Six Sigma and Lean Methodology Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Which area of waste is primarily associated with unnecessary steps or movements by personnel?

  • Motion (correct)
  • Correction
  • Overproduction
  • Waiting

What is the main purpose of the DEFINE phase in the DMAIC methodology of Six Sigma?

  • Measure baseline performance
  • Analyze data to identify root causes
  • Identify a critical project goal or deliverable (correct)
  • Control process improvements

What does the SHINE step in the 5S lean methodology emphasize?

  • Maintaining cleanliness in the work area (correct)
  • Organizing tools by frequency of use
  • Eliminating unnecessary items from the workspace
  • Ensuring that all workstations are standardized

In Six Sigma, what is the primary function of the MEASURE phase?

<p>Gathering data about the baseline performance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which area of waste includes issues like incorrect results and the need for repeat testing?

<p>Correction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key focus of the SUSTAIN step within the 5S methodology?

<p>Controlling and maintaining improvements made (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the ANALYZE phase of the DMAIC process primarily involve?

<p>Understanding cause and effect relationships (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many areas of waste are identified in the provided content?

<p>Seven (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a requirement for proficiency testing (PT) in laboratories?

<p>Personnel must score at least 80% on all analytes and 100% for blood bank specimens. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for personnel performing moderately complex testing?

<p>Participate in proficiency testing at least twice a year. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key aspect of Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)?

<p>Using data to improve existing processes is essential for CQI. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes the role of a technical supervisor in a highly complex laboratory?

<p>They ensure laboratory procedures are followed and records maintained. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of LEAN THINKING as described in the content?

<p>Removing waste and enhancing the value of services provided. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does not relate to Total Quality Improvement (TQI)?

<p>It disregards employee feedback or participation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of proficiency testing challenges required for each analyte?

<p>Three to five challenges per analyte. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is accurate regarding documentation in moderately complex testing?

<p>All testing personnel must maintain records according to established procedures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be done before a laboratory manual can be approved?

<p>It has to be signed by the laboratory director and reviewed by all personnel involved. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the basis for all preventive measures regarding bloodborne pathogens?

<p>Universal precautions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following materials must be treated as potentially infectious?

<p>All human blood and potentially infectious body fluids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key element is required in a written exposure control plan?

<p>It must detail procedures to minimize exposure to bloodborne pathogens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option is considered appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)?

<p>Gloves, gowns, laboratory coats, face shields, and eye protection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be ensured regarding the supply of personal protective equipment?

<p>PPE must be supplied to employees at no cost. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When must the laboratory manual be rewritten?

<p>When new procedures are implemented. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial component that should be part of the job classification identified in the exposure control plan?

<p>The tasks and procedures with potential exposure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a requirement for the vaccination series offered to employees?

<p>It must follow the protocols outlined in the Federal Register. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of chemicals are hazardous due to their potential for fire or explosion?

<p>Flammable/combustible chemicals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a characteristic of the required training sessions for employees regarding biosafety?

<p>Sessions must be generic for all employees. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics is associated with corrosive chemicals?

<p>They can cause injury to the skin or eyes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be included in the exposure incident program for employees?

<p>Procedures for evaluating and preventing further incidents (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a key requirement for the instructors of biosafety training?

<p>They must be knowledgeable about the specific hazards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of chemicals can cause spontaneous explosions or ignite under certain conditions?

<p>Reactive chemicals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly defines carcinogenic chemicals?

<p>Chemicals that can cause cancer in humans. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE about strategic planning?

<p>Strategic plans often involve collaborating with external organizations, including competitors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key difference between goals and objectives?

<p>Goals are achieved through a series of tasks, while objectives are the individual tasks themselves. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements BEST describes the relationship between operational planning and strategic planning?

<p>Strategic planning informs operational planning by setting the overall direction and goals. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main challenge for managers in terms of time management?

<p>Managers are responsible for identifying and eliminating time-wasting tasks, but these tasks often require significant resources. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of well-written objectives?

<p>They are broad and general, leaving room for interpretation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A job description serves a crucial purpose in the hiring process. Which of the following is NOT a key element typically included in a job description?

