Suffixes and Drug Classes Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following medications is a beta blocker used to treat hypertension?

  • Montelukast
  • Propranolol (correct)
  • Furosemide
  • Lisinopril

A patient presents with a fungal infection. Which drug class is most likely to be prescribed?

  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Echinocandins (correct)
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
  • HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

Which of the following suffixes is associated with medications used to treat anxiety?

  • -azepam (correct)
  • -statin
  • -pril
  • -floxacin

What class of drug is often used to treat migraines?

<p>5-HT1B/1D agonists (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is an inhaled anesthetic?

<p>Halothane (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drug classes is known for its use in treating allergies?

<p>Second generation antihistamines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a blood dyscrasia might be prescribed a medication ending in which of the following suffixes?

<p>-grastim (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following suffixes is commonly associated with medications used to treat hypertension?

<p>-pril (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is a topoisomerase inhibitor used in chemotherapy?

<p>Topotecan (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following suffixes is associated with medications used to treat erectile dysfunction?

<p>-afil (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drug references is known for providing extensive information about drug uses, including approved and unapproved applications?

<p>AHFS Drug Information (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions would fall under the 'implementation' phase of the nursing process?

<p>Implementing the nursing care plan (NCP) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication, which step of the nursing process is being utilized?

<p>Evaluation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the relationship between drug companies and generic names?

<p>Drug companies usually prioritize brand names over generic names for marketing purposes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drug references is known for providing comprehensive information about virtually every single-entity drug available in the United States?

<p>Drug Facts and Comparisons (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the nursing process does a nurse collect and communicate data about a patient's health status?

<p>Assessment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following steps in the nursing process involves setting measurable goals for a patient's care?

<p>Planning (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a critical element of patient teaching regarding drug names?

<p>Encourage patients to learn both the brand and generic names of their medications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is MOST likely to influence the absorption rate of a drug?

<p>Compatibility of the drugs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the provided information, which medication is most likely to be administered with tetracycline?

<p>Tylenol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing process step involves the nurse reviewing the patient's kidney lab data before administering a nephrotoxic drug?

<p>Assessment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY purpose of checking compatibility between medications before administration?

<p>To prevent adverse drug interactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with difficulty swallowing needs medication. Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for the nurse to recommend?

<p>Tablets that are scored can be broken in half. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to monitor drug blood levels?

<p>To determine the effectiveness of the medication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a possible outcome of administering incompatible medications together?

<p>Decreased effectiveness of both medications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'nephrotoxic' refer to?

<p>A drug that affects the kidneys (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between a nursing diagnosis and a medical diagnosis?

<p>A nursing diagnosis focuses on the patient's response to illness, while a medical diagnosis focuses on the underlying disease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a nursing diagnosis?

<p>It is a statement of the patient's alterations in structure and functions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?

<p>They are sold without a prescription. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A physician orders a medication to be administered via the percutaneous route. Which route will the nurse anticipate the patient will receive this medication?

<p>Topically (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors has the MOST significant effect on drug metabolism?

<p>The patient's genetics. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between nursing and medical diagnoses?

<p>Nursing diagnoses are often influenced by medical diagnoses but focus on patient responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true about nursing diagnoses?

<p>Nursing diagnoses are established using standardized protocols and guidelines. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT typically considered a part of a nursing diagnosis?

<p>The patient's socioeconomic status. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term best describes a patient's unexpected reaction to a medication, resulting in agitation and delusions?

<p>Idiosyncratic reaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following outcome statements is written correctly and demonstrates a measurable and achievable goal?

<p>Within the next 8 hours, urine output will be greater than 30 mL/hr. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the nurse's priority action after assessing hives on a patient who has just started a new medication?

<p>Notify physician of allergic reaction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the nursing process focuses on establishing the patient's goals and how to achieve them?

<p>The patient will state the expected adverse effects of medication by the end of the teaching session. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drug references is most likely to contain detailed information on all drugs within a specific therapeutic class?

