endocrine and kidney diseases - uygur

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Questions and Answers

What is the Body Mass Index (BMI) used to define?

  • The amount of muscle mass a person has
  • The health of internal organs
  • Obesity (correct)
  • The metabolic rate of a person

What BMI value is generally used to define obesity?

  • ≥ 30 kg/m² (correct)
  • ≥ 40 kg/m²
  • ≥ 35 kg/m²
  • ≥ 25 kg/m²

Which of the following is NOT one of the three obesity classes?

  • Class II: BMI 35.0 – 39.9 Kg/m²
  • Class III: BMI ≥ 40.0 Kg/m²
  • Class IV: BMI ≥ 45.0 Kg/m² (correct)
  • Class I: BMI 30.0 – 34.9 Kg/m²

What is considered the golden standard for evaluating body composition?

<p>DXA scans (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which country were the highest levels of age-standardized childhood obesity observed?

<p>United States (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the lowest overall risk of death observed for?

<p>BMI of 20 to 25 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What category of disorders is the most important cause of death related to BMI?

<p>Cardiovascular disorders (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Waist circumference is an indicator of what type of obesity?

<p>Android obesity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is promoted by NPY/AgRP neurons?

<p>Food Intake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is secreted from the stomach and promotes food intake?

<p>Ghrelin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of insulin on the arcuate nucleus?

<p>Anorexigenic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of amylin secreted from pancreatic beta cells?

<p>Affects satiety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a 'sedentary lifestyle' contribute to obesity?

<p>Decreases calorie expenditure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common metabolic abnormality associated with obesity?

<p>Dyslipidemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is measured by the HOMA-IR index?

<p>Insulin sensitivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What serum levels increase exponentially with fat mass, suggesting resistance to endogenous leptin?

<p>Leptin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with relative leptin deficiency?

<p>Lipodystrophy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does GLP-1 stand for?

<p>Glucagon-like peptide 1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cause of genetic obesity?

<p>Melanocortin 4 receptor mutation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What function does white adipose tissue perform?

<p>Stores energy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Body Mass Index (BMI) cutoff point for defining obesity?

<p>30 kg/m2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ATP3 criteria, what fasting blood glucose level is considered prediabetic?

<p>Greater than 100 mg/dL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ATP3 criteria, what triglyceride level is one of the factors?

<p>Greater than 150 mg/dL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ATP3 criteria, what HDL level for men is one of the factors?

<p>Less than 40 mg/dL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ATP3 criteria, what systolic blood pressure is the cutoff?

<p>Greater than 130 mmHg (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of ATP3 criteria that must be present to diagnose metabolic syndrome?

<p>3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is steatosis?

<p>Fat accumulation in the liver (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the second phase of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

<p>Steatohepatitis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What value of high sensitivity CRP is another metabolic risk factor for MAFLD?

<p>Greater than 2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If steatohepatitis is not prevented, what can at least 20% of patients experience?

<p>Liver related death (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of weight loss can lead to non-alcoholic steatohepatitis resolution?

<p>5-7% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be known to calculate BMI?

<p>Height and weight (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of fat is recommend in USDA macronutrient recommendations?

<p>20-35% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to USDA macronutrient recommendations, what percentage of carbs should we eat?

<p>45-65% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many calories per gram does 1g of fat have?

<p>9 calories (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many calories per gram does 1g of proteins or carbs have?

<p>4 calories (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

10 kg of weight loss, regular exercise of low or moderate intensity reduces the percentage of weight lost as FFM from approximately what percentage?

<p>12% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of lipoproteins?

<p>To transport lipids in the blood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are chylomicrons lipoproteins secreted from?

<p>The gut (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are VLDL lipoproteins secreted from?

<p>The liver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

From where are LDL lipoproteins obtained?

<p>VLDL via IDL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these lipoproteins is the least dense?

<p>Chylomicrons (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lipoprotein has the highest content of triglycerides?

<p>Chylomicrons (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The activation of LCAT (lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase) requires which apolipoproteins?

<p>Apolipoproteins 1 and 2 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What apolipoprotein controls the secretion of chylomicrons and VLDL?

