Sources of Law - Constitutional and Statutory Law
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Questions and Answers

What type of law allows Congress to regulate commerce between states, including drug distribution?

  • Case Law
  • Constitutional Law (correct)
  • Statutory Law
  • Administrative Law

What is the burden of proof in a criminal trial?

  • Clear and convincing evidence
  • Preponderance of evidence
  • Beyond a reasonable doubt (correct)
  • Probable cause

Which drug regulation act introduced requirements to prove drug safety and included adequate directions for use?

  • Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951)
  • Pure Food and Drug Act (1906)
  • Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962)
  • FDCA (1938) (correct)

Which class of drug recall represents a serious health risk or death?

<p>Class I (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'stare decisis' ensure in the legal system?

<p>Precedent is followed for consistency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which amendment guarantees a right to a fair trial?

<p>Sixth Amendment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which act clarified compounding standards under the Drug Quality and Security Act?

<p>DQSA (2013) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of Phase IV clinical trials?

<p>Monitor long-term safety of a drug (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Schedule II controlled substances from those in Schedule III?

<p>Schedule II substances are deemed to have a high abuse potential (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid controlled substance prescription?

<p>Patient's insurance information (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Orange Book?

<p>Assess equivalency of generic medications (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which act specifically requires illegal drug prescriptions to involve an in-person evaluation?

<p>Ryan Haight Act (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does OBRA '90 require pharmacists to do?

<p>Offer counseling and maintain patient records (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of 503A facilities in compounding standards?

<p>Patient-specific prescriptions with stricter limits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of DEA registration would be unnecessary for a pharmacy dispensing controlled substances?

<p>Research registration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best defines vicarious liability?

<p>An employer is liable for their employees’ actions during employment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required when reporting a theft/loss of controlled substances?

<p>Complete DEA Form 106 within one business day (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main purposes of state-run Prescription Drug Monitoring Programs (PDMP)?

<p>Track prescribing and dispensing to prevent diversion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following terms refers to unjust enrichment due to illegal remuneration?

<p>Anti-Kickback Statute (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following controlled substances has the highest potential for abuse?

<p>Fentanyl (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a pharmacist need to include when counseling a patient about drug interactions?

<p>Specific risks and contraindications (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary requirement under OBRA '90 for pharmacists regarding drug therapy?

<p>Offering counseling and maintaining records (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for Schedule III controlled substances?

<p>Five refills in six months (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the requirements for a DEA Form 106?

<p>Theft reporting documentation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of substances is included in Schedule I under controlled substances?

<p>No accepted medical use and high abuse potential (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition is vicarious liability applicable to employers?

<p>Employees must have acted within their scope of employment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the defined frequency for renewing DEA registration for controlled substances?

<p>Every three years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action must be taken when a secure storage of controlled substances is compromised?

<p>Report using DEA Form 106 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do the compounding standards under 503B facilities specifically enforce?

<p>Stricter requirements than 503A (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of law primarily derives its authority from the Commerce Clause?

<p>Constitutional Law (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the responsibility of pharmacists in the event of a drug recall?

<p>Notify distributors and inform patients when necessary (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drug regulations specifically requires proof of drug efficacy?

<p>Kefauver-Harris Amendment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of legal trials, which of the following correctly differentiates civil from criminal trials?

<p>Criminal trials have a higher burden of proof than civil trials. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What guarantees legal consistency through reliance on prior judicial decisions?

<p>Stare Decisis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drug recall indicates an unlikely risk of harm to health?

<p>Class III (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which resource evaluates the therapeutic equivalency of generic drugs?

<p>Orange Book (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA)?

<p>It mandates that all drugs prove safety before approval. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary requirement for a drug to be classified as an interchangeable biologic?

<p>It must demonstrate high similarity with no meaningful clinical differences. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of drug recall involves the potential for serious adverse health effects or death?

<p>Class I recall (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes a 503B outsourcing facility from a 503A compounding pharmacy?

<p>It must adhere to sterility and quality standards for large-scale compounding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) in relation to pharmaceuticals?

<p>To regulate drug advertising and marketing practices. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the burden of proof in a criminal trial?

<p>Beyond a reasonable doubt. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best outlines the responsibilities of pharmacists during a drug recall?

<p>Pharmacists must inform patients if they have dispensed the drug. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best defines the concept of 'stare decisis' in the legal system?

<p>The requirement to follow precedent established in previous cases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What standard must be met for drug approval regarding efficacy?

<p>Both safety and efficacy must be demonstrated. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main focus of Phase IV clinical trials?

<p>To monitor long-term safety and effectiveness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III controlled substance prescription within six months?

<p>Five refills (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding online pharmacies?

<p>They must verify valid prescriptions through in-person evaluations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum retention period for maintaining records related to controlled substances?

<p>Two years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is a pharmacy required to submit a DEA Form 106?

<p>When reporting the theft or loss of controlled substances. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes how a pharmacy can distribute controlled substances without registering as a distributor?

<p>Distribute less than 5% of its total inventory. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a valid prescription of controlled substances?