<p>Drug Facts and Comparisons (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term describes the process of a drug's effectiveness decreasing over time, requiring increased dosages to achieve the desired effect?

<p>Tolerance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes an adverse effect of a medication?

<p>Any unintended or harmful effect of a drug. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing severe nausea and vomiting after taking a newly prescribed medication is exhibiting which type of drug reaction?

<p>Adverse effect (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing a new onset of tremors and dizziness while taking a medication. What is the nurse's best action?

<p>Assess the patient's vital signs and notify the healthcare provider about the adverse reaction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is administering a medication with a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean?

<p>The safe and effective dosage range is small, requiring close monitoring. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a peak and trough level monitoring?

<p>To determine the effectiveness of a drug's dosage regimen based on the amount of drug in the body at its highest and lowest levels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receives a prescription for a new medication. What is an important teaching point about drug names?

<p>Generic and brand names are interchangeable and have the same effects. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a pharmacodynamic interaction?

<p>Two drugs compete for the same binding site on a protein. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When documenting medication administration, which of the following is essential?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a core principle of ethical drug administration?

<p>Prioritizing the patient's well-being and safety. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a pharmacist in medication safety?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following side effects is most likely associated with meperidine (Demerol)?

<p>Difficulty swallowing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the provided content, which of the following would be considered a potential finding during a nursing assessment?

<p>Patient experiences a rapid heart rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of the older adult patient with shortness of breath, why might it be difficult to determine the medication names and doses?

<p>The patient's weekly pill dispenser may not contain enough information to identify all medications (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of 'Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference' mentioned in the content?

<p>To offer comprehensive information about drug uses, including approved and unapproved applications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option BEST describes the primary function of the FDA in relation to drug safety?

<p>Determining a drug's safety before it can be marketed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which classification of medications does meperidine (Demerol) belong to?

<p>II (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the nursing assessment, as mentioned in the content?

<p>To identify underlying pathologic conditions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary reason for reviewing medication history, as illustrated in the case of the older adult patient?

<p>To identify potential allergies and adverse drug reactions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a correct indication for the use of benztropine?

<p>Parkinson's Disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects is commonly associated with CNS stimulants like dextroamphetamine?

<p>Growth suppression (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is used specifically for acute migraines and is NOT recommended for long-term use?

<p>Almotriptan (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a consideration mentioned for the use of CNS stimulants?

<p>Monitor height and weight for potential growth suppression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms of action is associated with anticholinergic medications?

<p>Blocking the action of acetylcholine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of tricyclic antidepressants?

<p>Inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in the synapse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT listed as a potential adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants?

<p>Increased appetite and weight gain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the primary indications for the use of benzodiazepines?

<p>Management of anxiety disorders, seizures, and chronic pain. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important consideration when a patient is taking benzodiazepines?

<p>Avoid drinking alcohol while taking benzodiazepines. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE about the use of tricyclic antidepressants?

<p>They should be gradually tapered off to minimize withdrawal symptoms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking phenelzine is experiencing severe headaches and palpitations. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

<p>The patient has been exposed to tyramine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is NOT indicated for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

<p>Citalopram (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking lithium is experiencing tremors, nausea, and diarrhea. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

<p>The patient is experiencing lithium toxicity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is contraindicated for a patient at risk for seizures?

<p>Bupropion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is associated with the risk of Steven-Johnson syndrome?

<p>Carbamazepine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with SSRIs?

<p>Weight gain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is a mood stabilizer?

<p>Lithium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is associated with auto-induction?

<p>Carbamazepine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications is primarily used for treating Parkinson's disease?

<p>Levodopa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications can interact with MAOIs and potentially lead to a hypertensive crisis?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary organ responsible for drug metabolism?

<p>Liver (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors can affect drug distribution?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of heart disease is at increased risk for which of the following drug-related complications?

<p>Delayed drug excretion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for the time it takes for half of a drug to be eliminated from the body?