<p>ApoB48 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What apolipoprotein controls the LDL receptor binding process?

<p>ApoB100 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What apolipoproteins are essential for lipoprotein lipase activation?

<p>C2 and C3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which apolipoprotein facilitates the removal of IDL and remnant particles from the bloodstream?

<p>ApoE (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum fasting time required before assessing a serum lipid profile?

<p>14 hours (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of LCAT in lipid metabolism?

<p>Lecithin-cholesterol acetyltransferase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of bile salts in cholesterol absorption?

<p>To solubilize cholesterol into micellar structures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which apolipoprotein protects chylomicrons from lipoprotein lipase activity?

<p>ApoB-48 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Apolipoproteins C-II and E are acquired in the circulation to assemble which type of molecule?

<p>Chylomicrons (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where is most cholesterol synthesized in the body?

<p>Liver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of VLDL?

<p>To provide fatty acids to tissues (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of increased carbohydrate intake on fatty acid production in the liver?

<p>Increased fatty acid production (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important protein for HDL structure?

<p>Apolipoprotein A-I (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect on dyslipidemias of familial and genetic primary dyslipidemias?

<p>5% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of all dyslipidemias do secondary dyslipidemias account for?

<p>95% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect on LDL of secondary endocrine disorders?

<p>Increase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following SCORE risk factors of CVD can be modified?

<p>Obesity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For very high-risk dyslipidemia patients, what is the LDL-C goal in mg/dL?

<p>&lt; 55 mg/dL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In high-risk patients, what is the LDL-C goal in mg/dL?

<p>&lt; 70 mg/dL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the LDL-C goal in mg/dL for patients with moderate risk?

<p>&lt; 100 mg/dL (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the LDL-C goal for low-risk dyslipidemia patients?

<p>&lt; 116 mg/dL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is considered the most potent for reducing LDL-C levels?

<p>Statins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statins is considered the strongest?

<p>Rosuvastatin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For lowering triglyceride levels, which drugs are the most potent?

<p>Fibrates (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is the most potent for increasing HDL-C levels?

<p>Nicotinic acid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications are used for cardiovascular risk reduction?

<p>Statins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main action of PCSK9 inhibitors?

<p>Promote LDL receptor degradation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the ovary related to hormones?

<p>Both oogenesis and hormonal secretion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormones are produced by Theca cells?

<p>Androgens (androstenedione, testosterone) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormones are produced by Granulosa cells?

<p>Estrogens (estradiol) and inhibin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The corpus luteum is responsible for the synthesis of which hormone?

<p>Progesterone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of LH (Luteinizing Hormone) in the two-cell system of estradiol synthesis?

<p>Acts on theca cells for the secretion of androgens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What hormone does FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) act on for estradiol synthesis?

<p>Granulosa cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of amenorrhea?

<p>The absence of menses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is hypermenorrhea?

<p>Excessive bleeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of Kallmann syndrome?

<p>Disorder of primary amenorrhea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of hyperandrogenism?

<p>Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor causes increased LH pulsatility and production?

<p>Increase of extragonadal estrone secretion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one treatment option to stop androgen synthesis?

<p>Estrogen or progestin pills (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication increases insulin sensitivity and has anti-androgenic activity?

<p>Metformin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which classification of congenital adrenal hyperplasia involves androgen hypersecretion with adrenal insufficiency (cortisol and aldosterone deficiency)?

<p>Classical form, type II (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterises premature ovarian insufficiency?

<p>It occurs in women younger than 40 years of age (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is uric acid (UA) the end product of?

<p>Purine metabolism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Urate exists predominantly as what form at pH 7.4?

<p>Monosodium urate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organs are primarily involved in urate production?

<p>Liver and small intestine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main route of urate excretion from the body?

<p>Through the urine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the kidneys, where is uric acid initially filtered?

<p>Glomeruli (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common dietary source that contributes to uric acid synthesis?

<p>Dietary purines (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two main purines formed during de novo synthesis?

<p>Guanine and adenosine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What enzyme is directly involved in converting hypoxanthine to xanthine?

<p>Xanthine oxidase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a cause of hyperuricemia due to overproduction?

<p>Enzyme defects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a factor that leads to decreased excretion of uric acid?

<p>Renal defects (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A deficiency in what enzyme causes Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

<p>HGPRT (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical presentation of hyperuricemia?

<p>Gout (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of diet is recommended for hyperuricemic patients?

<p>Purine-restricted diet (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of pharmacological treatment for hyperuricemia?

<p>Maintain uricemia &lt; 6mg/dL (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of drug increases the excretion of uric acid from the kidneys?

<p>Uricosuric agents (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial diagnostic procedure needed to diagnose Turner syndrome?

<p>Karyotyping (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical treatment for gonadal failure associated with Turner Syndrome?

<p>Estrogen and Progesterone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what age is estrogen therapy typically initiated in girls with Turner Syndrome?

<p>12-15 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE regarding congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) diagnosis in the second clinical case of primary amenorrhea?

<p>Deficiency requires a second confirmatory test if 17-OH progesterone is below 30 nmol/L (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is excessively high in most cases of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

<p>17-OH Progesterone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term used to define absence of menstruation in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles?

<p>Secondary amenorrhea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical characteristic found in patients with Turner syndrome?

<p>Short stature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surge in which hormone triggers ovulation?

<p>LH (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The corpus luteum secretes which hormone?

<p>Progesterone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the name of the overnight test that excludes Cushing syndrome?

<p>Overnight dexamethasone suppression test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of infertility in women of childbearing age?

<p>Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland?

<p>GnRH (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the cuttoff that determines a high risk patient for LDL-c goals?

<p>&lt;70 mg/dL (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should daily expenditure of calories be limited to?

<p>1400 kcal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the case study, what is the first step in treating diabetes?

<p>Metformin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is Obesity?

A chronic disease defined by BMI, calculated as weight (kg) divided by height (m²).

What BMI defines obesity?

BMI ≥ 30 kg/m².

What are the obesity Classes?

Class I: BMI 30.0 – 34.9 Kg/m², Class II: BMI 35.0 – 39.9 Kg/m², Class III: BMI ≥ 40.0 Kg/m²

How is overweight defined in children?

BMI greater than the 95th percentile.

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Waist Circumference Risk Thresholds

Waist circumference thresholds correlating with increased cardiometabolic risk, 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women.

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What is Insulin Resistance?

A condition where the body is resistant to the effects of insulin in regulating glucose.

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What is Ghrelin?

Hormone secreted from the stomach that increases before eating and decreases after feeding, promoting food intake.

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What is Peptide YY (PYY)?

Peptide secreted by the GI tract after food ingestion that may have an anorexigenic effect.

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What is Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)?

Peptide derived from pre-proglucagon, secreted in response to food ingestion, exerting anorexic effects.

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What is Adiponectin?

The most abundant secretory protein produced by adipocytes; it decreases in obesity and insulin resistance

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What are Lipodystrophies?

Heterogeneous disorders characterized by fat tissue loss and redistribution.

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What is Metabolic Syndrome?

Syndrome with insulin resistance, hyperinsulinemia, dyslipidemia, and hypertension.

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Traits Defining Metabolic Syndrome

Large waist, high triglyceride level, reduced HDL cholesterol, increased blood pressure, and elevated fasting blood sugar.

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What are Glucocorticoids!

Medications that raise blood glucose and could cause drug-induced obesity.

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What is Melanocortin 4 Receptor Mutation?

These are most common cause of genetic obesity and includes leptin deficiency/ leptin receptor deficiency.

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What is Anorexigenic Effect?

A lack of hunger

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What is White Adipose Tissue?

Releases hormones and cytokines, influences whole-body metabolism, insulin-resistance, and causes obesity when accumulated excessively.

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Acanthosis Nigricans

Sign of insulin resistance, visible as dark, velvety skin in body folds.

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Metabolic Syndrome (ATP3 criteria)

A constellation of conditions that increase the risk of cardiovascular diseases and diabetes. Characterized by abdominal obesity, high triglycerides, low HDL cholesterol, high blood pressure, and elevated fasting glucose.

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Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)

Fat accumulation in the liver, potentially leading to inflammation and liver damage if untreated.

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Nonalcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)

Inflammation of the liver associated with fatty deposits, which can progress to more severe liver disease.

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Metabolic dysfunction-Associated Fatty Liver Disease (MAFLD)

Formerly known as NAFLD; liver disease associated with metabolic dysfunction, even in individuals of normal weight.

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Plicometry

A measurement using calipers to estimate body fat by assessing skinfold thickness at certain body locations.

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Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA)

A technique that uses electrical currents to estimate body composition, including fat mass and fat-free mass.

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Dual-Energy X-Ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)

A scan that measures bone mineral density, body composition, and fat distribution using X-rays.

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Resmetirom

A beta-selective thyroid hormone receptor agonist used to treat metabolic associated liver diseases.

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Intentional Weight Loss Benefits

Achieved through lifestyle changes; improves liver health, reduces risk factors: diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia.

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Low-Carb Diet

Diet that involves approximately 25-40% carbohydrates, showing weight loss benefits in the short term.

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Mediterranean Diet

Diet rich in vegetables, olive oil, and nuts, as effective as low-fat options for weight loss.

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Sibutramine

Enhances satiation during meals by affecting norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine reuptake. It results in elevated blood pressure or higher heart rate.

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Orlistat

Binds to lipases in the GI tract and reduces the capacity absorb dietary triglycerides.

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Naltrexone-bupropion

An opioid antagonist combined with a dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, has moderate weight loss effect for obese patients.

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Phentermine-topiramate

Norepinephrine releasing agent with GABA receptor modulation which cause side effects: insomnia, dry mouth, constipation, paresthesia, dizziness.

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GLP-1 and GIP

Hormone that is secreted from the small intestine K cells (endocrine cells), which increases insulin.

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POMC and NPY

Produced from the gastrointestinal tract and with the vagus nerve; one is for satiety and the other for hunger

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Orlistat

Medication category that acts by inhibiting selected pancreatic and gastric lipase for fat malabsorption and reduces net energy intake.

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Bariatric Surgery

Surgical procedures like Roux-en-Y bypass and vertical sleeve gastrectomy that change gut signals to the brain.

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Lipoproteins

Micelles or spherical aggregates that transport lipids in blood to essential organs.

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Lipoprotein Classification

Lipoproteins named by density; separate via electrophoresis.

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Chylomicrons and VLDL

Least dense lipoproteins, highest in triglycerides.

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High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

Most dense lipoprotein, high in cholesterol esters.

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Apolipoproteins

Proteins on lipoproteins essential for their function in lipid metabolism.

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Chylomicron origin

Secreted by the gut, transports dietary lipids.

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VLDL origin

Secreted by the liver, transports endogenous lipids.

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ApoB-100 function

LDL receptor binding control.

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ApoC-II and ApoC-III function

Lipoprotein lipase activation.

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ApoE function

Essential for remnant removal.

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Organs of Lipid Metabolism

Liver, intestine, adipose, and muscle tissues.

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Key Lipid Metabolism Enzymes

LCAT and CETP.

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Cholesterol Absorption

Bile salts solubilize cholesterol.

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Monoglycerides

Re-esterified to triglycerides

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Triglyceride Assembly

Combine with cholesterol and apolipoprotein B-48.

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Chylomicron protection

Apolipoprotein B-48

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Fatty acids removed

By Lipoprotein lipase.

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VLDL Fate

ẞ-oxidation in mitochondria.

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VLDL Accumulates

LPL, ApoC-I, ApoC-II, ApoC-III and ApoE

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ApoA-I

Nonlipidated ApoA-I cleared by kidneys.

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CETP Function

Cholesterol esters from HDL to LDL.

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Lipoprotein A (ApoA) function

Apo(a) regions interferes with fibrinolysis.

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HDL Structure Molecule

Apolipoprotein A-I Function

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Standard Lipid Profile

Measuring total cholesterol, HDL, and triglycerides.

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Friedewald formula limitations

High triglycerides (>400 mg/dL).

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SCORE Chart

A chart to estimate cardiovascular risk in individuals without overt CVD, diabetes, or other high-risk conditions.