<p>It should include the patient's ultimate user status. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What determines the classification of a substance as Schedule I under the Controlled Substance Act?

<p>It has no accepted medical uses and a high potential for abuse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of pharmacy boards in relation to licenses?

<p>They issue licenses and enforce state laws. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the difference between manufacturing and compounding in pharmacy?

<p>Manufacturing involves large-scale production; compounding is tailored for individual patients. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of pharmacy liability, which of the following is true regarding negligence?

<p>Legal mandates can establish what constitutes negligence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which regulatory body is primarily responsible for monitoring long-term safety and effectiveness of drugs?

<p>Food and Drug Administration (FDA) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which principle ensures that courts follow precedents set in previous cases?

<p>Stare decisis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes an interchangeable biologic drug from standard generics?

<p>Higher standards for bioequivalence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) play in drug recalls?

<p>Oversees the response to safety concerns (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the drug approval process involves extensive clinical monitoring and assessment of safety after marketing?

<p>Phase IV (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the legal standard of evidence required in civil cases?

<p>Preponderance of the evidence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Supremacy Clause ensure in the context of state and federal laws?

<p>Federal laws take precedence over conflicting state laws (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between 503A and 503B facilities in compounding?

<p>503B can compound for office use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes the Kefauver-Harris Amendment from previous drug legislation?

<p>It required drugs to prove their efficacy in addition to safety. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately characterizes the responsibilities of pharmacies during drug recalls?

<p>Pharmacies must promptly notify patients if affected drugs have been dispensed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the Drug Quality and Security Act (DQSA) of 2013?

<p>It established tracking systems for enhancing drug supply chain security. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the Orange Book serve in relation to generic drugs?

<p>It assesses therapeutic equivalency and identifies substitutable drugs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs with the least potential for abuse?

<p>Schedule V (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of 503B outsourcing facilities under compounding regulations?

<p>They can compound large batches of drugs under stricter GMP standards. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) categorize drugs?

<p>By their potential for abuse and accepted medical use. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for a prescription to be valid in the context of controlled substances?

<p>It requires the prescriber's DEA number among other details. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum duration for maintaining inventory and dispensing records for controlled substances?

<p>Two years (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the legal status of marijuana under federal law?

<p>Classified as a Schedule I substance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes drugs classified under Schedule I from those in Schedule II?

<p>Schedule I drugs carry the highest abuse potential and lack accepted medical use. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What provision does the Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951) establish?

<p>Distinction between prescription-only and over-the-counter drugs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which act requires that physicians exercise caution in promoting off-label drug use?

<p>Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant requirement introduced by the FDAAA regarding drugs with significant risks?

<p>They require establishment of Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key implication of the Supremacy Clause in the context of drug regulation?

<p>Federal law supersedes conflicting state law (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one consequence if a pharmacy exceeds the distribution limit of 5% for its controlled substance inventory?

<p>It must register as a distributor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which entity primarily regulates prescription drug advertising to ensure fair balance?

<p>Food and Drug Administration (FDA) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What essential component of the HIPAA mandates is vital for protecting patient information?

<p>Preserves patient privacy by controlling use and disclosure of PHI. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a required component that must be included with a prescription for controlled substances?

<p>Directions for use (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)?

<p>Ensure safe drug use (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates civil trials from criminal trials?

<p>Civil trials typically have a lower burden of proof (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it mean that a pharmacist shares responsibility for ensuring valid prescriptions?

<p>They can be held liable for fraudulent prescriptions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence for pharmacies when they lack the full quantity of a prescribed controlled substance?

<p>They can partially fill the prescription under certain conditions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances can the loss of controlled substances be reported using DEA Form 106?

<p>If the pharmacy experiences a significant loss (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the required review process for prospective medication dispensing?

<p>Pre-dispensing review (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the actions of the pharmacy boards in relation to state pharmacies?

<p>They enforce laws and investigate complaints (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'monopolization' refer to in the context of regulatory laws?

<p>The attempt to dominate a market or sector by a single player (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the implications of civil liability for pharmacists in malpractice cases?

<p>Pharmacists may be liable for negligence if standards are not met (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum duration for the FDA's standard review process for a New Drug Application (NDA)?

<p>10 months (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Fast Track Designation?

<p>To allow for rolling review during drug development (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of drug approvals, bioequivalence for ANDA approval refers to the drugs being compared in terms of which of the following?

<p>Rate and extent of absorption into the bloodstream (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary objectives of Phase IV clinical trials?

<p>To monitor long-term safety and effectiveness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Priority Review is accurate?

<p>It is granted to drugs that address unmet medical needs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA)?

<p>To demonstrate bioequivalence to a reference listed drug. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of clinical trials is the primary focus on evaluating optimal dosing and short-term side effects?

<p>Phase II (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which application is necessary to begin clinical trials on a new drug?

<p>IND (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key component included in a New Drug Application (NDA)?

<p>Extensive data from preclinical and clinical trials. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary objective of Phase III clinical trials?

<p>Confirm efficacy and monitor adverse reactions on a large scale. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What change can be requested through a Supplemental New Drug Application (sNDA)?

<p>Change in the drug's labeling or packaging. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is NOT a characteristic requirement of the Preclinical Studies phase?

<p>Evaluation of drug interactions in clinical settings. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of participants typical for Phase I clinical trials?

<p>20–80 participants (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key aspect of the Kefauver-Harris Amendment regarding drug regulation?

<p>It requires a demonstration of drug efficacy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which federal law primarily assures safety and labeling of food and drugs in interstate commerce?

<p>Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following represents the primary role of the Durham-Humphrey Amendment?

<p>It categorizes drugs into over-the-counter and prescription. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the focus of the FDA Amendments Act of 2007?

<p>Implementation of risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (REMS). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of drug recall is classified as a Class I recall?

<p>Drugs with a potential for serious health effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Supremacy Clause, what is the status of a federal law conflicting with state law?

<p>State law is rendered void by federal law. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which law initially required pre-market testing for drug safety?

<p>Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) of 1938 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes adulteration of a drug?

<p>Failure to meet quality standards. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the monthly pseudoephedrine sales limit for a single purchaser?

<p>3.6 grams (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which prescription element is mandatory for Schedule II drugs?

<p>Prescriber DEA number (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Phase II clinical testing primarily evaluates which aspect?

<p>Efficacy and safety in a small group of patients (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agency is responsible for overseeing drug recalls?

<p>FDA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Controlled Substances Act, what characterizes a Schedule IV drug?

<p>Low abuse potential with accepted medical use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which law established a difference between OTC and prescription drugs?

<p>Durham-Humphrey Amendment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

DEA Form 106 must be filed for which situation?

<p>Reporting theft or loss of controlled substances (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main focuses of OBRA '90?

<p>Counseling mandates (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of REMS programs?

<p>Ensure safe use of high-risk drugs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the required frequency for conducting a biennial inventory of controlled substances in a pharmacy?

<p>Every 2 years (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drug recall involves reasonable probability that the use of the product will cause serious health consequences or death?

<p>Class I (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organization is primarily responsible for overseeing the marketing of prescription drugs?

<p>FDA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary role of Phase IV clinical trials?

<p>Monitoring post-marketing safety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which document is essential for a pharmacy to order Schedule I and II controlled substances?

<p>DEA Form 222 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key feature differentiates 503B compounding facilities from 503A ones?

<p>Subject to FDA oversight and GMP requirements (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Orange Book provide regarding pharmaceuticals?

<p>Information on therapeutic equivalence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under HIPAA, which of the following actions can occur without patient consent?

<p>Disclosure for treatment, payment, or healthcare operations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a PDMP?

<p>To monitor prescription drug abuse (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary requirement before a drug can be marketed in the U.S.?

<p>Premarket approval by the FDA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of pharmacies under OBRA '90?

<p>Conducting drug recalls (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly states the limitation on refills for Schedule III-IV prescriptions?

<p>Up to 5 refills within 6 months (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of information does HIPAA protect?

<p>Protected Health Information (PHI) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Anti-Kickback Statute primarily prohibit?

<p>Financial incentives for federal healthcare referrals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions would NOT commonly result in disciplinary measures by a state board of pharmacy?

<p>Revoking a pharmacist's license for errors in patient counseling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), what is the main purpose of classifying drugs into schedules?

<p>To schedule drugs based on abuse potential and medical use (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes a Schedule I drug from other schedules?

<p>High abuse potential with no accepted medical use (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary responsibility of state boards of pharmacy?

<p>Licensing and regulating pharmacy practice (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which law specifically addresses physician self-referrals?

<p>Stark Law (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule IV medication within a 6-month period?

<p>5 refills (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for an Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA)?

<p>Proof of bioequivalence to a reference listed drug (RLD) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which DEA form is necessary for ordering Schedule I and II controlled substances?

<p>Form 222 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines negligence per se in pharmacy practice?

<p>Violation of a statute designed to protect patient safety (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key purpose of REMS programs?

<p>Ensure the safe use of high-risk drugs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine that can be purchased in one day?

<p>5 grams (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organization is crucial for facilitating cooperation among state boards of pharmacy?

<p>NABP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must appear on a controlled substance prescription?

<p>Prescriber DEA number (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which DEA form is used to order controlled substances?

<p>DEA Form 222 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which element of malpractice directly links the pharmacist’s actions to patient harm?

<p>Causation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What element of malpractice involves proving that harm would not have occurred without the pharmacist’s actions?

<p>Causation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a PDMP reduce controlled substance misuse?

<p>Tracks controlled substance prescribing and dispensing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which law introduced the requirement for tamper-resistant Medicaid prescription pads?

<p>OBRA ’90 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the federal limit on refills for Schedule III and IV prescriptions?

<p>5 refills in 6 months (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Anti-Kickback Statute prohibit?

<p>Offering or receiving payment for healthcare referrals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of DEA warrant requires probable cause?

<p>Search warrant (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would constitute negligence per se?

<p>Dispensing medication without a valid prescription (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long must Schedule II controlled substance prescriptions be retained under federal law?

<p>2 years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of Pharmacy practice acts are designed to?

<p>Define the scope of pharmacy practice within the state (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What entity primarily coordinates between state boards of pharmacy?

<p>NABP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which legislation mandates pharmacists to provide counseling to patients?

<p>OBRA ’90 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT true regarding a breach under HIPAA?

<p>Involves only specific individuals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum number of days allowed to complete a partial fill for a Schedule II drug according to regulations?

<p>30 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the primary focus of a retrospective Drug Utilization Review (DUR)?

<p>Evaluating prescribing trends for compliance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which law regulates the distribution and handling of prescription drugs by specifying practices for compounding facilities?

<p>Drug Quality and Security Act (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary requirement for drugs that are subject to REMS programs?

<p>Include risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of facility produces sterile drugs and is specifically regulated under 503B?

<p>Outsourcing facilities (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum monthly limit for purchasing pseudoephedrine?

<p>9.0 grams (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often are pharmacies required to conduct controlled substance inventories?

<p>Every 2 years (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of clinical trials focuses on the safety of a drug?

<p>Phase I (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which law prohibits financial arrangements that incentivize referrals in healthcare?

<p>Stark Law (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which agency oversees the regulation of 503A compounding pharmacies?

<p>State boards of pharmacy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a requirement for a prescription for controlled substances?

<p>Drug strength and quantity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Stare Decisis

The legal principle requiring courts to follow previous decisions in similar cases.

Supremacy Clause

Federal law overrides conflicting state laws unless state law is stricter.

Civil Trial Burden of Proof

The standard of proof in civil cases, requiring a "preponderance of evidence".

Criminal Trial Burden of Proof

The standard in criminal cases, requiring "beyond a reasonable doubt".

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Adulteration

Drug quality issues (e.g., contaminated, improperly manufactured).

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Misbranding

Inaccurate or misleading drug labeling (missing active ingredients, etc.)

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Drug Recall Class I

Drug recall with serious health risk or death.

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Drug Recall Class III

Drug recall unlikely to cause harm.

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New Drug Approval Phases

The process for approving new drugs, which involves various phases of clinical trials (I-IV) and regulatory submissions (IND, NDA).

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503A Compounding

Patient-specific prescriptions require strict compounding limits and special handling.

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503B Compounding

Larger-scale compounding outsourced to facilities with specific regulations.

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HIPAA

Protects health information, enabling limited disclosure for treatment, payment, or operations (TPO).

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Controlled Substances Schedule I

Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. (e.g., heroin, marijuana federally)

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DEA Registration

Required for dispensing, manufacturing, or distributing controlled substances with separate requirements for each location.

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Prescription Requirements: Controlled Substances

Detailed prescriptions, including patient information, prescriber details, drug information, and date.

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PDMP

State-run databases tracking dispensing and prescribing of controlled substances to prevent diversion and abuse.

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DEA Form 106

Used for reporting lost or stolen controlled substances.

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OBRA '90

Established DUR, including prospective and retrospective prescription reviews, counselling requirement, and maintaining patient records.

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Anti-Kickback Statute

Prohibits paying for referrals related to federal health programs.

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Medicare

Federally funded for individuals 65+ or with certain disabilities.

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Negligence Per Se

Violating a statute automatically establishes negligence (e.g., filling a prescription without authorization).

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State Board of Pharmacy

Issues licenses for pharmacists, defining practice scope, and enforcing laws through disciplinary actions.

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What's the difference between 503A and 503B compounding?

503A is patient-specific compounding with USP standards. 503B is large-scale outsourcing with stricter requirements.

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Hazardous Drug Compounding

Special handling rules for drugs with serious risks, including PPE, assessments, and proper disposal.

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Prescription Requirements

Prescriptions must include patient, prescriber, drug details, and dispensing information.

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FDCA (1938)

The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 established requirements for drug safety proof and defined adequate labeling.

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Durham-Humphrey Amendment

This amendment distinguished between prescription (Rx) and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs.

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Kefauver-Harris Amendment

This amendment further strengthened drug safety by requiring proof of both drug safety and efficacy.

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FDAAA (2007)

The Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act (2007) introduced the concept of Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS) to address specific drug safety concerns.

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DQSA (2013)

The Drug Quality and Security Act (2013) addressed compounding standards, ensuring quality and safety for compounded medications.

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First Amendment

Guarantees freedom of speech, which is important for advertising and promoting medications.

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Fourth Amendment

Protects against unreasonable searches and seizures, applicable to drug inspections.

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Fifth Amendment

Provides due process rights and protection against self-incrimination, relevant to drug investigations.

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Sixth Amendment

Guarantees the right to a fair trial, relevant to drug-related legal proceedings.

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Eighth Amendment

Protects against cruel and unusual punishment, relevant to drug offense sentencing.

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What are the four main sources of law?

The four main sources of law are constitutional law, statutory law, administrative law, and case law.

