Tachycardias

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Questions and Answers

A patient presents with a palpitation and a heart rate of 110 bpm. According to the image, which of the following best describes this rhythm?

  • Asystole
  • Tachycardia (correct)
  • Normal sinus rhythm
  • Bradycardia

Which of the following rhythms is typically considered a narrow QRS complex tachycardia?

  • Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
  • Sinus tachycardia (correct)
  • Ventricular fibrillation
  • Ventricular tachycardia

The treatment of sinus tachycardia should focus on what?

  • Vagal maneuvers to slow the heart rate
  • Addressing the underlying cause, if identifiable (correct)
  • Administration of antiarrhythmics like amiodarone
  • Immediate synchronized cardioversion

Which of the following is classified as a narrow complex tachycardia?

<p>Atrial Fibrillation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Atrial Fibrillation (AF). Which of the criteria classifies their AF as paroxysmal?

<p>AF that spontaneously terminates in less than 7 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential cause of atrial fibrillation?

<p>Hyperthyroidism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An 80-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation is hemodynamically unstable. What is the immediate treatment of choice?

<p>Synchronized cardioversion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a long-term goal in the treatment of stable atrial fibrillation?

<p>Reducing the risk of stroke (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system, which of the following factors contributes 2 points to the score?

<p>Prior stroke or TIA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a HAS-BLED score of 4. What does this indicate?

<p>High risk of bleeding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with valvular atrial fibrillation requires anticoagulation. Which of the following is the recommended anticoagulant?

<p>Warfarin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation?

<p>Metoprolol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it recommended that patients be anticoagulated for 3 weeks before and after cardioversion from atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm (NSR)?

<p>If the patient is hemodynamically stable and the atrial fibrillation has been present for more than 48 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A rhythm presents with a 'sawtooth' pattern on ECG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

<p>Atrial flutter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the American Heart Association, which of the following rhythms is typically NOT classified as a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?

<p>A regular, rapid tachycardia with abrupt onset and termination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Various atrial flutter rhythms are shown. Determine the atrial rate with 4:1 AV block and a ventricular rate of 75 bpm.

<p>300 bpm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The treatment for atrial flutter is similar to that of which other arrhythmia?

<p>Atrial fibrillation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Electrical cardioversion is typically NOT effective in treating which of the following tachycardias?

<p>Multifocal atrial tachycardia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT), what describes the typical conduction pathway?

<p>Antegrade conduction down the slow pathway and retrograde conduction up the fast pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic ECG finding in Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

<p>Short PR interval, delta wave, and widened QRS complex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of atrial tachycardia?

<p>Spontaneous rapid firing from a single focus within the atria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is hemodynamically stable, but has SVT. Which of the following is an appropriate acute treatment?

<p>Valsalva maneuvers or IV adenosine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with symptomatic AVNRT undergoes catheter ablation. What is the primary goal of this procedure?

<p>To eliminate the re-entrant circuit causing the tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking Amiodarone. Which of the following side effects is the MOST concerning?

<p>Pulmonary fibrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information provided, what characteristic defines a wide complex tachycardia?

<p>Originates from the ventricles. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a cause of wide complex tachycardia?

<p>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is pulseless. What does the treatment include?

<p>Immediate defibrillation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which electrolyte imbalance is MOST associated with Torsades de Pointes?

<p>Hypomagnesemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate intervention for ventricular fibrillation?

<p>Perform immediate defibrillation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When following the AHA pulseless arrest algorithm, what is the treatment for a patient in asystole or PEA?

<p>Chest compressions and epinephrine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After ICD placement, what is the most significant complication?

<p>Unnecessary shocks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important consideration when assessing an ICD shock?

<p>Interrogate device to ensure appropriate treatment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in the emergency department is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and a rapid ventricular rate. The patient is also hypotensive and has altered mental status. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?

<p>Perform synchronized cardioversion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT). Which underlying condition is most commonly associated with this arrhythmia?

<p>Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. ECG reveals a regular, narrow complex tachycardia at a rate of 180 bpm. The episodes start and stop abruptly. What would be the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient in the emergency department is found to have a wide-complex tachycardia. The rhythm is irregular, and the QRS complexes vary in morphology, appearing to twist around the baseline. The patient has a history of hypokalemia and prolonged QT interval. Which arrhythmia is MOST likely?

<p>Torsades de pointes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinician suspects that a patient's narrow complex tachycardia may be Atrioventricular Nodal Reentrant Tachycardia (AVNRT). Which of the following would provide the STRONGEST evidence supporting that diagnosis based on the reentrant circuit?

