Unraveling the Complexity
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is true about lipids?

  • Lipids containing glycerol are classified as neutral lipids (correct)
  • Lipids not containing glycerol are classified as prostaglandins
  • Lipids containing glycerol are classified as steroids
  • Lipids not containing glycerol are classified as fatty acids

    • What is the chain length and number of double bonds in arachidonic acid?

  • 18 carbons and 2 double bonds
  • 20 carbons and 3 double bonds
  • 20 carbons and 4 double bonds (correct)
  • 18 carbons and 3 double bonds

    • Which fatty acid is considered an essential fatty acid?

  • Arachidonic acid
  • Stearic acid
  • Palmitic acid
  • Linoleic acid (correct)

    • What is the main function of lipoproteins?

    <p>Transporting lipids, including cholesterol, in the plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following lipids is characterized by a basic structure of an amino acid and can be either hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

    <p>Phospholipids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following amino acids is categorized as essential and cannot be synthesized in the body?

    <p>Valine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which level of protein structure involves the folding of the polypeptide chain into a compact, globular form with hydrophobic amino acids on the inside and hydrophilic amino acids on the outside?

    <p>Tertiary structure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the functional fully folded protein structure that determines the biological function of the protein?

    <p>Native conformation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a post-translational modification of proteins that results in a change in protein function?

    <p>Phosphorylation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a monosaccharide with a molecular formula of C6H12O6?

    <p>Glucose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of bond is formed between two sugars in a disaccharide?

    <p>Glycosidic bond</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a polysaccharide that serves as a major source of energy storage in animals?

    <p>Glycogen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component of whole blood?

    <p>Plasma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the pH of blood?

    <p>Slightly alkaline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the approximate volume of blood in a 70kg man?

    <p>4-5L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is responsible for the production and development of new blood cells?

    <p>Haemopoiesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main site of haemopoiesis in adults?

    <p>Pelvis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true about erythrocytes (red blood cells)?

    <p>They have a lifespan of approximately 120 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a specialized protein responsible for transporting oxygen in muscle cells?

    <p>Myoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the main reason for the sigmoidal shape of the oxygen binding curve in hemoglobin?

    <p>The cooperative binding between protein sub-units</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of 2,3-BPG in the oxygen binding curve of hemoglobin?

    <p>It decreases the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physiological states increase the tissue requirement for oxygen and push the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

    <p>Increased CO2 concentration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the Bohr effect in relation to the oxygen binding curve of hemoglobin?

    <p>It decreases the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin at low pH or increased pCO2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a cellular adaptation characterized by an increase in the size of the organ without an increase in the number of cells?

    <p>Hypertrophy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a physiological cause of atrophy?

    <p>Decreased workload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of pathological hyperplasia?

    <p>Breast hyperplasia during pregnancy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type?

    <p>Metaplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a precursor to cancer?

    <p>Metaplasia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a cause of cell injury?

    <p>Oxygen deprivation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an irreversible change in cellular injury?

    <p>Increased mitochondrial permeability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of necrosis is characterized by the transformation of solid tissue into a liquid mass and is often associated with bacterial and fungal infections?

    <p>Liquefactive necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of necrosis is characterized by a distinctive cheesy, crumbly, white appearance and is commonly seen in tuberculous infections?

    <p>Caseous necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of necrosis is characterized by the preservation of the structural outlines of the cells and is often seen in hypoxic cell death except in the brain?

    <p>Coagulative necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of necrosis is characterized by the formation of mummified tissue in dry gangrene and is often associated with ischemia of the lower limb?

    <p>Gangrenous necrosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best defines learning?

    <p>A relatively durable change in behavior or knowledge due to experience</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning?

    <p>A dog learning to sit when commanded</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of observational learning?

    <p>A baby learning to walk by imitating their parents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes classical conditioning?

    <p>An initially neutral stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning?

    <p>Drinking alcohol to feel rewarding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of classical conditioning?

    <p>To prevent or change responses learned through classical conditioning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a health-related example of classical conditioning?

    <p>Campaigns to change attitudes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement in operant conditioning?

    <p>Decreasing tantrums by ignoring them</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning?

    <p>Classical conditioning is based on paired associations, while operant conditioning is based on consequences</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an application of operant conditioning?

    <p>Improving knowledge and skills through computerized tutorials</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the limitations of behaviorist learning theory?