<p>Half-life (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can influence drug excretion?

<p>Body mass index (BMI) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term used to describe a situation where a patient requires increasing doses of a drug over time to achieve the same effect?

<p>Tolerance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between drug interactions and therapeutic index?

<p>Drug interactions can potentially decrease the therapeutic index. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving medication therapy for a chronic condition. The nurse understands that the pharmacokinetic principles of distribution, metabolism, and excretion are important because they influence:

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What class of opioids is characterized as a mild opioid agonist?

<p>Hydrocodone and codeine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of action describes how agonists function in opioid therapy?

<p>They bind to receptors to produce a response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a contraindication for opioid analgesics?

<p>Obesity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an adverse effect commonly associated with both opioid and non-opioid analgesics?

<p>Constipation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which opioid antagonist is commonly used as an antidote for opioid overdose?

<p>Naloxone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum daily dosage of acetaminophen for most adults?

<p>3000 mg (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs is classified as a central acting analgesic?

<p>Tramadol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a symptom of opioid withdrawal that a patient might experience?

<p>Nausea (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of somatropin?

<p>Hypersensitivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect associated with octreotide?

<p>Joint pain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is commonly used to treat hypothyroidism?

<p>Levothyroxine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication would likely be prescribed for a patient experiencing acromegaly?

<p>Octreotide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for vasopressin?

<p>Diabetes insipidus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect is associated with the use of levothyroxine?

<p>Cardiac dysrhythmias (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient diagnosed with hyperthyroidism may be treated with which of the following?

<p>Methimazole (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which side effect is least likely to occur with the use of NSAIDs?

<p>Respiratory depression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary indication for desmopressin?

<p>Nocturnal enuresis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect is linked to the use of corticosteroids?

<p>Hyperglycemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of pharmacokinetics?

<p>What the body does to medications (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is least likely to affect drug absorption?

<p>Patient's medical history (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'bioavailability' refer to in pharmacology?

<p>The fraction of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which administration route is known for fast delivery of drugs?

<p>Parenteral (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the 'first pass effect'?

<p>Drug metabolism in the liver before reaching systemic circulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by the '9 Rights of Medication Administration'?

<p>Steps to prevent medication errors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process describes the movement of a drug from the bloodstream to its site of action?

<p>Distribution (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following names is assigned by the manufacturer of a drug?

<p>Trade name (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of palliative therapy?

<p>To make the patient as comfortable as possible (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of pregnancy safety indicates that there is evidence of fetal abnormalities in humans?

<p>Category X (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of therapy is considered when a drug is prescribed based on the probability of illness from presenting symptoms?

<p>Empiric therapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an adverse effect in the context of drug therapy?

<p>An unexpected effect that can cause harm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aspect of drug therapy focuses on maintaining the integrity of body function during recovery?

<p>Supportive therapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of pharmacogenomics in drug therapy?

<p>To assess how genetic factors influence drug effectiveness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Infants are at risk of toxicity because their organs, such as the liver and kidneys, are not fully developed. What should be considered when administering oral medication to an infant?

<p>Medications can be given if the infant is awake and can swallow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug effect refers to a scenario where one drug enhances the activity of another?

<p>Synergistic effect (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

-afil

Suffix for phosphodiesterase inhibitors used for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension.

-artan

Suffix for angiotensin receptor blockers used primarily in managing hypertension.

-azolam

Suffix for benzodiazepines used to treat anxiety disorders.

-cillin

Suffix for penicillin antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections.

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-ipine

Suffix for dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers used to treat hypertension.

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-statin

Suffix for HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors used for lowering cholesterol levels.

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-pril

Suffix for ACE inhibitors that help manage hypertension.

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-triptan

Suffix for 5-HT1B/1D agonists used to treat migraines.

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-floxacin

Suffix for fluoroquinolone antibiotics used for various infections.

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-terol

Suffix for β2 agonists used as bronchodilators for respiratory conditions.