<p>Antegrade conduction down the slow pathway and retrograde conduction up the fast pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor from the HAS-BLED scoring system is weighted as the MOST impactful and thus predictive of increased bleeding risk on anticoagulation?

<p>Labile INRs while on warfarin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is found to have a chaotic baseline with no discernible P waves and an irregularly irregular rhythm. They are hypotensive and lightheaded. Which is the next best step in management?

<p>Immediate synchronized cardioversion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 62-year-old with a history of mitral stenosis presents with new-onset palpitations. ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. Which medication is contraindicated for stroke prevention in this patient?

<p>Apixaban (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a narrow complex tachycardia and a visible delta wave on a prior ECG. They are now in orthodromic AVRT. Which of the following is most likely true regarding the QRS morphology during the tachycardia?

<p>Narrow with P waves buried in the ST segment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 67-year-old female with a CHAâ‚‚DSâ‚‚-VASc score of 3 (Hypertension 1, Vascular disease 1, Female 1) and a HAS-BLED score of 4 is diagnosed with persistent atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate anticoagulation plan?

<p>Apixaban, but follow up frequently (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops a wide complex tachycardia while on amiodarone and has no pulse. What is the most appropriate next step?

<p>CPR + unsynchronized cardioversion (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A man with COPD is admitted for worsening dyspnea. ECG reveals a tachyarrhythmia with at least three distinct P-wave morphologies, irregular atrial rate >100 bpm, and variable P-R intervals. Which of the following is most likely true regarding this condition?

<p>Verapamil may be used to control rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiarrhythmic is most likely to cause a lupus-like syndrome, especially in slow acetylators?

<p>Procainamide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with known hypertrophic cardiomyopathy develops sustained wide complex tachycardia with a pulse. He is awake and alert with stable blood pressure. What is the most appropriate acute treatment?

<p>IV amiodarone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with palpitations is found to have a regular narrow complex tachycardia at 170 bpm. Vagal maneuvers fail to terminate the rhythm. Which drug is most likely to terminate AVNRT?

<p>Adenosine (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiarrhythmic most often causes both hypothyroidism and pulmonary fibrosis?

<p>Amiodarone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a regular narrow complex tachycardia undergoes a Valsalva maneuver without success. Intravenous adenosine subsequently terminates the rhythm. Which of the following is most likely the underlying electrophysiologic mechanism?

<p>Slow-fast dual AV nodal pathway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is given intravenous verapamil during an episode of atrial fibrillation. What is the most serious potential outcome of this intervention?

<p>Facilitation of 1:1 conduction via the accessory pathway leading to VF (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 72-year-old female is found to have atrial flutter. She has a prior history of hypertension and vascular disease (prior MI). According to the CHAâ‚‚DSâ‚‚-VASc score, what is her score?

<p>4 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation of 10-day duration. He is hemodynamically stable and has not been on therapeutic anticoagulation. What is the next best step before proceeding to planned electrical cardioversion?

<p>Perform Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE) to rule out Left Atrial (LA) thrombus (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiarrhythmic is most likely to cause the triad of cinchonism (tinnitus, headache, dizziness), thrombocytopenia, and diarrhea?

<p>Quinidine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A conscious patient with stable vital signs presents with a regular, wide-complex tachycardia at 190 bpm. There is no history of structural heart disease. Which treatment is most appropriate as initial pharmacologic therapy?

<p>IV amiodarone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An ECG shows a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a 'twisting' morphology around the isoelectric baseline and concurrent QT interval prolongation. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for acute management?

<p>Magnesium sulfate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with an Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator (ICD) reports receiving multiple shocks recently. Telemetry and rhythm strips during the shocks show normal sinus rhythm without arrhythmias. What is the most important next step?

<p>ICD interrogation (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antiarrhythmics is most likely to cause the combination of bradyarrhythmia, hepatotoxicity, photosensitivity, and thyroid dysfunction?

<p>Amiodarone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Use of which class of antiarrhythmics carries the highest risk of precipitating a 1:1 ventricular response during atrial flutter, potentially leading to a dangerously rapid heart rate?

<p>Class Ia (Sodium Channel Blockers) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 74-year-old presents with a heart rate of 160 bpm. She is hypotensive, confused, and experiencing chest discomfort. ECG shows a regular narrow-complex tachycardia. What is the next best step?