    <p>It ignores what goes on inside the individual</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key concept in observational learning?

    <p>Vicarious reinforcement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main focus of behaviour therapy?

    <p>Reducing fear and anxiety through exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of models in observational learning?

    <p>To demonstrate how to think, feel, and act</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning?

    <p>Classical conditioning involves learning through associations between stimuli, while operant conditioning involves learning through rewards and punishments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of acute inflammation?

    <p>It is associated with the repair process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the five classic signs of acute inflammation?

    <p>Heat, redness, swelling, pain, and loss of function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the two major events in acute inflammation?

    <p>Vascular response and cellular response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of exudate?

    <p>It is a thicker fluid, rich in proteins and immune cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of neutrophils?

    <p>To destroy microorganisms through phagocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a vasoactive amine?

    <p>Epinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of the complement system in inflammation?

    <p>To form a membrane attack complex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an intrinsic cause of haemolytic anaemia?

    <p>Hereditary spherocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an extrinsic cause of haemolytic anaemia?

    <p>Autoimmune disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following consequences can be detected in the blood and indicate the occurrence of haemolysis?

    <p>High levels of bilirubin and LDH</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of warm antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?

    <p>It is associated with lymphoma and collagen vascular diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of cold antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?

    <p>It is associated with mycoplasma and EB virus infections</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a symptom commonly seen in hemolytic anemia?

    <p>Jaundice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following laboratory tests is commonly used to diagnose hemolytic anemia?

    <p>Reticulocyte count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a classification of microorganisms discussed in the text?

    <p>Plants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following terms is used to describe microorganisms that temporarily reside in the human body?

    <p>Transient</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential consequence of disruption to the human microbiome?

    <p>Development of complications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between bacteria/archaea and fungi/protozoa?

    <p>Presence of cell organelles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main characteristic of viruses?

    <p>Ability to replicate on their own</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the classification of protozoans based on their movement?

    <p>Flagella</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a category of parasites?

    <p>Prions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diseases is caused by prions?

    <p>CJD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between resident and transient microbes on the skin?

    <p>Resident microbes live on the body permanently, while transient microbes come and go</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factors can affect the content and diversity of the microbiome?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following anatomical sites in the female body has a low pH environment?

    <p>Vagina</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential complication that can arise when the microbiome is disrupted?

    <p>Opportunistic pathogen overgrowth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential method for restoring the microbiome following disruption?

    <p>Faecal microbiota transplant (FMT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a key enzyme involved in eukaryotic DNA replication?

    <p>Ligase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of eukaryotic DNA replication?

    <p>Random distribution of old histones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a role of Telomerase in DNA replication?

    <p>Promoting DNA repair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is responsible for initiating DNA replication in eukaryotes?

    <p>Pol a</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following DNA polymerases is highly processive and replicates the leading strand during DNA replication in eukaryotes?

    <p>Pol e</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following enzymes removes most of the RNA primer during DNA replication in eukaryotes?

    <p>Rnase H1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is responsible for synthesizing and maintaining telomeric DNA in eukaryotes?

    <p>Telomerase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protein is responsible for separating the DNA strands in an ATP-dependent process during DNA replication?

    <p>DNA Helicase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protein binds to single-stranded DNA to prevent the strands from re-associating during DNA replication?

    <p>Single-Strand Binding (SSB) proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which protein regulates the twisting of the DNA during DNA replication?

    <p>Topoisomerase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing RNA primers during DNA replication?

    <p>Primase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of Xeroderma Pigmentosum (XP)?

    <p>Extreme sensitivity to light</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a cause of Cockayne Syndrome?

    <p>Deficiency in nucleotide excision repair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of nonhomologous end-joining (NHEJ)?

    <p>Repair of double strand breaks using enzymes and proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of nucleotide excision repair (NER)?

    <p>Responds to helix distortion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which staining method is considered the most important in Microbiology?

    <p>Gram Stain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main difference between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells?

    <p>Presence of nucleus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the Gram stain?

    <p>To identify Gram-positive bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During gene expression, which enzyme transcribes DNA into RNA?

    <p>Polymerase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of mutation can cause a frameshift and affect the amino acid sequence beyond the point of the mutation?

    <p>Deletion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common source of genetic variation?

    <p>Spontaneous mutations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do plasmids contribute to the dissemination of antibiotic resistance?