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Anaphylactic shock

A severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction.

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Reye's syndrome

A serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain.

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Assessment in nursing

The step that involves collecting data about a patient's health.

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Planning in nursing

The phase where patient goals and outcomes are set.

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Evaluation in nursing

The process of measuring the patient's progress towards goals.

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Generic drug names

The official or common name given to a drug, not branded.

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Drug monographs

Detailed documents that describe the characteristics of drugs.

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Therapeutic uses of drugs

How a drug is intended to be used to treat various conditions.

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Nephrotoxic drug assessment

Evaluating kidney lab data before administering nephrotoxic medications.

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Compatibility of drugs

Determining which medications can safely be taken together without interfering.

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Tetracycline contraindications

Medications that should not be taken with tetracycline due to adverse interactions.

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Enteric coated tablets

Tablets designed to dissolve in the intestines, not in the stomach.

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Blood level monitoring

Assessing the medication concentration within the patient's bloodstream.

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Adverse effects of medication

Unwanted side effects caused by drugs that may harm the patient.

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Teaching elderly patients about medications

Instructing older adults on how to safely take their medications considering their difficulties.

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Lowest medication level

The minimal concentration of medication in the blood, known as trough level.

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Nursing Diagnosis vs Medical Diagnosis

Nursing diagnosis focuses on patient functionality and varies with recovery, whereas medical diagnosis identifies specific medical conditions.

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Over-the-Counter (OTC) Drugs

OTC drugs can be purchased without a prescription and are commonly known by brand names.

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Percutaneous Route

Medications administered via the percutaneous route are given through the skin, such as topically or via injections.

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Drug Metabolism Factors

Factors affecting drug metabolism include age, health conditions, and liver function, impacting how drugs are processed in the body.

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Patient Alterations

A nursing diagnosis states alterations in a patient's structure and function to guide care strategies.

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Condition Identification

Nursing assessments are capable of accurately identifying patient conditions and guiding interventions.

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Functionality in Recovery

Nursing diagnoses are variable and reflect a patient's ability to function during recovery phases unlike stable medical diagnoses.

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Research-Based Nursing

Nursing diagnoses are based on evidence and research focused on nursing care rather than purely medical histories.

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Peak blood level

The highest concentration of a drug in the bloodstream after administration.

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Trough blood level

The lowest concentration of a drug in the bloodstream before the next dose.

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Nutritional supplements source

Information specific to dietary aids found in specialized databases.

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Critical care pathway

A standardized care plan based on best practices for patients in critical care.

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Elderly patients and drug interactions

Elderly patients are at higher risk due to factors like polypharmacy and metabolic changes.

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Sedentary lifestyle

A lifestyle characterized by a lot of sitting and minimal physical activity.

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Vegetarian diet

A diet that excludes meat and may include a variety of plant-based foods.

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Occupation impact on health

The type of job can influence health practices and risks associated with lifestyle.

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Meperidine classification

Meperidine (Demerol) is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance.

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Nursing assessment purpose

The primary purpose of nursing assessment is to identify underlying pathologic conditions.

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Medication resource for elderly

The best resource to determine a patient's medication names and doses is the patient's home pharmacy.

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FDA legislation

The legislation that authorizes the FDA to determine drug safety before marketing is the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

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Shortness of breath assessment

Shortness of breath in adults should prompt an assessment of current medications to rule out side effects or interactions.

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Medication history importance

Obtaining a medication history is crucial in identifying possible drug interactions and adverse effects.

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Legislative drug safety

Legislation ensures drugs are evaluated for safety and efficacy before reaching consumers, helping protect public health.

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Patient responses

Exploring patient responses to health problems is a vital part of nursing assessment.

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Adverse effect

An unintended, harmful reaction to a medication.

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Idiosyncratic reaction

An unusual reaction to a drug that is not common or expected.

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Allergic reaction

An immune response to a substance that the body misidentifies as harmful.

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Outcome statement

A clear statement about a patient's condition after interventions.