<p>Immediate synchronized cardioversion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 58-year-old with a pulse presents with wide-complex monomorphic tachycardia. He is alert and normotensive. ECG shows QRS duration of 0.16 sec. What is the most appropriate treatment?

<p>IV amiodarone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 65-year-old man presents with a tachyarrhythmia. He is awake, normotensive, and ECG reveals narrow QRS complexes. What is the correct sequence of initial treatment according to AHA guidelines?

<p>Vagal maneuvers → adenosine → β-blocker (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with stable monomorphic VT is started on procainamide. After several minutes, hypotension occurs and QRS duration increases >50%. What is the correct action?

<p>Discontinue procainamide immediately (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and dizziness. HR is 190 bpm. He is hemodynamically stable. ECG shows a wide-complex rhythm. Adenosine is considered. What condition must be met for adenosine to be appropriate?

<p>Regular and monomorphic rhythm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a wide QRS tachycardia. Rhythm is irregular and twisting. Which of the following medications is contraindicated?

<p>Amiodarone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following synchronized cardioversion doses is correct for a narrow irregular rhythm per AHA guidelines?

<p>120-200 J biphasic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 66-year-old man with CHF and wide-complex tachycardia receives sotalol 100 mg IV. He develops bradycardia and a prolonged QT. What is the most appropriate action?

<p>Discontinue sotalol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 79-year-old woman on warfarin with labile INRs and frequent bruising is evaluated for anticoagulation in AF. Her HAS-BLED score is 4. What is the correct action?

<p>Proceed with anticoagulation but monitor closely (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 53-year-old man with AVNRT is treated with adenosine. What transient adverse effect is most likely to occur during administration?

<p>Profound sinus pause (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Tachycardia Definition

Heart rate greater than 100 bpm.

Narrow Complex Tachycardia

Originates above the ventricles, typically with a narrow QRS complex.

Sinus Tachycardia Treatment

Treat underlying cause; often no other treatment is needed.

Atrial Fibrillation (A-Fib)

Irregularly irregular rhythm without distinct P waves.

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Paroxysmal A-Fib

Terminates spontaneously in under 7 days.

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Persistent A-Fib

Continuous duration greater than 7 days.

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Permanent A-Fib

Present for over 12 months or decision not to restore rhythm.

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Non-Valvular A-Fib

A-fib in absence of rheumatic mitral stenosis/valve replacement.

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Possible Causes of A-Fib

Hyperthyroidism, heart disease, stimulants, hypertension.

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Unstable A-Fib Treatment

Immediate synchronized cardioversion.

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Long-Term Goals of A-Fib Treatment

Reduce stroke risk, prevent cardiomyopathy, alleviate symptoms.

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CHA2DS2-VASc Score

Estimates stroke risk in atrial fibrillation.

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HAS-BLED Score Components

Hypertension, abnormal liver/renal function, stroke, bleeding, labile INR.

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Anticoagulation for Valvular A-Fib

Warfarin is the only approved treatment.

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Anticoagulation Drugs for Non-Valvular A-Fib

Dabigatran, Rivaroxaban, Apixaban, Edoxaban or Warfarin.

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Rate Control Options for A-Fib

Metoprolol, Verapamil, Diltiazem, or Digoxin.

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Rhythm Control Options for A-Fib

Electrical cardioversion, antiarrhythmic drugs or ablation.

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Atrial Flutter ECG Finding

Regular rhythm (sawtooth pattern) with flutter waves.

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Atrial Flutter Treatment

Similar to atrial fibrillation; anticoagulation.

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Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia (MAT)

Three distinct P-wave morphologies with a rate of 100-150 bpm.

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MAT Treatment

Treat underlying pulmonary disease and metabolic abnormalities.

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Electrical Cardioversion for MAT

It is not effective.

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Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

Above the bundle of His; includes sinus tachycardia and AVNRT.

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Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia (PSVT)

Regular, rapid tachycardia of abrupt onset and termination.

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AV Nodal Re-Entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT)

Antegrade conduction down AV and retrograde up fast pathway.

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Typical AVNRT Presentation

More common in second to fourth decades of life.

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AVRT condution directions

Antidromic- opposite / Orthodromic-Straight Down!

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Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) Syndrome

Accessory pathway; short PR, delta wave, wide QRS.

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Vagal maneuvers, adenosine, calcium channel blockers.

Acute Treatment for SVT

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Catheter ablation

Treatment options for SVT

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Antiarrhythmic Medications

Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmic drugs.

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Wide Complex Tachycardia

Wide QRS complex originating from the ventricle.

