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Ultrasonographic Examination

A diagnostic procedure that involves examining the abdomen using sound waves, which can help identify potential issues in the horse's digestive system.

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What are the most common causes of colic in horses?

The two most common causes of colic in horses are large colon impaction and displacement, both impacting the large intestine.

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Abdominocentesis

A diagnostic procedure where a small amount of fluid is withdrawn from the abdomen and examined, which can help determine if inflammation or infection is present.

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What clinical findings suggest a small intestinal lesion?

Clinical findings such as decreased appetite, abdominal pain, and straining to defecate often indicate a small intestinal lesion.

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Large Colon Displacement

A severe complication of colic in horses where the large intestine twists on itself, disrupting blood flow and causing extreme pain.

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Gastric Dilatation

A condition where the horse's stomach is enlarged and filled with gas, often causing painful distension and discomfort.

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Large Colon Impaction

A type of colic where the large intestine is blocked by a mass of impacted fecal material, causing significant pain and discomfort.

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Cathartics

A drug used to help soften and/or stimulate the passage of feces through the digestive system. Cathartics are often used in the treatment of large colon impactions to help relieve the blockage.

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What is Vomiting?

The act of expelling stomach contents through the mouth. It's a protective mechanism against toxic or harmful substances.

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What are complications of severe or prolonged vomiting?

Prolonged vomiting can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and even aspiration pneumonia. The stomach acid can irritate the esophagus.

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How is vomiting triggered?

The vomiting reflex is triggered by signals from the brain and the gut.

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What is the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CRTZ)?

The Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CRTZ) is a sensitive area in the brain that detects toxins in the blood. It can trigger vomiting.

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Where is the CRTZ located?

The CRTZ is located outside the blood-brain barrier, allowing it to be exposed to toxins, drugs, and other substances.

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How do nerves in the body contribute to vomiting?

Nerves in the stomach and other organs send signals to the vomiting center in the brain, activating the reflex. This can be triggered by things like anxiety, anticipation, and vestibular diseases.

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How do anti-emetics work?

Anti-emetics work by blocking specific receptors in the brain, preventing the vomiting reflex.

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How does Maropitant work?

Maropitant blocks a receptor called NK1, which is involved in the vomiting process. It's used for a wide range of causes of vomiting.

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How does Ondansetron work?

Ondansetron blocks a receptor called 5HT3, which is found in the brain and gut. It can be helpful for nausea and vomiting in cats.

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How does Metoclopramide work?

Metoclopramide blocks a receptor called D2, which is found in the brain and gut. It can help with delayed gastric emptying and vomiting, but can cause side effects.

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What do pro-kinetic drugs do?

Pro-kinetics help to improve the movement of food through the digestive system.

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How does Metoclopramide work as a pro-kinetic?

Metoclopramide improves stomach emptying and reduces vomiting. It can also help with reflux and other digestive issues.

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How does Cisapride work as a pro-kinetic?

Cisapride can help to improve contractions in the esophagus and increase the pressure at the lower esophageal sphincter, which prevents reflux.

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How does Erythromycin work as a pro-kinetic?

Erythromycin acts like motilin, a naturally occurring hormone that helps to regulate digestion. It can improve stomach emptying and reduce reflux.

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What do mucosal cytoprotectants do?

Mucosal cytoprotectants help to protect the lining of the stomach and intestines.

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Study Notes

Swallowing Phases/Stages in Dogs/Cats

  • Prehension: Handling food in the mouth
  • Mastication: Chewing with masticatory muscles
  • Lubrication: Saliva for lubrication
  • Manipulation: Tongue pushing bolus to pharynx
  • Peristaltic contraction: Moves bolus from pharynx to epiglottis
  • Epiglottis Closure: Prevents breathing during swallowing
  • Esophageal Sphincter Relaxation: Allows bolus acceptance
  • Cricopharyngeal/Thyropharyngeal closure: Prevents retrograde flow of the bolus
  • Epiglottis Return to Relaxed Position: Restores normal breathing

Cranial Nerves and Muscles Involved in Swallowing

  • CN V (Trigeminal): Mastication, oral cavity sensation
  • CN VII (Facial): Lip closure, cheek tension, taste (tongue)
  • CN IX (Glossopharyngeal): Pharynx elevation, posterior tongue sensation/taste
  • CN X (Vagus): Pharyngeal/laryngeal motor control, airway protection

Clinical Signs of Oropharyngeal Dysphagia

  • Regurgitation
  • Dropping food
  • Repeated swallowing
  • Gagging
  • Nasal discharge
  • Coughing

Clinical Differentiation of Dysphagia (Oral, Pharyngeal, Cricopharyngeal, Esophageal)

  • Includes a chart showing different clinical signs and their presence in each type of dysphagia

Diagnostic Approach for Oropharyngeal Dysphagia

  • History (PE, Labwork (CBC/Chem), Cervical radiographs, Serologic testing for neuromuscular disease)
  • Endoscopy, Video fluoroscopy, Advanced imaging (CT or MRI), Neuromuscular biopsy

Differences Between Pharyngeal and Cricopharyngeal Dysphagia

  • Pharyngeal prevents bolus movement, while CPD involves UES dysfunction

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Description

This quiz covers the anatomy and functions related to swallowing in animals, as well as common dental issues and oral examinations in veterinary practice. Test your knowledge on cranial nerves, muscle functions, and dental conditions in dogs and cats.

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