RMT MCQ Exit Exam Questions
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of antagonistic muscles?

  • To immobilize a bone during movement
  • To oppose or reverse a movement (correct)
  • To maintain upright posture
  • To provide extra force to a movement

    • Which term describes the action of decreasing the angle of a joint?

  • Extension
  • Hyperextension
  • Abduction
  • Flexion (correct)

    • What type of muscle acts to help stabilize the prime mover during movement?

  • Synergist
  • Prime mover
  • Fixator (correct)
  • Antagonist

    • In which plane does abduction primarily occur?

    <p>Frontal plane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structure does the acetabulum form part of?

    <p>The hip bone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does recall bias refer to in study participants?

    <p>Tendency to distort historical information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of a search strategy in research?

    <p>To identify key terms for retrieving articles on a topic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does reproducibility in research indicate?

    <p>The study can be replicated by another investigator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is meant by statistical significance in a study?

    <p>The results are not likely due to chance or random error</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the tendency for extreme values to return closer to the average over repeated measurements?

    <p>Regression to the Mean</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the process of autodigestion of cells, especially dead or degenerate cells called?

    <p>Autolysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the pituitary gland is referred to as the adenohypophysis?

    <p>Anterior pituitary</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action does acetylcholinesterase perform at the neuromuscular junction?

    <p>Degrades acetylcholine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a hypersensitivity reaction?

    <p>Overzealous immune response to a harmless antigen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The axon in neurons functions primarily to:

    <p>Carry impulses away from the nerve cell body</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the process of absorption refer to in digestion?

    <p>Products of digestion passing into the blood or lymph</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is acidosis characterized by?

    <p>Increased hydrogen ion concentration in extracellular fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Adaptation in sensory neurons occurs when:

    <p>Sensory receptors are stimulated continuously without change</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily composes cerebral white matter?

    <p>Myelinated fibers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes cerebrospinal fluid?

    <p>Plasma-like fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term describes the cluster of structures including the cerebral cortex, white matter, and basal nuclei?

    <p>Cerebrum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about capillaries is true?

    <p>They enable gas exchange between blood and tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the term 'caudal' in anatomical terms?

    <p>Toward the tail</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of B lymphocytes?

    <p>To oversee humoral immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What best describes a benign tumor?

    <p>Not malignant and not life-threatening</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of bone resorption?

    <p>To remove osseous tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which abdominopelvic region is located deep to and surrounding the umbilicus?

    <p>Umbilical Region</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the position of the hypogastric region in relation to the umbilical region?

    <p>Inferior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which terminology refers to regions located lateral to the hypogastric region?

    <p>Iliac Regions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the coronal plane divide in the body?

    <p>Front and back halves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which plane is referred to as a sagittal plane that lies exactly in the midline?

    <p>Median Plane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which region lies lateral to the epigastric region and is deep to the ribs?

    <p>Hypochondriac Regions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which part of the body does the anatomical position standardize?

    <p>Structural relationships</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a parasagittal plane?

    <p>Offset from the median plane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which abdominopelvic region is located inferior to the umbilical region?

    <p>Hypogastric Region</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which anatomical position does the body face forward with arms at the sides?

    <p>Anatomical Position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the coronal plane divide in the body?

    <p>Anterior and Posterior</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the term for a sagittal plane that lies exactly in the midline?

    <p>Median Plane</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following regions lies lateral to the umbilical region?

    <p>Right Lumbar Region</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in the body?

    <p>It stores and releases chemical energy for use in body cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which abdominopelvic regions are also known as the inguinal regions?

    <p>Right &amp; Left Iliac Regions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes substances recognized as foreign by the immune system?

    <p>Antigens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term refers to the region located superior to the umbilical region?

    <p>Epigastric Region</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the process of apoptosis?

    <p>A process of controlled cellular suicide.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What anatomical feature is described as being deep to the ribs?

    <p>Right Hypochondriac Region</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes an anion?

    <p>An ion carrying one or more negative charges.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of an association area in the cerebral cortex?

    <p>Functional areas that integrate diverse information for purposeful action.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating an extrinsic eye muscle?

    <p>Trochlear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the largest cranial nerve, supplying sensory and motor fibers to the face?

