Biochemistry study questions
48 Questions
1 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What triggers the proteolytic degradation of reductase?

  • Increase in cellular concentrations of cholesterol (correct)
  • Activation of SREBP
  • Decrease in mevalonate levels
  • Phosphorylation by AMP-dependent kinase
  • What happens to SREBP when cholesterol levels fall?

  • It is degraded in the cytoplasm.
  • It is proteolytically processed and activated. (correct)
  • It is transported back to the ER.
  • It remains in the nucleus.
  • How does the proportion of protein in a lipoprotein affect its density?

  • More protein leads to decreased density.
  • More protein results in greater density. (correct)
  • All lipoproteins have uniform density levels.
  • Density is independent of protein content.
  • Which lipoprotein is responsible for scavenging excess cholesterol?

    <p>HDL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main consequence of a defect in LDL receptors?

    <p>Familial hypercholesterolemia and atherosclerosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the core of lipoprotein particles?

    <p>Cholesterol esters and hydrophobic lipids.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does LDL enter peripheral tissues?

    <p>Receptor-mediated endocytosis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential consequence of a point mutation?

    <p>It can result in a silent, neutral, missense, or nonsense mutation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to LDL after it is hydrolyzed in the cell?

    <p>LDL receptors are recycled.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do somatic mutations differ from germline mutations?

    <p>Somatic mutations do not affect future generations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens during insertion mutations?

    <p>An extra nucleotide is added, causing a shift in the reading frame.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of mutation results in a premature stop codon?

    <p>Nonsense mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do DNA repair systems operate?

    <p>They can introduce mutations due to their imprecision.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about amino acid mutations is true?

    <p>Mutations can be specific to an environmental adaptation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of mutation only affects the nucleotide level?

    <p>Point mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of environmental stress on mutations?

    <p>It may lead to the development of mutations that confer survival advantages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of 5-phosphoribosyl-1-amine from PRP and glutamine?

    <p>Glutamine phosphoribosyl aminotransferase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the final product of the purine pathway?

    <p>IMP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid is added to IMP to form AMP?

    <p>Aspartate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following substances acts as a suicide inhibitor in nucleotide synthesis?

    <p>Fluorouracil</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for the conversion of ribonucleotide diphosphates to deoxyribonucleotides?

    <p>Ribonucleotide reductase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What important role does 5-phosphoribosyl-1-amine serve in purine metabolism?

    <p>It is the initial compound in the purine synthesis pathway.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nucleotide is formed when IMP is hydrated and oxidized?

    <p>GMP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which compound provides a necessary carbon group for the synthesis of TMP from dUMP?

    <p>Folate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do human accelerated regions (HARs) mainly play in the human genome?

    <p>They act as regulatory elements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do nuclear hormone receptors regulate transcription after binding with their ligand?

    <p>They recruit proteins that enhance transcription.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which domain of nuclear hormone receptors is responsible for binding to DNA?

    <p>Zinc finger domain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does histone acylation have on DNA?

    <p>It neutralizes the polarity of histones.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What process involves cutting and splicing RNA after transcription?

    <p>RNA editing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement is true about the function of RNA polymerase I?

    <p>It synthesizes ribosomal RNA precursors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to some receptors in their unbound state?

    <p>They bind to repressors and inhibit transcription.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initiates the release of repressors from nuclear hormone receptors?

    <p>Ligand binding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes TAGs from glycerophospholipids?

    <p>TAGs have a 3rd fatty acyl.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which compound is commonly formed as a precursor in the synthesis of phospholipids?

    <p>Phosphatidate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is phosphatidate activated in the synthesis pathway?

    <p>By reacting it with CTP.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which head group is the most abundant in phosphatidylcholine?

    <p>Choline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during phosphatidylcholine synthesis when there is a deficiency of choline?

    <p>It will be synthesized by methylating phosphatidylthanolamine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statement is true regarding dietary choline requirements?

    <p>They increase with pregnancy.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What drives the activation of serine or inositol in the phospholipid synthesis pathway?

    <p>PP hydrolysis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does excess cholesterol play in the metabolization of food energy substrates?

    <p>It is converted into acetyl-CoA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of GTP in the formation of the 70s complex?

    <p>It facilitates the binding of the 50s subunit to the initiation complex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During prokaryotic elongation, what is the function of elongation factor?

    <p>It moves the mRNA by one codon using ATP hydrolysis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What distinguishes eukaryotic translation from prokaryotic translation?

    <p>Eukaryotic ribosomes are larger and synthesize in the nucleus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why do stop codons in prokaryotes require release factors (RF)?

    <p>They facilitate the release of tRNA and the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first amino acid incorporated during eukaryotic protein synthesis?

    <p>Methionine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs when the ribosomal complex encounters a stop codon?

    <p>Release factors bind and promote disassociation of tRNA and mRNA from the complex.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an essential feature of eukaryotic mRNA that helps in translation?

    <p>It is circular to facilitate protein interactions with the poly-A tail.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic genes?