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Causes of Wide Complex Tachycardia

Cardiomyopathies, heart disease, ischemia.

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Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

Wide and regular rhythm.

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Monomorphic VT with no pulse

Immediate defibrillation (unsynchronized cardioversion) & CPR.

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Unstable VT with a pulse

Immediate synchronized cardioversion.

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Stable VT with a pulse

Antiarrhythmic medication (such as amiodarone).

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Torsades de Pointes

Prolongation of QT interval; wide and twisting.

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Torsades de Pointes Treatment

Magnesium.

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Ventricular Fibrillation

Chaotic electrical activity, no pulse.

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VT/VF w/pulselessness Treatment

Include cardiac support.

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Immediate synchronized cardioversion

Restores normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.

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Apixaban contraindication

Not recommended for stroke prevention in valvular atrial fibrillation.

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Orthodromic AVRT

Narrow QRS complex with retrograde P waves in ST segment; AV re-entry circuit in AV node.

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Apixaban with close monitoring

Antiplatelet/anticoagulation strategy that requires frequent monitoring due to bleeding risk.

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Pulseless VT treatment

CPR and unsynchronized cardioversion (defibrillation).

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Verapamil use in MAT

Used to control rate in MAT, common in COPD exacerbations.

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Procainamide side effect

Drug-induced lupus in slow acetylators.

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Treatment for stable wide QRS VT

IV amiodarone

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Adenosine

Terminates AVNRT.

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Amiodarone toxicity

Causes thyroid and lung toxicity.

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Slow-fast dual AV nodal pathway

Most likely to occur during AVNRT.

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Verapamil in WPW with A-Fib

Facilitation of 1:1 conduction leading to ventricular fibrillation.

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Afib over 48 hours management

TEE to rule out left atrial thrombus

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Quinidine side effects

Most likely to cause cinchonism, thrombocytopenia, and diarrhea.

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Treatment for Stable Regular, Wide-Complex Tachycardia

IV Amiodarone

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Torsades de Pointes acute management

Magnesium is the treatment.

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Frequent ICD shocks

Device interrogation is required to assess functionality.

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Amiodarone adverse effects

Causes bradyarrhythmia, hepatotoxicity, photosensitivity, and thyroid dysfunction.

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1:1 ventricular response risk

Class Ia antiarrhythmics (e.g., quinidine, procainamide).

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Unstable Tachycardia

Unstable tachycardia needs immediate intervention to restore normal heart rhythm.

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Stable Monomorphic VT Treatment

Stable wide regular monomorphic VT is best treated with antiarrhythmic infusions to maintain rhythm.

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Stable Narrow QRS Complex Tachycardia Treatment

Sequence: vagal maneuvers, adenosine, then beta-blockers if regular and stable.

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Procainamide Toxicity Action

Discontinue immediately due to hypotension and QRS widening.

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Adenosine Use in Wide-Complex Tachycardia

Adenosine is appropriate only for regular, monomorphic wide tachycardias.

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Synchronized Cardioversion of Narrow Irregular Rhythm

Synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J biphasic.

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Sotalol-Induced Bradycardia

Treatment should be discontinued to prevent further harm.

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Anticoagulation & HAS-BLED Score

Proceed with anticoagulation while closely monitoring to balance the risk.

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Adenosine Adverse Effect

Transient profound sinus pause.

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Study Notes

Hypotension due to Tachycardia

  • Unstable tachycardia accompanied by hypotension necessitates immediate synchronized cardioversion, regardless of QRS width.

Stable Wide Complex Monomorphic Tachycardia

  • If stable, administer antiarrhythmic infusion such as IV amiodarone.

Stable Narrow QRS Tachycardia

  • Initial management involves vagal maneuvers, followed by adenosine if regular.

Procainamide Toxicity

  • Discontinue procainamide immediately if hypotension occurs and QRS duration increases by >50%.

Adenosine Use for Wide Complex Tachycardia

  • Only use for regular, monomorphic wide complex tachycardia.

Torsades de Pointes

  • Amiodarone should not be used; use magnesium instead.

Cardioversion Doses for Narrow Irregular Rhythm

  • Use 120-200 J biphasic.

Sotalol Side Effects

  • Discontinue sotalol if QT prolongation occurs.

Anticoagulation with High HAS-BLED Score

  • If HAS-BLED score > 3, proceed with anticoagulation but monitor closely.

Adenosine Side Effects

  • Adenosine can cause transient profound sinus pauses.

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