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What is stare decisis?

Stare decisis is the principle that courts must follow precedents established in previous legal cases, ensuring consistency and predictability in legal rulings.

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What is the Supremacy Clause?

The Supremacy Clause states that federal law is supreme over state law when the two conflict.

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What is the burden of proof in a civil trial?

The burden of proof in a civil trial is preponderance of the evidence, meaning the evidence must be more likely than not that the defendant is responsible.

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What is the burden of proof in a criminal trial?

The burden of proof in a criminal trial is beyond a reasonable doubt, meaning the prosecution must prove the defendant's guilt with a high degree of certainty.

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What is the purpose of the FDA?

The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) is a government agency that regulates the safety and effectiveness of drugs, ensuring patients get safe and effective medications.

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What's a generic drug?

A generic drug is chemically and therapeutically equivalent to the original brand-name drug. Generic drugs are generally cheaper because they are not subject to the same marketing costs as brand-name drugs.

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What is the difference between a prescription and an OTC drug?

A prescription drug requires a doctor's order, while an OTC drug is available for purchase without a prescription. The FDA classifies drugs based on their safety and potential for misuse.

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What is an IND?

An IND (Investigational New Drug) application is submitted to the FDA by a drug manufacturer seeking to conduct clinical trials of a new drug.

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What are the different phases of clinical trials?

Clinical trials occur in four phases: Phase I (initial safety and dosage testing in healthy volunteers), Phase II (effectiveness and dosage testing in a small group of patients), Phase III (large-scale testing of efficacy and safety in diverse patient populations), and Phase IV (post-market surveillance to monitor long-term safety and effectiveness).

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DEA Inspection

DEA agents can inspect pharmacies to ensure compliance with controlled substance regulations.

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Pharmacy Inventory Records

Pharmacies must maintain accurate records of their controlled substance inventory, including receipts and dispensing records. These records are crucial for compliance with DEA regulations and can be used for future audits.

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Refills for Controlled Substances

Controlled substances can have refills, but the number of refills and timeframe are limited. Most controlled substances can have up to five refills within six months.

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Pharmacist's Role in Controlled Substances

Pharmacists play a crucial role in ensuring the safe and legal dispensing of controlled substances by verifying prescriptions, maintaining accurate records, and understanding potential risks.

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Off-Label Prescribing

Prescribers may legally prescribe drugs for uses not specifically approved by the FDA, but they must be aware of potential risks and legal compliance.

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Federal Law vs. State Law

Federal law takes precedence over conflicting state regulations. Pharmacists must comply with the stricter laws when federal and state regulations conflict. In addition, federal marijuana laws preempt state laws, which could be a point of contention.

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Commerce Clause

Grants Congress power to regulate interstate drug commerce, allowing for national drug laws.

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Preponderance of Evidence

Lower burden of proof in civil cases, meaning the evidence must be more likely than not.

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Beyond a Reasonable Doubt

Higher burden of proof in criminal cases, requiring a very high degree of certainty.

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Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)

Measures to ensure safe drug use for high-risk medications.

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Prospective DUR

Reviewing prescriptions before dispensing to identify potential issues.

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Retrospective DUR

Analyzing prescription trends to identify patterns and improve patient care.

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OTC Drugs

Over-the-counter (OTC) drugs are safe for use without medical supervision. These drugs are available for purchase without a prescription.

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Legend Drugs

Legend drugs are medications that require a prescription from a healthcare professional.

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Drug Adulteration

Adulterated drugs fail to meet safety or quality standards, often due to contamination, improper storage, or use of unapproved ingredients.

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Drug Misbranding

Misbranded drugs have false, misleading, or incomplete labeling, such as missing dosage instructions, incorrect ingredients, or inaccurate claims.

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Phase IV Trials

Phase IV clinical trials are conducted after a drug is on the market to monitor its long-term effects and ensure continued safety.

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Orange Book

The Orange Book is a resource that evaluates the therapeutic equivalency of generic drugs.

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Purple Book

The Purple Book evaluates the biosimilarity and interchangeability of biologics.

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NDA Approval

The process by which the FDA reviews and approves a New Drug Application (NDA) for a new drug, ensuring its safety, efficacy, and quality.

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Bioequivalence

A generic drug must show that it's absorbed into the bloodstream at the same rate and extent as the original brand-name drug. This is measured using pharmacokinetic parameters like Cmax and AUC.

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Priority Review

This speeds up the FDA's review process for drugs addressing unmet medical needs or providing significant advancements over existing treatments.

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Fast Track Designation

Expedites the development of drugs for serious conditions by allowing a rolling review of data and speeding up the approval timeline.

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NDA (New Drug Application)

A comprehensive application submitted to the FDA for approval of a new drug that has never been marketed in the U.S. It includes extensive preclinical and clinical trial data, manufacturing details, labeling, and marketing plans.

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ANDA (Abbreviated New Drug Application)

An application for generic drug approval that demonstrates bioequivalence to an already approved brand-name drug. It requires proof of the same active ingredient, route of administration, dosage form, and strength.

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sNDA (Supplemental New Drug Application)

An application filed to request changes to an already approved drug, such as new indications, labeling updates, or manufacturing changes.

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IND (Investigational New Drug Application)

An application submitted to the FDA before clinical trials can begin, ensuring the safety of participants during the trials. It includes preclinical study data, proposed clinical protocols, and manufacturing information.

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Phase I Clinical Trial

The initial phase of clinical trials, conducted in a small group of healthy volunteers to assess drug safety, dosage range, and pharmacokinetics.

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Phase II Clinical Trial

The second phase of clinical trials, evaluating drug efficacy and further assessing safety in patients with the target condition. It helps determine optimal dosing and short-term side effects.

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Phase III Clinical Trial

The large-scale phase of clinical trials, confirming efficacy and monitoring adverse reactions in a large population. It compares the new drug to existing treatments and establishes the benefit-risk ratio.

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Phase IV Clinical Trial

The post-marketing phase of clinical trials, monitoring long-term safety and effectiveness of the drug after it has been released to the market.

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Statutory Law

Laws created by legislative bodies, like Congress or state legislatures.

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Administrative Law

Rules and regulations made by government agencies, like the FDA.

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Burden of Proof (Criminal)

The prosecution must prove guilt 'beyond a reasonable doubt' in criminal cases.

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Pure Food and Drug Act (1906)

Prohibited adulterated or misbranded food and drugs in interstate commerce.

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Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962)

Required drugs to be proven both safe and effective before marketing.

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FDA Amendments Act (2007)

Introduced Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS) for drugs with safety concerns.

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Who notifies the FDA about a recall?

The manufacturer of the drug is responsible for notifying the FDA about any drug recall.

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Which entity regulates prescription drug advertising?

The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) regulates prescription drug advertising.

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Off-label drug use

This is when a drug is used for a purpose that wasn't approved by the FDA. It is permissible under certain conditions, but the manufacturer cannot market the drug for that use. It is not always illegal and not limited to controlled substances or investigational drugs.

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What's required before marketing a drug?

A drug must be pre-approved by the FDA before being marketed. This ensures its safety and effectiveness.

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Schedule II Controlled Substances

Highly addictive drugs with a high potential for abuse, requiring special handling and strict prescribing practices.

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DEA Warrant

A search warrant issued by a judge allowing DEA agents to inspect facilities for controlled substances.

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Methadone for Opioid Use Disorder

Dispensed through certified Opioid Treatment Programs (OTPs) to help patients manage addiction.

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Tamper-Resistant Prescription Pads

Required for Medicaid prescriptions to prevent forgery and fraud.

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Pharmacy Practice Acts

State laws defining the scope of pharmacy practice and setting rules for pharmacists.

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Malpractice

Negligence by a professional, such as a pharmacist, that causes harm to a patient.

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REMS Program

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy used for drugs with significant safety risks to ensure safe use.

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NABP's Role

The National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) primarily coordinates and supports state boards of pharmacy, promoting consistency in pharmacy laws and practices.

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HIPAA Breach Reporting

A breach under HIPAA must be reported to the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) if it involves more than 500 individuals.

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OBRA '90 Counseling

The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) requires pharmacists to offer counseling to all Medicaid patients about their prescriptions.

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Schedule II Narcotics

Controlled substances classified as Schedule II have a high potential for abuse and addiction, requiring a written prescription for each dispense.

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Partial Fill for Schedule II

Pharmacies have 72 hours (3 days) to complete a partial fill for a Schedule II drug prescription.

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Controlled Substance Prescription Requirements

Prescriptions for controlled substances require specific details, including the prescriber's DEA number, patient's address, drug strength, and quantity.

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Medicaid Funding

Medicaid is jointly funded by both state and federal governments to provide healthcare for low-income individuals and families.

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Medicare Eligibility

Medicare provides healthcare primarily to individuals aged 65 and older or those with certain disabilities.

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Stark Law

This law prohibits physicians from referring patients to entities where they have a financial interest (e.g., owning the facility), preventing potential conflicts of interest.

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USP Purpose for Compounding

The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) provides standards and guidance for compounding medications, ensuring quality and safety, especially for sterile preparations.

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503B Outsourcing Facilities

These facilities, licensed by the FDA, are responsible for large-scale compounding of sterile medications, meeting strict quality and safety requirements.

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AIW (Administrative Inspection Warrant)

This warrant is commonly used by the DEA for investigations into drug diversion cases, allowing agents to inspect pharmacies with probable cause.

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Biodegradable Pads

These pads are designed to break down naturally in the environment, reducing waste and promoting sustainability.

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Tamper-Resistant Pads

These pads feature security features to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with medications, ensuring patient safety.

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Digital-Only Prescriptions

These prescriptions are electronically submitted and managed, allowing for streamlined communication and reduced errors.

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FDA-Approved Pads

These pads have met the safety and effectiveness standards set by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), ensuring quality and reliability.

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What does the Anti-Kickback Statute prohibit?

This statute prohibits offering or receiving financial incentives for referring patients to healthcare providers, ensuring ethical practices and preventing conflicts of interest.

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What does the Stark Law regulate?

This law regulates physician self-referrals, preventing conflicts of interest and ensuring fair healthcare practices.

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Primary Role of State Boards of Pharmacy

These boards are responsible for licensing and regulating pharmacy practice within their respective states, ensuring public safety and maintaining high professional standards.

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Disciplinary Actions by State Boards of Pharmacy

These boards can take disciplinary actions against pharmacists, such as license suspension or revocation, imposing fines, or other sanctions, to address violations of pharmacy laws and regulations.

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Enforcing Pharmacy Practice Acts

State boards of pharmacy are primarily responsible for enforcing pharmacy practice acts, ensuring that pharmacists adhere to the regulations governing their profession.

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Conflicting Federal and State Pharmacy Laws

In cases where federal and state pharmacy laws conflict, federal law typically prevails, prioritizing national standards over local regulations.

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Elements of Malpractice

Malpractice involves four key elements: duty, breach, causation, and damages.

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Vicarious Liability

This principle holds an employer (pharmacy) liable for the actions of its employees (technicians), even if the employer was not directly at fault.

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FTC

The Federal Trade Commission, a government agency that protects consumers by preventing unfair or deceptive business practices, including in advertising.

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What is the distinction between OTC and prescription drugs?

OTC drugs are considered safe for use without a doctor's prescription, while prescription drugs require a doctor's authorization based on safety concerns and potential for misuse.

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What is the purpose of Phase II clinical trials?

Phase II clinical trials evaluate the efficacy and safety of a drug in a small group of patients to determine if it works and identify any potential side effects.

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What agency oversees drug recalls?

The FDA oversees drug recalls to ensure the safety of the public and remove unsafe products from the market.

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What is the purpose of REMS programs?

REMS programs are designed to mitigate the risks associated with high-risk drugs by implementing specific measures to ensure safe use and monitor potential adverse effects.

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What is the legal standard for Schedule IV drugs?

Schedule IV drugs have a low potential for abuse and accepted medical uses, with a lower risk of addiction compared to Schedule I-III drugs.

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What are the key elements of a Schedule II prescription?

A Schedule II prescription must be written, signed by the prescriber, and include the prescriber's DEA number. Refills are not allowed.

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Study Notes

Sources of Law

  • Constitutional Law: Highest authority; outlines federal/state power distribution (e.g., Interstate Commerce Clause); federal authority primarily from Commerce Clause.
  • Statutory Law: Laws created by legislative bodies (e.g., FDCA, CSA).
  • Administrative Law: Rules from regulatory agencies (e.g., FDA, DEA).
  • Case Law (Common Law): Based on judicial opinions; stare decisis ensures consistency; influenced by prior rulings e.g., Controlled Substances Act (CSA).

Stare Decisis

  • Ensures consistent legal decisions by adhering to prior rulings; courts follow precedents.

Supremacy Clause

  • Article VI: Federal law prevails over conflicting state laws unless state law more stringent; example: federal marijuana laws (CSA) preempt state legalization unless states have stricter laws.

Civil vs. Criminal Trials (Burden of Proof)

  • Civil: Preponderance of evidence (e.g., malpractice cases); dispute between individuals.
  • Criminal: Beyond a reasonable doubt (e.g., drug diversion cases); violation of statutes.

Key Amendments and Purpose

  • First Amendment: Freedom of speech (relevant to advertising).
  • Fourth Amendment: Protection against unlawful searches.
  • Fifth Amendment: Due process, protection against self-incrimination.
  • Sixth Amendment: Right to a fair trial.
  • Eighth Amendment: Protection from cruel punishment.
  • Fourteenth Amendment: Equal protection clause.

Major Drug Laws

  • Pure Food and Drug Act (1906): Prevented misbranding and adulteration; did not include pre-market safety or efficacy.
  • FDCA (1938): Required drug safety proof before marketing; defined adequate labeling; addressed cosmetics and medical devices.
  • Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951): Distinguished Rx and OTC drugs; introduced “legend drugs”: “Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription.”
  • Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962): Required drug efficacy proof in addition to safety; strengthened FDA control over drug trials and adverse event reporting.
  • FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA) (2007): Introduced REMS for drug safety; strengthened post-marketing surveillance (Phase IV trials).
  • DQSA (2013): Addressed compounding standards; improved drug supply chain security; introduced national tracking systems.
  • Prescription Drug Marketing Act (1987): Regulated drug samples and prevented reimportation of drugs.
  • Controlled Substances Act (CSA): Introduced controlled substance scheduling (Schedules I–V) based on abuse potential and medical use.

Adulteration, Misbranding, and Recalls

  • Adulteration: Concerns drug quality, safety (e.g., contamination during manufacturing or storage).
  • Misbranding: Inaccurate labeling (e.g., missing dosage instructions or warnings).
  • Drug Recalls:
    • Class I: Risk of death.
    • Class II: Reversible risks.
    • Class III: Unlikely to harm.
  • Responsibility for Recalls:
    • Manufacturers: Notify distributors and FDA.
    • Wholesalers: Notify pharmacies.
    • Pharmacists: Notify patients if affected drugs have been dispensed.