    <p>They undergo extensive processing before translation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Chapter 29 Notes

    • Fatty acids are often subcomponents of complex lipids, like glycerophospholipids, which have a glycerol backbone and two fatty acyl chains.
    • Phospholipids have a head group, and phosphatidate is a common precursor, formed from DHAP and phosphorylated glycerol.
    • Phosphatidylcholine is the most abundant phospholipid in mammals, and its synthesis is influenced by dietary choline.
    • If choline stores are adequate, phosphatidylcholine will be synthesized by methylating phosphatidylethanolamine.
    • Cholesterol synthesis is primarily in the liver, though other tissues can also synthesize it.
    • The pathway involves several stages: stage one is converting excess food/energy into acetyl-CoA, which gets converted to cholesterol and energy. Stage two and three occur in the endoplasmic reticulum, making isopentenyl phosphate, starting with 3 acetyl-CoA.

    Chapter 30 Notes

    • Amino acids are formed from the digestion of proteins and from the breakdown of defective or excess proteins.
    • Aminotransferases transfer amino groups to a-ketoglutarate, forming glutamate, and releasing pyruvate, and other related intermediates
    • The urea cycle converts ammonia into urea for excretion.
    • This cyclical process occurs primarily in the liver in humans.
    • It is catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (CPSI) and requires two ATP, and is an irreversible reaction.
    • The final step of the urea cycle cleaves arginine into urea and ornithine catalysed by arginase
    • Aromatic amino acids are both ketogenic and glucogenic
    • Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder where phenylalanine is not degraded properly and results in the accumulation of phenylalanine and related metabolites in the body.
    • Elevated phenylalanine levels disrupt brain growth and metabolism, which causes phenylpyruvate to be excreted in the urine.

    Chapter 32 Notes

    • Nucleotides are composed of a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar (ribose or deoxyribose), and a phosphate group.
    • Nucleotides can be mono-, di-, or tri-phosphate.
    • Nucleotides can be synthesized de novo (from scratch) or via salvage pathways.
    • The purine synthesis pathway produces IMP, which gets further processed into AMP and GMP.
    • The pyrimidine synthesis pathway produces UMP, which can be further modified to form other pyrimidine nucleotides.
    • Deoxyribonucleotides are formed from ribonucleotides via reduction.

    Chapter 33 Notes

    • Mutations are changes in nucleotide sequence.
    • Mutations can be classified as point mutations (single nucleotide changes) or large-scale mutations (e.g., deletions, duplications, inversions).
    • Point mutations can be synonymous (no change in amino acid), neutral (minor change in amino acid), missense (change to a different amino acid), or nonsense (change to a stop codon).
    • Large-scale mutations can cause significant changes in the resulting protein.
    • Genetic screening of newborns can detect individuals with conditions like phenylketonuria (PKU).

    Chapter 34 Notes

    • DNA replication is a semiconservative process, where each new DNA molecule contains one original strand and one newly synthesized strand.
    • DNA polymerase needs a 3'-OH group to add nucleotides (5' → 3' direction).
    • Enzymes like topoisomerases help in unwinding and restoring supercoils during replication.
    • Leading strands are synthesized continuously, while Okazaki fragments are synthesized discontinuously on lagging strands.
    • Topoisomerases are responsible for resolving supercoiling during DNA replication.
    • Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA polymerases have exonuclease activity to correct replication errors and remove mismatches.
    • Telomeres are repetitive DNA sequences at chromosome ends that protect against degradation.

    Chapter 35 Notes

    • Point mutations are single nucleotide changes in the DNA sequence and can result in silent mutations, neutral mutations, missense mutations, or nonsense mutations.
    • Large-scale mutations are changes affecting larger segments of the chromosome, including insertions, deletions, duplications, and inversions.
    • Synonymous mutations do not affect the amino acid sequence.
    • Nonsynonymous mutations change the amino acid sequence.
    • Large-scale mutations can lead to significant phenotypic changes, including genetic diseases.

    Chapters 36 and 37 Notes

    • RNA is synthesized from a DNA template by RNA polymerase, which is sensitive to α-amanitin.
    • RNA polymerase I synthesizes rRNA; RNA polymerase II synthesizes mRNA precursors (pre-mRNA); and RNA polymerase III synthesizes tRNA.
    • Eukaryotic mRNA undergoes extensive processing, including 5' capping, 3' polyadenylation, and splicing of introns.
    • Transcription factors bind to promoter regions to regulate the initiation of transcription.
    • Enhancers and response elements influence the strength of transcription.

    Chapter 38 Notes

    • RNA polymerase I, II, and III synthesize rRNA, mRNA precursors, and tRNA, respectively, and are sensitive to different inhibitors.
    • RNA processing involves 5' capping, 3' polyadenylation, and splicing of introns in pre-mRNA.
    • Alternative splicing creates multiple mRNAs from a single gene, increasing proteomic diversity.

    Chapter 39 Notes

    • The genetic code is a triplet code where each three-nucleotide codon specifies a particular amino acid.
    • The genetic code is degenerate, meaning multiple codons can specify the same amino acid.
    • Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules are adaptor molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosome.
    • tRNA molecules have an anticodon that base-pairs with the mRNA codon.
    • Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is an enzyme that attaches the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA.

    Chapter 40 Notes

    • Translation is the process of protein synthesis, where ribosomes read mRNA to synthesize proteins.
    • Ribosomes have three binding sites: A site, P site, and E site.
    • Initiation factors (IFs) and elongation factors (EFs) are needed for the initiation and elongation steps of translation.
    • Termination factors (RFs) are needed to terminate translation.

    Studying That Suits You

    Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

    Quiz Team

    More Like This

    Biochemistry Study Notes
    8 questions
    Biochemistry Study Notes
    8 questions
    Biochemistry Study Notes
    37 questions
    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser