Full Length Part 3
58 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What is the rationale for positioning the patient as far away from the radiation source as possible during an angiogram?

  • To reduce the risk of infection
  • To minimize the patient's exposure to radiation (correct)
  • To improve the manipulation of catheters and wires
  • To optimize the image brightness
  • Which procedure is preferred for recurrent or pervasive pilonidal disease?

  • Karydakis procedure
  • Midline incision procedure
  • Cleft lift procedure (correct)
  • Lateral incision procedure
  • Why is creating off-midline incisions for pilonidal cysts considered beneficial?

  • It decreases the risk of recurrence (correct)
  • It optimizes the manipulation of catheters and wires
  • It improves image brightness
  • It minimizes the patient's exposure to radiation
  • Which serum tumor marker is elevated in the majority of nonseminomatous germ cell tumors?

    <p>β-hCG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is β-hCG elevated in seminomas?

    <p>Never</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should the image intensifier be positioned as close to the patient as possible during an angiogram?

    <p>To optimize image brightness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which procedure involves en bloc resection of the parathyroid gland and ipsilateral thyroid lobe?

    <p>Radical parathyroidectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best initial surgical management for a rare type of hernia that is present inferior to the inguinal ligament?

    <p>Laparoscopic hernia repair</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which testing should be recommended as a first-line test in patients with suspected Cushing syndrome, according to The Endocrine Society's clinical guidelines?

    <p>Late-night salivary cortisol (2 measurements)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of ryanodine receptor is expressed in the myocardium?

    <p>Type 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the treatment for Helicobacter pylori if a penicillin allergy is present?

    <p>Quadruple bismuth therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most feared complication after total or partial gastrectomy, especially with Billroth II reconstruction?

    <p>Duodenal stump leak</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes duodenal atresia?

    <p>Failure of recanalization of the proximal small bowel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    "The finding of a 'double-bubble' sign on abdominal radiography is usually pathognomonic for" which condition?

    <p>Duodenal atresia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following factors should prompt consideration of conversion to an open approach during laparoscopic intervention?

    <p>Severely dilated small bowel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most effective initial treatment for patients with type I hiatal hernias who are asymptomatic?

    <p>Control of acid secretion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by a deficiency in phosphate and worsened by insulin surge with the administration of food/nutrition?

    <p>Refeeding syndrome</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What gene mutation is associated with Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome?

    <p>VHL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of hiatal hernia presents with dysphagia, early satiety, and postprandial pain?

    <p>Type I hiatal hernia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which gene mutation is associated with retinoblastoma?

    <p>RB1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cholesteatoma arises from either retraction pockets within the tympanic membrane or secondarily from a tympanic membrane perforation?

    <p>Acquired cholesteatoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best treatment for refeeding syndrome?

    <p>Correction of electrolytes and initiation of low rate feeding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main treatment modality for signs of refeeding syndrome when nutritional support is started?

    <p>Supportive care for the symptoms and correction of electrolyte abnormalities</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which gene mutation is associated with breast and ovarian cancer?

    <p>BRCA1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of atrial septal defect causes a left-to-right shunt with potential development of congestive heart failure?

    <p>Type I ASD</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action in refeeding syndrome?

    <p>Redistribution of phosphate intracellularly due to insulin surge with food administration</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate surgical resection for a tumor in the proximal transverse colon?

    <p>Extended right hemicolectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies blood flow to the terminal ileum and the proximal ascending colon?

    <p>Ileocolic artery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which treatment involves division of both branches of the middle colic artery and the origin of the inferior mesenteric artery?

    <p>Extended left colectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definitive treatment for mediastinitis?

    <p>Debridement and coverage with pectoralis muscle flaps</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the risk factors for developing mediastinitis?

    <p>Use of bilateral internal mammary arteries</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the most common locations for an accessory spleen?

    <p>Splenocolic ligament, greater omentum, tail of pancreas, splenic pedicle, splenic hilum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Pancoast syndrome associated with?

    <p>Horner syndrome and shoulder and arm pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common acute transfusion reaction?

    <p>Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the drug of choice for closure of persistent ductus arteriosus?

    <p>Indomethacin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done to obtain infectious source control in anorectal Crohn abscess/fistula?

    <p>Place a loose, draining seton to prevent recurrence of an abscess</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided in all but the most simple and superficial fistulas in patients with no evidence of proctitis?

    <p>Fistulotomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medications have been shown to improve fistulizing Crohn disease?

    <p>Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?

    <p>N-acetylcysteine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factors may lead to increased 30-day mortality following emergency laparotomy?

    <p>Age of patient, preoperative sepsis, perioperative AKI</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred agent for managing esophageal variceal bleeding in the United States?

    <p>Octreotide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the reversal agent for the neuromuscular blockers rocuronium and vecuronium?

    <p>Sugammadex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can cause a clinically significant decrease in oral fluoroquinolone bioavailability and an overall increase in fluoroquinolone-resistant bacteria?

    <p>Calcium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is used as an antidote for sodium nitroprusside toxicity and cyanide toxicity?

    <p>Sodium thiosulfate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which patients is intracranial pressure monitoring indicated?

    <p>Glasgow Coma Scale scores less than or equal to 8 with an abnormal head CT scan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agent antagonizes cardiac depression in beta-blocker toxicity?

    <p>Glucagon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What imaging is used to rule out motility disorders such as diffuse esophageal spasm or esophageal web/strictures?

    <p>Manometry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common age range for pancreatic cancer cases?

    <p>60-80 years of age</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial management focus for patients with esophageal variceal bleeding?

    <p>Correction of coagulopathy if present and avoidance of over-transfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for melanoma?

    <p>Surgical excision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

    <p>Papillary thyroid carcinoma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mnemonic recommended by ATLS for the history component in the secondary survey?

    <p>AMPLE</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cells are considered obligate glucose users?

    <p>Neoplastic cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary fuel source for neoplastic cells?

    <p>Glutamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the etiology of chylous ascites in a patient with end-stage pancreatic cancer?

    <p>Obstruction of the lymphatic vessels at the base of the mesentery or the cisterna chyli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for non-disseminated cancer or long stricture associated with esophageal perforation?

    <p>Esophagectomy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of Wernicke encephalopathy?

    <p>Malnutrition</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the manifestations of thiamine deficiency?

    <p>Ataxia, nystagmus, or other oculomotor dysfunctions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    More Like This

    Full Length Review 2
    71 questions

    Full Length Review 2

    ExcitedChalcedony7132 avatar
    ExcitedChalcedony7132
    Full-Length Drama Quiz
    20 questions
    Full-Length Play Analysis
    10 questions
    Full Length Test 1 Results 2024
    16 questions
    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Browser