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Priority action

The most important step to take in response to a situation.

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Planning phase of nursing process

Stage where goals and expected outcomes for patients are set.

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Therapeutic class

Grouping of medications that serve a similar purpose or function.

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Benzodiazepines

CNS depressants used to calm anxiety and induce sedation.

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Indications for Benzodiazepines

Panic level anxiety, status epilepticus, depression, sedation, chronic pain.

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Adverse effects of Muscle Relaxants

Includes hypotension, dizziness, drowsiness, nausea, and constipation.

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Tricyclic Antidepressants

Medications that correct serotonin and norepinephrine imbalance.

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Flumazenil

Antidote used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines.

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Anticholinergic

Drugs that don't cure disease but slow it down.

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Indication for Benztropine

Used to treat Parkinson’s disease symptoms like tremors and rigidity.

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CNS Stimulants

Medications that stimulate the central nervous system, releasing norepinephrine.

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Adverse Effects of CNS Stimulants

Includes insomnia, dry mouth, and growth suppression in children.

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Common Drugs for ADHD

Includes dextroamphetamine, methamphetamine, and methylphenidate.

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MAOIs

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors; drugs that increase brain hormone levels.

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SSRIs

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors; improve mood by increasing serotonin levels.

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SNRI

Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors; used for depression and anxiety.

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Bupropion

A miscellaneous antidepressant that raises serotonin levels; helps with depression and smoking cessation.

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Lithium

A mood stabilizing drug for bipolar disorder, reduces dopamine and norepinephrine.

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Phenytoin

An antiepileptic drug that reduces excessive neuron activity; therapeutic range is 10-20.

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Carbamazepine

An antiepileptic used for seizures and bipolar disorder; consider auto-induction.

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Valproic Acid

An antiepileptic drug like phenytoin, used for seizures; may cause liver toxicity.

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Gabapentin

A newer antiepileptic used for neuropathic pain and seizures; has unclear MOA.

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Carbidopa-levodopa

An anti-Parkinson drug that increases dopamine levels; treats Parkinson's disease.

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Rapid Distribution Areas

Areas with high blood circulation like brain, heart, kidneys, and liver.

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Slow Distribution Areas

Areas with low blood circulation such as fat, muscle, and skin.

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Metabolism

The process of altering drugs to make them usable, mainly in the liver.

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Factors Affecting Metabolism

Conditions like hepatic disease, jaundice, and renal insufficiency that influence drug breakdown.

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Excretion

The elimination of drugs from the body, primarily through the kidneys.

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Factors Affecting Excretion

Kidney problems, constipation, age, and dehydration that impact drug elimination.

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Agonist

A drug that binds to receptors to produce a therapeutic response.

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Therapeutic Index

The ratio of a drug's toxic level to its therapeutic level, indicating safety margin.

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Pharmacokinetics

The study of what the body does to medication, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

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Absorption

The process of a drug moving from the site of administration into the bloodstream.

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First Pass Effect

The metabolism of a drug by the liver before it enters systemic circulation, reducing its concentration in the bloodstream.

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Bioavailability

The proportion of a drug that enters the circulation when introduced into the body, often a measure of the drug's active form.

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Distribution

The process of dispersing a drug throughout the body fluids and tissues after it enters the bloodstream.

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Medication Error

A preventable adverse drug event that can cause harm to a patient.

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Prodrug

An inactive form of a drug that is converted into an active form in the body.

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Pharmacodynamics

The study of what drugs do to the body, including mechanisms of action and effects.

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Onset of drug action

Time required for a drug to reach therapeutic level for benefit.

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Therapeutic effect

The intended action of a drug that leads to the desired outcome.

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Acute therapy

Treatment provided for critically ill patients to address immediate health issues.

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Side effects vs. Adverse effects

Side effects are typically expected effects; adverse effects are harmful and unexpected reactions.

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Palliative therapy

Care aimed at making a patient as comfortable as possible, not curative.