<p>The candidate's salary expectation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Resumes are designed to showcase a candidate's strengths and qualifications. Which of the following sections is LEAST likely to be included on a resume?

<p>Detailed descriptions of hobbies and interests (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The interview process serves multiple purposes for both the employer and the candidate. What is the PRIMARY purpose of the interview for the employer?

<p>To verify the information provided in the resume and application (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The selection process for a job candidate typically occurs after the interview. Which of the following is NOT a factor typically considered during the selection process?

<p>The candidate's previous salary (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cover letter plays a crucial role in the application process. Which of the following is the LEAST important element of a cover letter?

<p>Providing detailed information about the candidate's salary expectations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of an employee evaluation?

<p>To assess the performance of an employee relative to a standard (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant difference between a job description and a resume?

<p>A job description focuses on the position, while a resume focuses on the candidate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Imagine you are a hiring manager reviewing multiple resumes. Which of the following would be the LEAST important factor in your initial screening of candidates?

<p>The candidate's personal interests and hobbies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the use of a delta check particularly helpful in preventing lab errors?

<p>It helps to detect samples that have been diluted with IV fluids but not properly noted. (B), It identifies patient samples that have been improperly labeled. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The text mentions "WAIVED TESTING". What is the primary reason for requiring "WAIVED TESTING" to be relatively simple?

<p>It reduces the need for highly trained personnel to perform the tests. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following specimens would be most suitable for "WAIVED TESTING" based on the information provided?

<p>A urine sample for a pregnancy test (hCG) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of "prothrombin time" being listed under "WAIVED TESTING"?

<p>It indicates that the measurement of prothrombin time is relatively straightforward and can be performed by non-laboratory staff. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the provided information, which of these tests is NOT considered suitable for "WAIVED TESTING"?

<p>Complete blood count (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following motivational theories focuses on satisfying basic physical needs before higher level social needs?

<p>Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of MBO, how does effective communication contribute to success?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these concepts is NOT directly associated with the notion of 'professionalism' as described in the content?

<p>Financial Gain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the content, what are the primary driving forces that motivate a person's actions?

<p>Intrinsic desires and aspirations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following concepts most closely aligns with the idea of 'Motivators' in Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory?

<p>Maslow's growth needs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a core element of the American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science (ASCLS) Code of Ethics for Clinical Laboratory Science?

<p>Duty to competitors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key aspect of Vroom's Expectancy Theory of Motivation?

<p>Individuals are motivated by the belief that effort will lead to desired outcomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a core concept embodied within the Management By Objectives (MBO) framework?

<p>Negotiating (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of the "REFLEST" phase in problem-solving, as mentioned in the provided content?

<p>To evaluate the success of the solution and learn from the experience (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a key element associated with "MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR QUALITY" based on the information provided?

<p>Cost-effectiveness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is the LEAST crucial aspect of "DELIVERY OF EDUCATION UNIT", as described in the provided content?

<p>Establishing a budget for course materials (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When considering "COST" in the context of laboratory operations, which of the following is NOT a direct factor, as stated in the content?

<p>Cost of employee training and development (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information provided, which of the following represents a key aspect of "PROBLEM SOLVING"?

<p>Creating scenarios to explore potential solutions and their implications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following learning outcomes is BEST aligned with the "Affective" domain of learning, as described in the content?

<p>Developing a positive attitude toward patient confidentiality and ethical practices (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT directly addressed within the provided content in relation to "MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR QUALITY" in a laboratory setting?

<p>Compliance with regulatory standards and accreditation guidelines (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST describes the role of "LEARNING ACTIVITIES" within the "DELIVERY OF EDUCATION UNIT", based on the content?

<p>Learning activities provide opportunities for students to apply their knowledge and skills in a practical context (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of performing a SWOT analysis in the planning process?

<p>To assess internal and external factors affecting the organization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In bureaucracy management, which of the following aspects is emphasized to improve structural processes?

<p>Impersonality in the application of rules and regulations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is NOT one of Peter Drucker’s five basic management operations?

<p>Increasing profitability (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function of management is primarily concerned with guiding and influencing employees towards achieving organizational goals?

<p>Directing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does behavioral science in management primarily focus on?

<p>The psychological and sociological performance of individuals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does systems analysis view an organization?

<p>As a continuous process interacting with its environment (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is true regarding the management process?

<p>The functions are interdependent and continuously interactive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of establishing goals, why are written goals essential for an organization?

<p>They provide a clear direction for all employees to follow. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the safety procedures for handling corrosive chemicals in the clinical chemistry laboratory?

<p>All of the above statements are accurate descriptions of safety procedures for handling corrosive chemicals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key requirement for the instructors of biosafety training in a clinical chemistry laboratory?

<p>All of the above statements are key requirements for the instructors of biosafety training. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the information provided, which type of chemical poses the greatest risk of fire or explosion in a clinical chemistry laboratory?

<p>Flammable/combustible chemicals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the role of reactive chemicals in the laboratory setting?

<p>Reactive chemicals can spontaneously explode or ignite, evolving heat or flammable gases, making them a significant safety concern. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the training required for employees regarding biosafety is NOT true?

<p>Generic biosafety information provided in a written format and signed by employees meet the training requirements. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the handling and storage of flammable/combustible chemicals in the clinical chemistry laboratory?

<p>Both B and C are true statements about the handling and storage of flammable/combustible chemicals. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the exposure incident program for employees in a clinical chemistry laboratory?

<p>To provide employees with a comprehensive evaluation of the circumstances surrounding a potential exposure incident and to prevent future occurrences. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of chemical is defined as a substance that has been determined to cause cancer?

<p>Carcinogenic chemicals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential hazard associated with the use of cryogenic materials that can cause damage similar to thermal burns?

<p>Tissue Damage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to repetitive strain disorders?

<p>Exposure to Chemicals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of fire is specifically addressed by the use of Metal X?

<p>Class D (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following phases in the budget process primarily focuses on projecting available funds based on past performance and potential changes in regulations?

<p>Budget Assumptions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of the "Development of Goals" phase within the budget process?

<p>Ensuring laboratory goals align with the overall organization's objectives (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant difference between the hazards posed by compressed gases and cryogenic materials?

<p>Compressed gases present the risk of asphyxiation, while cryogenic materials primarily cause burns (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for laboratory personnel to be aware of the mechanical hazards associated with equipment like centrifuges, autoclaves, and homogenizers?

<p>To avoid injuries such as cuts, crushes, or projectiles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN reason why laboratory personnel need to be aware of the hazards associated with the use of any cryogenic material?

<p>To ensure that they are stored and handled safely to prevent accidents (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Objectives

Objectives are specific tasks designed to achieve a larger goal.

Focus of Objectives

Objectives are focused on accomplishing a single, well-defined goal.

Writing Effective Objectives

Objectives are written using action verbs to describe the specific task.

Short-Range Planning

Short-range plans cover a period of 1 to 5 years and focus on completing achievable tasks.

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Strategic Planning

Strategic planning outlines the long-term direction of an organization for approximately 20 years, including tactical and operational plans as well as partnerships.

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Job Description

A document outlining the responsibilities, qualifications, and reporting structure for a specific job.

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Resume

A tool that showcases a candidate's skills, experience, and education for potential employment.

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Cover Letter

A personalized letter accompanying a resume that focuses on the applicant's suitability for a specific job.

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Employee Interview

A structured conversation between an employer and candidate to assess suitability for a position.

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Selection Process

A systematic procedure for choosing the best candidate for a position, considering their qualifications and interview performance.

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Employee Evaluation

Evaluating an employee's performance against set criteria, typically done at regular intervals.

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Essential Functions

The duties and actions that are essential for a particular job.

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Working Conditions

The conditions and environment where a job is performed, such as office setting, lab, etc.

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Moderately Complex Testing Responsibilities

Performing moderately complex testing includes following lab procedures, maintaining records, adhering to policies, identifying problems, and documenting corrective actions.

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Testing Personnel Training

Testing personnel must have documented training in all areas of testing they perform.

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Highly Complex Laboratory Personnel

Highly complex laboratories, in addition to the requirements for moderately complex labs, must have a General Supervisor and a Technical Supervisor.

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Proficiency Testing (PT)

Proficiency testing ensures that a lab's testing processes produce accurate results compared to other facilities using the same methods.

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Proficiency Testing Challenges

Labs receive 3 to 5 challenges for each analyte requiring PT, three times a year.

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PT Performed by Routine Personnel

Personnel routinely performing the test procedures must perform the PT.

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Proficiency Testing Score Requirements

Labs need a score of at least 80% on all analytes to be in compliance, with blood bank specimens requiring 100%.

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Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) aims to improve processes and services by focusing on removing waste and adding value.

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Overproduction

Producing more than what is needed, leading to unnecessary inventory and resources.

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Correction (Defects)

Correcting mistakes, rework or re-testing, which adds time and cost to the process.

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Inventory

Having more supplies than needed, leading to storage issues and potential waste.

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Motion

Unnecessary movement of people or materials, wasting time and effort.

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Overprocessing

Performing tasks that add no value to the product or service, such as unnecessary paperwork or reports.

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Waiting

Waiting for something, such as information, materials, equipment, or approvals, leading to delays and inefficiency.

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Conveyance

Unnecessary transportation or movement of items, wasted time and resources.

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Six Sigma

A structured approach to improving processes by reducing variation and eliminating defects, using a data-driven method.

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Laboratory Manual

A document outlining all procedures used in a laboratory. It must be reviewed, updated and signed by the laboratory director, supervisor and all personnel using the procedure.

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Universal Precautions

Procedures that assume all human blood and body fluids are potentially infectious with bloodborne pathogens like HIV and HBV.

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Exposure Control Plan

A written plan outlining procedures to minimize employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens, identifying specific job classifications, tasks, and procedures with potential exposure.

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Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

Protective equipment worn by laboratory personnel to prevent exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials (PIMs).

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Appropriate Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

The equipment used to prevent exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials (PIMs) must be effective in preventing their passage to the employee's body.

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Examples of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

Specific types of personal protective equipment worn by laboratory personnel, including gloves, gowns, coats, face shields, masks, and eye protection.

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Laboratory Manual Updates

The manual must be reviewed and updated whenever new procedures are implemented.

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Laboratory Manual Retention

The laboratory manual must be retained for future reference.

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Flammable/Combustible Chemicals

Materials that can cause fire or explosion. They are categorized by their flash point, the temperature at which they ignite.

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Corrosive Chemicals

Chemicals harmful to skin, eyes, or respiratory/digestive systems upon contact, inhalation, or ingestion. Examples include acids and bases.

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Reactive Chemicals

Substances that can spontaneously explode or ignite, or produce heat, flammable gases, or explosive gases.

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Carcinogenic Chemicals

Substances that have been linked to causing cancer.

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Electrical Hazards

Potential hazards associated with using electrical appliances and equipment in a lab setting.

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OSHA Requirements for Biosafety Training

OSHA requires communication of hazards to employees, including free biosafety training during work hours. This training must be tailored to the specific work environment and not generic.

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Biosafety Training

OSHA mandated training for all employees working in a lab environment. It must be thorough, specific to the hazards they face, and demonstrate proper use of safety equipment.

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Specific Biosafety Training

OSHA regulations emphasize that biosafety training must be tailored to the lab setting, not generic, and include clear and documented instruction.

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Cause-and-Effect Analysis

A method of analyzing tasks by breaking them down into smaller, manageable steps to enhance efficiency.

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Bureaucracy Management

The study of how organizations function, focusing on their structures, processes, and rules.

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Behavioral Science

Examines human behavior within an organization using concepts from psychology, sociology, and management theories.

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Systems Analysis

Views an organization as a dynamic system interacting with its environment and internal processes.

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Management Process

A continuous process involving planning, organizing, directing, and controlling resources to achieve organizational goals.

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SWOT Analysis

Determining the organization's current position through analyzing its strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

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Course of Action

A set of actions or strategies designed to achieve a specific goal or objective.

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Written Goals

Written goals help align employees toward a shared outcome.

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Management By Objectives (MBO)

A program that combines all aspects of management, including planning, operation, direction, and control.

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Motivation

The forces that motivate people to act, including incentives, needs, and desires.

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Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

A theory that proposes a hierarchy of needs, starting with basic physical needs and moving towards higher-level social and self-actualization needs.

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Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory

A theory that identifies two sets of factors that influence employee motivation: hygiene factors which meet basic needs, and motivators which promote growth and satisfaction.

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Vroom's Expectancy Theory

A theory that suggests effort is related to the perceived value of the reward.

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Professionalism

The quality with which one practices their profession, encompassing aspects like altruism, integrity, and leadership.

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Professional Ethics

The study of moral standards and judgments, providing a framework for right and wrong conduct.

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Delta Check

Comparing a patient's current test result to a previous result for the same analyte helps detect errors like mislabeled samples or samples diluted with intravenous fluids during collection. It's crucial for ensuring accurate patient care.

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What is a Delta Check?

A delta check compares a patient's current test result to a previous result for the same analyte to detect potential errors in sample labeling or collection.

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Waived Testing

Waived testing is a category of laboratory tests that are considered simple and safe enough to be performed in non-laboratory settings, such as doctor's offices or home health agencies.

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Flash Point

The temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapor to ignite in air.

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Compressed Gas Hazards

Compressed gases like those used in labs can cause fire, explosion, asphyxiation, and mechanical injuries.

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Cryogenic Hazards

The use of cryogenic materials can lead to fire or explosion, asphyxiation, pressure buildup, embrittlement of materials, and tissue damage like burns.

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Mechanical Hazards

Laboratory equipment like centrifuges, autoclaves, and homogenizers can pose mechanical hazards.

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Ergonomic Hazards

Repetitive movements can contribute to repetitive strain disorders like tenosynovitis, bursitis, and ganglion cysts.

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Budget Process

A budget process involves developing goals, making budget assumptions, and forecasting expenses.

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Class A Fire

Ordinary combustible solid materials like paper, wood, plastic, and fabric.

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Class B Fire

Flammable liquids and gases, as well as combustible petroleum products.

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Sensitivity

The accuracy of a test in identifying positive results, meaning it correctly identifies individuals who have the condition being tested for.

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Specificity

The accuracy of a test in identifying negative results, meaning it correctly identifies individuals who do not have the condition being tested for.

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Precision

The degree to which repeated measurements of the same sample produce similar results, indicating the test's reliability.

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Goal

A general statement outlining the instructor's purpose for a particular instructional activity.

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Learning Activities

Activities that allow students to master objectives. Examples include lectures, lab sessions, demonstrations, and online courses.

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Evaluation

Measures the effectiveness of learning activities, providing feedback on learners' achievement of course objectives.

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Study Notes

Laboratory Management

  • Management is defined as the organizing and controlling of a business's affairs or working with people to achieve a common goal.
  • Key leadership theories include:
    • Tannenbaum and Schmidt: Leadership styles on a continuum from authoritative to democratic.
    • McGregor X and Y: McGregor X theory is authoritative, Y theory is democratic.
    • Blake and Mouton: Five management styles plotted on a grid based on concern for people versus production (impoverished, authority-compliance, middle-of-the-road, country club, and team).
    • Fielder: Leadership style varies by situation, favoring task-oriented leaders in favorable/unfavorable situations and relationship-oriented leaders in moderately favorable/unfavorable situations.
    • Hersey-Blanchard: Four leadership styles based on employee experience and need for supervision.
  • Management skills include: organizational, people, financial, and technical skills.
  • Management theories include:
    • Scientific Management (Frederick Taylor): Applying a systematic approach by breaking down tasks to boost efficiency.
    • Bureaucracy Management: Focuses on organizational aspects, emphasizing a hierarchical structure.
    • Behavioral Science: Emphasizes the performance and interactions of people in the organizational setting using psychology and sociology.
    • Systems Analysis (Peter Drucker): Viewing the organization as a continuous process interacting with its environment through five basic elements: Setting objectives, Organizing, Motivating, Communicating, and Developing People.