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Baseline LDL-C

LDL-C level in a person not taking any LDL-C-lowering medication.

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Diabetes

A risk factor where diabetes, kidney issues, and neuropathies can result.

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Familial Hyperlipidemia

An inherited condition increasing risk for very high-risk patients.

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CVD Risk Factors

Conditions like obesity, inactivity and stress that can affect heart health.

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Tryglicerides Reduction Drugs

Act mostly on triglycerides; Fibrates, Omega-3, Nicotinic Acid, and Statins

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PCSK9 Inhibitors

Medications like Alirocumab and Evolocumab affecting LDL levels.

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Ovarian function

A condition where the ovaries release oocytes and hormones.

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Ovarian Follicles

Structures that support oocyte development and hormone production

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Follicle development

Hormone-independent until antral follicle then becomes dependent.

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Gonadotropins

LH and FSH collectively, released to Gonadotropin Releasing Hormones.

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Hormone production

Follicles produce Androgens, Estrogens, Progesterone, Inhibin and Activin.

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Two Gonadotropin system

LH acts on cells to make androgens; FSH stimulates estradiol synthesis.

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Menstrual Cycle phases

Phases named; Follicular, Ovulation, Luteal and Menstruation

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Hormonal levels during ovulation

LH levels are increased to complete ovulation.

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Amenorrhea

Absent menses for 90 days is cause.

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Reproductive Age

The start with menarche marks a woman's reproduction age.

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Puberty Markers

Thelarche, Pubarche and Menarche.

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Hypothalamic Dysfunction

Weight loss and anorexia.

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Rate Limiting Step

Cholesterol to pregnenolone

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Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

Estrone secretion, LH pulsatility and production.

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PCOS and ultrasounds

Ultrasound shows over 12 follicles with the 2-9 mm Size.

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PCOS therapy

Increased androgens but decreased synthesis also decreased activity.

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21-hydroxylase

Enzyme deficiency and hyperandrogenism leads.

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Hormone deficiency treatment

Corticosteroids and possibly surgery are options.

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Uric Acid (UA)

End product of purine metabolism in higher animals, including humans.

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Urates

Ionized forms of uric acid, predominant in plasma extracellular fluid and synovial fluid.

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Xanthine Oxidase

Enzyme primarily in the liver and small intestine, essential for uric acid synthesis.

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Glomeruli

Kidney component filtering uric acid and reabsorbing it in the proximal tubule.

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Uric Acid Pool

Typical range of uric acid quantity in the body, varying by gender.

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Daily Uric Acid Synthesis

Daily production amount of uric acid in the body.

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Ribose-5-Phosphate

Source of purines, leading into the production of uric acid.

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Lesh-Nyhan Syndrome

A rare, inheritable disorder caused by a deficiency of HGPRT that leads to increased uric acid synthesis.

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Gout

Disorder characterized by a spectrum of clinical conditions due to excess uric acid.

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Uricosuric Agents

Medications that block tubular reabsorption, increasing excretion of uric acid from the kidney.

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Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors

Drugs such as Allopurinol that inhibit xanthine oxidase to decrease uric acid synthesis.

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Hyperuricemia

Condition where male UA levels exceed 7 mg/dL or female UA levels exceed 6 mg/dL.

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Gout-Urate-Lowering Therapy

Therapy that involves preventing arthritis, kidney stones, and tophi formation by diminishing the overall body uric acid.

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Urate Underexcretion

Occurs due to issues like renal defects, diuretics, or tubular toxins.

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HGPRT

Enzyme crucial for recycling hypoxanthine and forming nucleotides.

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Primary Amenorrhea

Absence of menarche (first menstruation) in a female by age 15.

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Tanner staging

A system used to assess and describe the physical development of secondary sexual characteristics during puberty stages.

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Turner Syndrome

A genetic disorder in women, characterized by the absence of a sex chromosome (XO).

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High Serum 17-OH Progesterone

Elevated levels are indicative of CAH.

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Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia; Deficiency of certain enzymes by affecting the adrenal glands' hormone production.

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Secondary Amenorrhea

Absence of menstruation for at least six months in a woman who previously had regular menstrual cycles.

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HOMA-IR Score

Measure for assessing insulin resistance by multiplying fasting glucose and insulin levels, then dividing by a constant.

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Dexamethasone Suppression Test

Test administering dexamethasone to suppress cortisol; used to screen for Cushing Syndrome.

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LH/FSH Ratio

The ratio between luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that show as a suspicios diagnosis of PCOS.

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Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

A condition involving a problem in female fertility.

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Dyslipidemia

Elevated blood levels of lipids, including triglycerides and cholesterol.

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Abdomen Ultrasound

An examination using sound waves to visualize internal abdominal structures, specifically the liver.

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Supra-aortic Trunk Echo-Doppler

Examination of the carotid artery to assess for plaques and intima-media thickness.

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Statin

A medication that reduces LDL cholesterol levels.

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ACE Inhibitor

An agent that inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme, used to treat hypertension and heart failure.

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Study Notes

Hyperuricemia Overview

  • These are study notes for metabolic diseases, with a focus on hyperuricemia.
  • Hyperuricemia is when uric acid (UA) production and excretion is unbalanced.
  • Hyperuricemia levels are >7 mg/dL in males or >6 mg/dL in females.

Uric Acid and Urate

  • Uric acid (UA) the end-product of purine metabolism in humans.
  • Urates, ionized form of uric acid, is predominant in plasma, extracellular fluid, and synovial fluid, as monosodium urate at pH 7.4 (~98%).
  • Urate production happens in tissues containing xanthine oxidase, mainly the liver and small intestine.
  • Xanthine oxidase is critical for uric acid synthesis.
  • Two-thirds to three-fourths of urate is excreted through urine by the kidneys.
  • The intestines eliminate the remainder of urate.
  • In the kidney, uric acid is filtered by the glomeruli and reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
  • Uric acid is secreted and partially reabsorbed in the distal proximal tubule, ascending loop of Henle, and collecting tubules.
  • The normal uric acid pool: 1200mg for men and 600mg for women.
  • Daily uric acid synthesis is about 400mg.
  • Dietary sources contribute about 300mg.
  • 75% of uric acid excreted in urine, the remainder in the GI tract and degraded to allantoin by bacterial enzymes.
  • Guanine and Adenosine are purines in the body.

Purine Synthesis

  • De novo purine synthesis uses the pentose phosphate pathway to produce Ribose-5-phosphate.
  • Ribose-5-phosphate is converted by a synthase into phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP).
  • PRPP forms Guanine or Adenosine.
  • Hypoxanthine can be obtained using the same pathway and is converted by xanthine oxidase into xanthine and then uric acid, which is excreted.
  • The salvage pathway turns hypoxanthine directly into guanine and adenosine, recycling uric acid metabolites.
  • The salvage pathway needs HGPRT (Hypoxanthine-Guanine phosphoribosyl transferase) to recover hypoxanthine and produce GMP, IMP, and AMP.

Pathogenesis of Hyperuricemia

  • Hyperuricemia results from overproduction (10%) or underexcretion (90%) of uric acid.
  • Overproduction is caused by enzyme defects, increased purine intake, alcohol intake, myeloproliferative disease, and psoriasis.
  • Enzyme defects: overactive PRPP synthetase, HGPRTase defects, or other issues in purine synthesis (APRTase, ADA).
  • Underexcretion is caused by renal defects, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), diuretics, tubular toxins (alcohol, low-dose ASA, cyclosporine), lead, hypothyroidism, and organic acid accumulation.
  • Accumulation of organic acid (DKA, starvation, lactic acidosis) competes with urate for tubular secretion.
  • High fructose intake leads to rapid ATP depletion and increases uric acid production, contributing significantly to hyperuricemia.

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome

  • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare inheritable disorder causing hyperuricemia due to HGPRT deficiency.
  • HGPRT deficiency impairs salvage synthesis, increasing uric acid synthesis.
  • LNS affects about 1 in 380,000 live births.
  • HGPRT defect increases hypoxanthine and guanine levels, increasing uric acid.
  • HGPRT deficiency results in uric acid buildup in all body fluids, causing gout and kidney problems.
  • Neurological signs: poor muscle control, intellectual disability, aggressiveness, self-mutilation, and head banging.
  • Life expectancy: early to mid-20s.