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Pharmacogenomics

The study of how genes affect a person's response to drugs.

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Prophylactic therapy

Medical treatment aimed at preventing an illness.

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Antagonistic effect

When one drug counteracts the effects of another drug, causing reduced effectiveness.

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Opioid Analgesic

Medications used to treat moderate to severe pain.

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Antagonist

A substance that binds to a receptor but does not produce a response.

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Mild Opioid Agonists

Weak opioids like codeine and hydrocodone for pain relief.

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Strong Opioid Agonists

Powerful opioids used for severe pain; include oxycodone, morphine.

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Opioid Antagonists

Medications that reverse the effects of opioids; examples include naloxone.

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Adverse Effects of Opioids

Side effects like CNS depression, constipation, and respiratory issues.

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Acetaminophen

A non-opioid analgesic for mild to moderate pain and fever reduction.

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Contraindications

Conditions or factors that serve as reasons to withhold a certain medical treatment.

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CNS Depression

A reduction in the activity of the central nervous system, leading to drowsiness or reduced awareness.

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Adjuvant Drugs

Medications used in conjunction with primary treatments to enhance effectiveness.

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Hypothyroidism Symptoms

Manifestations of low thyroid hormone, including fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance.

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Levothyroxine

A synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism.

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Hyperthyroidism

A condition characterized by excessive thyroid hormone production, leading to weight loss and anxiety.

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Somatotropin

A hormone that acts like growth hormone, promoting growth and development.

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Octreotide

A synthetic hormone that inhibits growth hormone release; used for acromegaly.

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Vasopressin

A hormone that increases water retention and vasoconstriction, used in treating diabetes insipidus.

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Study Notes

Suffixes and Corresponding Drug Classes/Uses

  • -afil: Phosphodiesterase inhibitors, used for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension
  • -ane: Inhaled anesthetics, used for anesthesia
  • -artan: Angiotensin receptor blockers, used for hypertension
  • -azepam, -zolam: Benzodiazepines, used for anxiety
  • -azine: Phenothiazines, used for antipsychotic treatment
  • -azole: Azoles, used as antifungals
  • -barbital: Barbituates, used for anxiety
  • -caine: Local anesthetics, used for anesthesia
  • -cillin: Penicillins, used as antibiotics
  • -cycline: Tetracyclines, used as antibiotics
  • -etine: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), used for depression
  • -feb, -fene: Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), used for osteoporosis and breast cancer treatment
  • -floxacin: Fluoroquinolones, used as antibiotics
  • -fungin: Echinocandins, used as antifungals
  • -grastim, -gramostim: Granulocyte colony-stimulating factors, used to stimulate blood cell production
  • -ide: Loop diuretics, used for hypertension
  • -ipine: Dihydropyridines, used for hypertension
  • -ipramine: Tricyclic antidepressants, used for depression
  • -ium, -uronium: Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants, used for anesthesia
  • -lukast: Leukotriene receptor antagonists, used for asthma
  • -navir: Protease inhibitors, used for treating HIV
  • -olol: Beta blockers, used for hypertension
  • -oxin: Cardiac glycosides, used for treating heart arrhythmias
  • -phylline: Methylxanthines, used as bronchodilators
  • -pril: ACE inhibitors, used for hypertension
  • -quine: Quinolones, used for anti-malaria treatment
  • -statin: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, used for lowering cholesterol
  • -tecan: Topoisomerase I inhibitors, used in chemotherapy
  • -terol: Beta2-agonists, used for bronchodilation
  • -tidine: H2-receptor antagonists, used for acid reflux and ulcers
  • -tine: Allylamine antifungals, used for antifungal treatment
  • -toposide: Topoisomerase II inhibitors, used in chemotherapy
  • -triptan: 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonists, used for migraines
  • -tropin: Pituitary hormones, used for hormone deficiency
  • -vaptan: Vasopressin receptor antagonists, used for hypertension
  • -zosin: Alpha1-blockers, used for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia

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