Management Process

  • Management is a continuous process of interacting functions dependent on one another.
  • Four main functions are planning, organizing, directing, and controlling.
  • Planning involves determining organizational standing and goals.
  • Planning includes:
    • SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats)
    • Formulating goals (broad, achieving specific tasks)
    • Writing objectives (tasks to achieve goals)
    • Types of plans (Short-range/tactical, Operational, Strategic).
  • Organizing involves assigning tasks and resources, managing time effectively, and coordinating individuals and teams.

Directing

  • Persuading employees to perform tasks required to meet organizational goals.
  • Communication techniques including face-to-face, written, and listening techniques
    • Face-to-face: advantages include immediate feedback and non-verbal cues; disadvantages are barriers and difficulty in saving the conversation.
    • Written: advantages include saving the conversation, distribution to many; disadvantage of feedback delay.
  • Different techniques: Authoritative, coaching, empowering.

Motivating

  • Influencing a person to act in a particular way, generating initiative.
  • Motivators include: salary, empowerment, recognition, praise, encouragement.
  • Delegation: assigning responsibility, authority, and accountability for tasks effectively.

Delegating

  • Effective delegation occurs with the right task for the right person, clear directions, sufficient time, and recognition for performance.
  • Different leadership styles include: authoritative, consultative (participative/democratic), and delegative (empowering).

Quality Management

  • Quality programs involve statistical analysis, training & education, evaluation, and feedback to ensure reliable results and prevent issues.
  • Quality programs are used to improve the overall workings of an organization.
  • Quality system, Quality assurance (QA) programs, and quality control (QC) are important parts of quality management.
  • QA evaluates services providing ways to prevent problems, along with dealing with any issues.
  • QC ensures specific test methods are properly working with reliable results, part of an overall QA program.
  • QA includes record keeping, calibration of equipment, proficiency testing, quality control, and training.

Laboratory Processes

  • Includes laboratory accreditation, testing, validation, calibration and ongoing maintenance needed for the accuracy, precision and reliability of results.
  • Good manufacturing practices (GMP) are crucial in the laboratory, part of QA and mandated by FDA. This includes maintaining records of procedures and materials, use of indelible ink. Also includes control samples for testing.

Safety & Quality

  • Quality control (QC) ensures test reliability through control samples.
  • Corrective actions are taken to address quality issues, usually after analysis of data, including problems identified in the initial testing process.
  • Preventive actions reduce the possibility of problems through planning and anticipation.
  • A quality control manual must include testing methodologies, specimen collection processing, rejection criteria, test procedures, calibration procedures, material preparation, testing controls, instruction interpretation, and record keeping regarding procedure for tests performed.
  • Safety regulations cover bloodborne pathogens, exposure control plans, PPE, and appropriate disposal for hazardous materials.

Laboratory Accreditation

  • Processes of testing complexity, qualifications, and personnel responsibilities for each level.

Management

  • Management involves achieving objectives using appropriate resources through individuals, teams and departments.

Employee Management

  • Employee scheduling is critical for laboratory operations.
  • The impact of factors like tests offered, staffing levels, test complexity, emergency situations, TATs, and turnaround time expectations impact scheduling decisions.

Finances

  • Budgeting involves developing goals in alignment with the organization's goals, considering financial forecasts, identifying costs, and evaluating and monitoring variances.

Other

  • Communication and interpersonal relationships are vital for teamwork and collaboration.
  • Team building helps achieve organizational goals.
  • Documentation and record-keeping are essential for traceability, quality assurance, and regulatory compliance.
  • Continuous quality improvement is a process to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of the laboratory through a cycle of Plan-Do-Check-Act.
  • Six Sigma methodology (DMAIC) is a data-driven approach to problem solving and continuous improvement, including project definition, measurement, analysis, improvement, and control.
  • Hazardous materials, including flammables, corrosives, and cryogenic materials, require careful handling and specific safety procedures.

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Laboratory Management MTLE March 2025 PDF

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