Clinical Presentation and Treatment

  • Hyperuricemia can be asymptomatic or cause gout.
  • Gout is a metabolic disorder due to excess uric acid, causing monosodium urate crystal deposition in joints.
  • Gout is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis in men >40 years old, with a prevalence near 4%.
  • Incidence increases to near 10% with age therefore gout is an important cause of inflammatory arthritis in elderly patients.
  • Uric acid levels increase significantly after 80 years.
  • Elevated serum uric acid is the most correlated lab value with metabolic syndrome.
  • Gout risk factors: advanced age (>65 y.o.), trauma to joints, hospitalization, high-meat-and-fish diet, and chronic renal insufficiency.
  • Medications increasing gout risk: diuretics, nicotinic acid (niacin), low-dose aspirin, cyclosporine, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and levodopa.
  • Hyperuricemia is treated if cut-off is > 7 mg/dL for males and > 6 mg/dL for females.
  • Drug treatment may be unnecessary for patients with a single gout episode where they are losing weight and reducing alcohol/fructose intake.
  • Pharmacological treatment is indicated with frequent gout attacks, tophi, CKD (stage 2 or greater), or urolithiasis as target uricemia is <6mg/dl.
  • Healthy lifestyle changes can prevent the need for drug treatment.
  • Changes include weight loss, a healthy diet, exercise, smoking cessation, and hydration.
  • Alcohol(especially beer), high-purines and fructose should be avoided in a correct diet.
  • Patients should limit meat (poultry, crab, lobster, oysters, and shrimp) to 4-6 ounces daily.
  • Limit vegetables high in purines such as asparagus, cauliflower, spinach, mushrooms, and green peas, to less than ½ cup each day.
  • Consume beans and lentils up to 1 cup daily.
  • Limit oats and oatmeal to 2/3 cup uncooked daily.
  • Limit wheat germ and bran to ¼ cup per day to avoid high purine intake.
  • Clinical trials have shown that these measures reduce serum uric acid by 10-15%.
  • These lifestyle changes are insufficient in patients with maintained Hyperuricemia >7mg/dl.
  • Avoid high-purine foods such as anchovies, sardines, scallops, mussels, tuna, codfish, herring, haddock, wild game meats, and organ meats.

Therapeutic Strategies

  • The excretion of uric acid from the kidneys can be increased, or the de novo synthesis of uric acid can be decreased.
  • Xanthine oxidase inhibitors can be used for excessive production of uric acid, such as allopurinol.
  • For treating the inadequate excretion of uric acid, uricosuric agents exist.
  • Restricting the dietary consumption of high-purine food can also be employed.

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors

  • Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, working as a competitive, nonselective enzyme inhibitor, decreasing uric acid synthesis.
  • Febuxostat interacts similarly to allopurinol but is more potent.
  • Febuxostat is selective for xanthine oxidase and binds to a specific region.
  • Febuxostat and metabolites are excreted via the liver and kidneys, without dosage changes in kidney failure.

Uricosuric Agents

  • Probenecid and Sulfinpyrazone increase uric acid excretion by blocking tubular reabsorption, enhancing urine uric acid excretion and decreasing serum uric acid levels.
  • Probenecid is less effective in older patients and is contraindicated in a history of high uric acid, nephrolithiasis, and renal disease.

Gout

  • Gout is the main clinical expression of hyperuricemia in the body.
  • Inflammation of the first metatarsal joint is pathognomonic for gout arthritis.
  • It is the most common form of inflammatory arthritis in men >40 years old, with a prevalence near 4%.
  • Incidence increases to near 10% with age, therefore gout is an important cause of inflammatory arthritis in elderly patients.
  • Uric acid levels increase significantly after 80 years.
  • Elevated serum uric acid is the most correlated lab value with metabolic syndrome.
  • Gout risk factors are advanced age (>65 y.o.), trauma to joints, hospitalization, high-meat-and-fish diet, and chronic renal insufficiency.
  • Medications increasing gout risk: diuretics, nicotinic acid (niacin), low-dose aspirin, cyclosporine, ethambutol, pyrazinamide, and levodopa.

Gouty Arthritis

  • The first episode of acute gout arthritis is usually preceded by hyperuricemia for years.
  • The first metatarsal-phalangeal joint is pathognomonic, also occurring in other foot joints, ankles, or knees.
  • Commonly monoarticular (80%) in the first cases, but can be polyarticular in recurrent cases.
  • The first episode is frequently excruciating and builds up over several hours.
  • The main characteristics in gouty arthritis include:
    • Sudden onset
    • Middle-aged males
    • Severe pain
    • Distal joints
    • Intense inflammation
    • Recurrent episodes
    • Influence by diet
    • Bony erosions on X-ray
    • Hyperuricemia
  • High serum uric acid levels is a feature of gouty arthritis.

Acute Gout

  • Main features includes:
    • Redness
    • Warmth
    • Pain
    • Tenderness
  • The big toe joint is mostly affected.
  • Bony erosions on the foot joints are sometimes visible on X-rays.
  • Synovial fluid analysis shows monosodium urate crystals, which are pathognomonic for gouty arthritis.
  • Synovial fluid analysis helps differentiate gouty arthritis from septic arthritis, where antibiotics are urgently needed.
  • Differential diagnoses for gouty arthritis: Pseudogout, Reactive arthritis, Polyarticular arthritis, and Rheumatoid arthritis.
  • Tophus, a clinical sign visible after several attacks, can be seen in joints and ears.

Drugs used to treat gout

  • Acute arthritis drugs used to treat gout, lower inflammation and include:
    • Colchicine
    • Steroids
    • NSAIDs
  • Urate-lowering drugs:
    • Allopurinol
    • Probenecid
    • Febuxostat
  • Rest, analgesia, and time are also important for treatment.

Colchicine

  • Colchicine is used to treat acute gouty arthritis, and in low doses, it can prevent recurrent gouty arthritis.
  • Effective only in gouty arthritis.
  • Colchicine is not:
    • An analgesic agent.
    • Affect renal excretion of uric acid.
    • Alter plasma solubility of uric acid.
    • Raises nor lowers serum uric acid levels.
  • Reduces inflammatory response to deposited crystals.
  • Colchicine is only used to treat gouty attacks.
  • NSAIDs: Indometacin, Ibuprofen, Naprosyn
  • Corticosteroids: Prednisone, Triamcinolone

Gout-urate-lowering therapy

  • It prevents arthritis, tophi, and stones by lowering the total body pool of uric acid.
  • The therapy is not indicated after the first attack, but after the second.
  • Therapy initiation can worsen or bring on acute gouty arthritis.
  • Gout-urate-lowering therapy is not effective in the management of acute gout because it has no anti-inflammatory activity.
  • Can precipitate acute gout and can prolong gout attacks.

Comorbidities associated with Hyperuricemia

  • Hyperuricemia is related to cardiovascular diseases
  • Comorbidities associated with hyperuricemia:
    • Chronic kidney diseases
    • Obesity
    • Diabetes
    • Metabolic syndrome
    • Hypertension
    • Hyperlipidemia
    • Cardiovascular diseases
  • Serum uric acid levels predict metabolic syndrome in patients with gout and is correlated with metabolic syndrome and diabetes.
  • Uric acid can cause endothelial dysfunction and impaired nitric oxide production
  • Uric acid causes tissue ischemia and microvascular diseases and nephropathies, generates oxidative stress, and causes coronary artery diseases, heart failure, and diabetes.
  • Hyperuricemia is not only an effect of renal failure but also an independent risk factor for renal failure development and progression.

Uric Acid and endothelial function

  • Hyperuricemia increases the effects of flow-mediated dilation, it shows us endothelial dysfunction.
  • Hyperuricemic patients have lower rates, allopurinol improves in these patients the endothelial function, by decreasing uric acid levels.
  • With higher levels of uric acid, STEMI and NSTEMI(myocardial infarction) increase.
  • Also causes an increase in unstable angina.
  • The survival rates decrease with increasing uric acid levels as shown in the hazard curve for cardiovascular death in hyperuricemia.

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