    <p>Trigeminal Nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the abducens nerve?

    <p>Control of lateral eye movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of joint is typically responsible for flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction?

    <p>Biaxial Joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements accurately describes cranial nerves?

    <p>There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of connective tissue is fascia primarily composed of?

    <p>Dense irregular connective tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which description best fits flat bones?

    <p>Thin, flattened, and usually slightly curved</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of movement is described as occurring when flat bone surfaces glide over one another?

    <p>Gliding movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What results from an injury to the trochlear nerve?

    <p>Double vision and reduced eye rotation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the characteristic feature of the scapulae?

    <p>Also known as shoulder blades</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of the dorsal body cavity?

    <p>Protects fragile nervous system organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes the ventral body cavity?

    <p>It is more anterior and larger with subdivisions for thoracic and abdominopelvic organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which two subdivisions make up the dorsal body cavity?

    <p>Cranial and vertebral/spinal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the cranial cavity specifically contain?

    <p>The brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of body cavities?

    <p>To protect and house internal organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately defines a transverse section?

    <p>It divides the body into superior and inferior parts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements describes how dorsal and ventral body cavities differ?

    <p>Dorsal and ventral cavities differ in embryonic development and lining membranes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of viscera in the ventral body cavity?

    <p>To contain the body's internal organs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the vertebral/spinal cavity?

    <p>It encloses the spinal cord within the bony vertebral column</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key characteristic of both dorsal and ventral body cavities?

    <p>They provide protection to the organs contained within</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system do?

    <p>Mobilizes body systems during activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which study design compares baseline measures before treatment with those after treatment?

    <p>Before-After Treatment Design</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of study is a case-control study?

    <p>Observational study analyzing pre-existing conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of a control group in research?

    <p>To act as a baseline for comparison</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does compliance refer to in a research study?

    <p>Adherence to the study protocol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term is used to describe the exposure and outcome having already occurred in a study?

    <p>Case-Control Study</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of an analytic study?

    <p>A quantitative, experimental study</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What do Boolean operators help with in research?

    <p>Limiting or expanding search results</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes a cohort study?

    <p>Defined by presence or absence of exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information does an abstract typically provide?

    <p>Concise summary of the study</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main role of plasma cells in the immune system?

    <p>They produce antibodies against antigens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the blood-brain barrier primarily reflect?

    <p>Relative impermeability of brain capillaries.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of bile produced by the liver?

    <p>To emulsify fats in the small intestine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during atelectasis in the lungs?

    <p>Collapse or incomplete expansion of the lung.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

    <p>Rate of energy expended in a fasting state at rest.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of a mean in statistical terms?

    <p>The arithmetical average of a group of scores</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'Intention to Treat' refer to in statistical analysis?

    <p>Analysis based on total number of participants originally enrolled</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes the process of repeated development or refinement?

    <p>Iterative process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does internal validity assess in a study?

    <p>The capacity to link cause and effect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a longitudinal study in research?

    <p>A study observing participants over an extended period</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the margin of error typically expressed in survey research?

    <p>As a range, such as 'plus or minus'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of 'Letters to the Editor' in academic journals?

    <p>To respond to previously published articles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a literature review entail in research?

    <p>A critique of previous research studies on a specific topic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does diastasis recti refer to?

    <p>Separation of the rectus abdominis muscle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes dyspnea?

    <p>Shortness of breath</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of dislocation in a joint?

    <p>Displacement of a part within a joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term describes the quality of feel experienced at the end of the available range of motion during an evaluation?

    <p>End feel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does dynamic stabilization involve?

    <p>Engagement of trunk or proximal girdle muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of emphysema?

    <p>Chronic inflammation and deterioration of lung tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of exercise is referred to as eccentric exercise?

    <p>Lengthening of the muscle while under tension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does distraction refer to in therapeutic techniques?

    <p>Separation of joint surfaces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by the inability to undertake normal activities of daily living?

    <p>Disability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What causes the disruption of continuity within the abdominal wall in diastasis recti?

    <p>Separation at the linea alba</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes chronic bronchitis?

