36 Questions
Who is responsible for conducting the first assessment of the patient?
The coordinating medical practitioner
Who must have at least five years of experience post-fellowship?
The coordinating medical practitioner
What must the coordinating medical practitioner inform the person about?
All of the above
When can a final request be made?
At least nine days after the first request
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the legal principles regarding refusal of medical treatment?
A competent adult patient is legally entitled to refuse any medical treatment.
Which of the following has prompted concerns about the use of life-sustaining medical technology?
Fear of extending life
Under the Voluntary Assisted Dying legislation, what is the legal requirement for another person to assist in suicide?
Another person can be legally required to assist in suicide.
What are the necessary elements to establish suicide?
The person who intends suicide must actually die
What is the distinction between suicide and refusal of medical treatment?
Suicide involves deliberately causing one's own death, while refusal of medical treatment does not
What is the punishment for aiding and abetting another to commit suicide in Victoria?
10 years imprisonment
What is the definition of euthanasia according to the Australian Medical Association?
The act of deliberately ending the life of a patient for the purpose of ending intolerable pain and/or suffering
Which type of permit must be obtained if a person is physically able to self-administer the voluntary assisted dying substance?
Self-administration permit
What must the coordinating medical practitioner do if the person loses the physical capacity to self-administer or digest the prescribed substance?
Apply for a practitioner administration permit
Who must notify the Registrar of Births, Deaths and Marriages if a person was the subject of a voluntary assisted dying permit?
The responsible medical practitioner
Which board is responsible for monitoring voluntary assisted dying activity under the legislation?
Voluntary Assisted Dying Review Board
Which of the following best describes passive voluntary euthanasia?
When medical treatment is withdrawn or withheld from a patient, at the patient's request, in order to end the patient's life
Which term is used to mean assisted suicide for the terminally ill only?
Assisted dying
Who is eligible for access to voluntary assisted dying under the Voluntary Assisted Dying Act 2017?
Those diagnosed with an incurable, advanced, progressive disease expected to cause death within less than 6 months
What must a person do to access voluntary assisted dying?
Make a request to their doctor
What is the penalty for a coordinating medical practitioner who knowingly administers a voluntary assisted dying substance other than in accordance with a practitioner administration permit with the intent to cause death?
Life imprisonment
Who will provide separate information to the Board throughout the process of accessing voluntary assisted dying?
All of the above
What is the penalty for anyone other than the person themselves who knowingly administers a voluntary assisted dying substance dispensed under a self-administration permit?
Life imprisonment
What is the penalty for a contact person who fails to return any unused or remaining prescribed voluntary assisted dying substance within one month after the death of a person who is the subject of a self-administration permit?
Level eight imprisonment (maximum of 12 months) or 120 penalty units, or both
Which Act replaced the Medical Treatment Act 1988 in Victoria?
The Medical Treatment Planning and Decisions Act 2016
What is the term for a written document that records an individual's wishes regarding future medical treatment?
Living will
Who can be appointed as a proxy decision-maker in an advance directive?
A Medical Treatment Decision Maker
Which of the following is considered medical treatment under the Victorian legislation?
Artificial nutrition and hydration via percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG feeding)
Which of the following is included in the definition of palliative care under the Act?
Reasonable medical treatment for the relief of pain, suffering, and discomfort
Which of the following terms refers to medical directives indicating that resuscitation should not be undertaken in specified circumstances?
NFR (Not For Resuscitation)
What criteria should be met for a 'No-CPR' directive to be considered valid?
Recorded as a formal directive in the patient's notes
Which of the following statements accurately describes the purpose of the Act?
The Act establishes a framework for medical treatment decision making for people without decision making capacity.
What is the requirement for creating an advance care directive?
The person must have decision-making capacity in relation to each statement in their advance care directive.
What happens if an advance care directive contains statements that require an unlawful act or breach of professional standards?
The statements requiring unlawful acts or breaches of professional standards are void, but the remainder of the advance care directive is valid.
Under what circumstances can a health practitioner provide treatment if there is an instructional directive?
The health practitioner may provide clinically indicated treatment if the instructional directive consents to the relevant treatment.
What is the term used by the NHMRC to refer to Persistent Vegetative State?
Post-Coma Unresponsiveness
In what circumstances does a duty to treat arise?
When an individual undertakes care of a dependent person
This quiz tests your knowledge on the eligibility assessment process conducted by coordinating medical practitioners. Learn about the criteria and training requirements for conducting the first assessment.
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