FDA Regulation and Drug Approval

  • New Drug Approval Process:
    • Key Applications:
      • NDA (New Drug Application): Submitted for a new drug entity; includes preclinical and clinical trial data, manufacturing details, labeling, and marketing plans.
      • ANDA (Abbreviated New Drug Application): Used for generic drugs; demonstrates bioequivalence to a reference listed drug (RLD); no need to duplicate clinical trials.
      • sNDA (Supplemental New Drug Application): Filed for changes to an approved drug (e.g., new indications, labeling updates, manufacturing changes).
      • IND (Investigational New Drug Application): Submitted before clinical trials; ensures safety of participants, includes preclinical data, proposed clinical protocols, and manufacturing information.
    • Phases of Clinical Trials:
      • Preclinical Studies: Conducted in labs and animals to assess safety, mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics.
      • Phase I: Safety and Dosage; assesses drug safety and pharmacokinetics in healthy volunteers.
      • Phase II: Efficacy and Safety; evaluates drug efficacy and further assesses safety in patients, often includes placebo-controlled trials.
      • Phase III: Large-Scale Trials; confirms efficacy and monitors adverse reactions in a large population, compares new drug to existing treatments.
      • Phase IV (Post-Marketing Surveillance): Monitors long-term safety and effectiveness after FDA approval; may involve REMS.
    • FDA Review of NDA: FDA has 10 months for standard review, 6 months for priority review; reviews clinical trial results, labeling, and manufacturing.
    • Key Definitions:
      • Bioequivalence: For ANDA, generic drugs must show same absorption rate/extent as RLD; measured by pharmacokinetic parameters (Cmax, AUC).
      • Priority Review: Expedites FDA review for drugs addressing unmet medical needs.
      • Fast Track Designation: Expedites drug development for serious medical conditions, allows rolling review.

FDA References

  • Orange Book: Evaluates therapeutic equivalence of generic drugs.
  • Purple Book: Evaluates biosimilarity and interchangeability of biologics.

Compounding Standards

  • 503A: Patient-specific prescriptions; exempt from certain FDA regulations.
  • 503B: Outsourcing facilities regulated under stricter GMP standards.
  • USP Chapters: Non-sterile, sterile compounding, and hazardous drug handling.
  • USP standards are mandatory to comply with for all hazardous drugs

Hazardous Drugs (NIOSH)

  • NIOSH is an agency overseeing safety standards in work environments.
  • Must comply with USP standards for handling hazardous drugs.
  • PPE, risk assessments, and proper disposal required.

HIPAA and OBRA

  • HIPAA: Protects PHI; allows use/disclosure for Treatment, Payment, or Healthcare Operations (TPO).
  • OBRA ’90: Mandates DUR and patient counseling for Medicaid patients.

Controlled Substances

  • Controlled Substance Schedules: Categorized based on abuse potential and medical use.
  • DEA Registration: Required for manufacturing, distribution, or dispensing controlled substances.
  • Security Requirements: Secure storage, theft/loss reported within one business day.

PDMP and Prescription Requirements

  • PDMP: Monitors prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances.
  • Prescription Requirements: Includes patient name, prescriber info, DEA number, drug details, directions, date of issuance.
  • Max Refills: Schedule II: No refills; Schedule III–V: Up to five refills.
  • Ryan Haight Act: Regulates internet pharmacies requiring in-person evaluation
  • Prescriber DEA numbers required on Schedule II prescriptions but not on III -V.

DEA Forms and Filing

  • DEA Forms: Form 222, Form 41, Form 106.
  • Recordkeeping Requirements: Controlled substance records retained for at least two years; biennial inventories needed.

DEA Inspections and Restrictions

  • Inspection Warrants: Administrative(AIW) warrants do not require probable cause. Search warrants do.
  • Opioid Use Disorder: Methadone only through certified OTPs.
  • Sudafed Limits: Daily: 3.6 grams; Monthly: 9 grams.

Medicare/Medicaid and Anti-Kickback Statutes

  • Medicare: Federal program for 65+ or disabled.
  • Medicaid: Joint federal-state program for low-income.
  • Anti-Kickback Statute: Prohibits payments for patient referrals.
  • Stark Law: Prevents self-referral for designated health services.

Pharmacy Boards and Regulations

  • State Board: Licenses, investigates complaints, and enforces laws.
  • NABP: Facilitates state board cooperation.

Malpractice and Liability

  • Malpractice Elements: Duty, breach, causation, damages.
  • Negligence Per Se: Negligence established by violating a statute.
  • Vicarious Liability: Employers liable for employee actions.

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Test your knowledge on the different sources of law, including constitutional, statutory, administrative, and case law. Understand key principles like stare decisis, the Supremacy Clause, and the differences between civil and criminal trials. Explore important amendments and their implications in the legal system.

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