    <p>Plasmids can be copied and transferred between cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the double-stranded DNA at the origin of replication?

    <p>DNA gyrase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of DNA ligase during DNA replication?

    <p>To link the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which direction does DNA polymerase work during DNA replication?

    <p>5' to 3'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the process called that generates an identical set of genes during cell division?

    <p>Replication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the primary component of the bacterial cell wall?

    <p>Peptidoglycan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria?

    <p>To act as a molecular sieve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following structures are involved in bacterial adherence?

    <p>Capsules and slime</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are biofilm infections difficult to treat?

    <p>Biofilms are resistant to antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the structure of viruses?

    <p>They are composed of proteinaceous coats called capsids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the capsid in viruses?

    <p>To protect the viral nucleic acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the difference between bacteria and viruses?

    <p>Bacteria are living organisms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a method used for laboratory diagnosis of viral infections?

    <p>PCR &amp; RT-PCR</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main advantage of viral culture for diagnosis of viral infections?

    <p>Determining viability of the virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a disadvantage of viral culture for diagnosis of viral infections?

    <p>Slow results</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a method used for serological diagnosis of viral infections?

    <p>Testing for viral antigen and specific antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of non-enveloped viruses?

    <p>They are resistant to drying and heat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a method of viral acquisition?

    <p>Blood borne</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of enveloped viruses?

    <p>They do not need to kill cells in order to spread</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of viral replication?

    <p>Viruses utilize the host cell's reproduction system to replicate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure is NOT contained within the femoral sheath?

    <p>Femoral canal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery?

    <p>Obturator artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vein is responsible for draining the superficial inguinal nodes to the external iliac nodes?

    <p>Great saphenous vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which ligament forms the posterior boundary of the femoral ring?

    <p>Pectineal ligament</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle group is part of the anterior compartment of the lower limb?

    <p>Sartorius</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which vein is located on the medial side of the leg?

    <p>Great saphenous vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main anatomical landmark in the upper thigh that forms a wedge-shaped depression?

    <p>Femoral triangle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following veins is commonly associated with the development of varicose veins in the lower limb?

    <p>Great saphenous vein</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle group is primarily responsible for flexing the thigh at the hip joint?

    <p>Sartorius</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which anatomical structure forms the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

    <p>Inguinal ligament, sartorius, and adductor longus muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Lower Limb Anatomy and Ultrasound Summary

    • Lower limb is divided into gluteal, thigh, leg, and foot regions, with important transition areas at the femoral, popliteal, and ankle levels
    • Pelvic bones consist of the irregularly shaped ilium, pubis, and ischium, with various bony landmarks including the iliac crest, pubic tubercle, and ischial spine
    • The femur features key anatomical structures such as the head, neck, trochanters, and condyles, with the deep fascia of the thigh providing strong support and forming the iliotibial tract
    • Superficial veins of the leg include the small saphenous vein on the lateral side and the great saphenous vein on the medial side, with varicose veins being a common issue in the lower limbs
    • Varicose veins are dilated, elongated, and tortuous superficial veins with incompetent or absent valves, often leading to pain, leg swelling, and skin changes
    • Muscles of the lower limb are categorized into anterior, posterior, and medial compartments, with distinct actions and innervations
    • The anterior compartment includes the quadriceps group and sartorius, while the posterior compartment comprises the hamstring group and adductors of the thigh
    • The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped depression in the upper thigh, formed by muscles, and serves as an important anatomical landmark
    • The lower limb muscles follow specific rules, with all muscles passing at least one joint and working on that joint, and different muscle groups such as prime movers, antagonists, and synergists
    • Testing the quadriceps group involves applying resistance to leg extension and observing for compensatory movements or muscle recruitment
    • Varicose vein treatment options include vein obliteration, support stockings, leg elevation, and exercise
    • The lower limb anatomy and ultrasound information is derived from the "Gray’s Surface Anatomy and Ultrasound" and "Weir & Abrahams' Imaging Atlas of Human Anatomy" books by Elsevier Health Sciences

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on post-translational modifications (PTMs) with this quiz. Learn about the chemical modifications that occur on proteins after translation, resulting in changes in protein function. Explore different types of PTMs such as phosphorylation and glycosylation and their impact on the proteome diversity. Challenge yourself and enhance your understanding of this fascinating aspect of protein regulation.

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