    <p>Inflammation of the bronchi lasting up to 3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes closed chain exercises?

    <p>Exercises where the distal end is fixed to a supporting surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of deterioration in chondromalacia patella?

    <p>Deterioration of the articular cartilage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a shortening or hypomobility of soft tissues?

    <p>Contracture</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant complication associated with cystic fibrosis?

    <p>Chronic lung infections and pancreatic dysfunction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes concentric exercise?

    <p>Shortening of the muscle while generating tension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary symptom of a contusion?

    <p>Bruising and swelling from a direct blow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How long must symptoms persist to be diagnosed with chronic bronchitis?

    <p>At least twice a year for 3 months</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS) is associated with which of the following?

    <p>Exercise-induced muscle tenderness or stiffness occurring after workout</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

    <p>A variety of chronic lung conditions including chronic bronchitis and emphysema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of autoimmunity?

    <p>Production of antibodies or effector T cells that attack a person's own tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance degrades acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions?

    <p>Acetylcholinesterase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the process of absorption in digestion involve?

    <p>Products of digestion passing into the blood or lymph</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a sensory nerve adaptation?

    <p>A decline in transmission when a receptor is continuously stimulated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is acidosis characterized by?

    <p>Abnormally high concentrations of hydrogen ions in extracellular fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does aldosterone play in the body?

    <p>Regulates sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion in kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structure serves as the conducting portion of a nerve cell?

    <p>Axon</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are accessory digestive organs?

    <p>Organs contributing to digestion but not part of the alimentary canal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the definition of an action potential?

    <p>Abrupt changes in membrane potential transmitting nerve signals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does autolysis occur in cells?

    <p>By self-digestion, especially in degenerate cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of antagonistic muscles during movement?

    <p>To oppose or reverse a movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the function of fixators in muscle movement?

    <p>They provide a stable base for the prime mover</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does flexion involve in terms of joint movement?

    <p>Decreasing the joint angle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which anatomical movement does extension occur?

    <p>Increasing the angle of the joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the anatomical term for moving a limb away from the body's midline?

    <p>Abduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best describes the acetabulum?

    <p>A cuplike cavity that receives the femur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option best defines the term 'synergist' in muscle movement?

    <p>A muscle that helps prime movers by adding force</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does hyperextension refer to in anatomical terms?

    <p>Movement beyond the anatomical position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of bile in the digestive system?

    <p>To emulsify fats in the small intestine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'thrombus' refer to?

    <p>A stationary blood clot formed in a vessel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the blood-brain barrier?

    <p>To protect the brain from harmful substances in the blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes atelectasis?

    <p>Partial or complete collapse of the lung</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of the trochlear nerve?

    <p>Controls eye movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are bronchioles?

    <p>Small branches of the bronchi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial nerve is the largest and is responsible for motor and sensory functions in the face?

    <p>Trigeminal nerve</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of an injury to the abducens nerve?

    <p>Inability to rotate the eye laterally</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following joints is classified as a biaxial joint?

    <p>Metacarpophalangeal joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic defines a flat bone?

    <p>Thin and flattened</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action describes gliding movement?

    <p>Side-to-side movement of flat surfaces</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of fascia in the body?

    <p>Compartmentalizes muscle groups</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?

    <p>12 pairs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a symptom of trigeminal neuralgia?

    <p>Face pain due to inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the sternum refer to?

    <p>The breastbone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of osteoclasts?

    <p>Facilitate bone resorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factors influence the bone remodeling process?

    <p>Mechanical and hormonal factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does calcitonin affect blood calcium levels?

    <p>It lowers blood calcium levels at high therapeutic levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a callus in relation to skin or fractures?

    <p>A localized thickening of the epidermis or repair tissue at a fracture site</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are carbohydrates primarily composed of?

    <p>Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes catabolism?

    <p>Breaking down substances into simpler substances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a cation?

    <p>An ion with a positive charge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristics define cartilage?

    <p>White, semiopaque connective tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do chemoreceptors play in the body?

    <p>They respond to various chemicals in solution</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary damage caused by burns?

    <p>Denaturation of cell proteins and tissue damage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of amylase in the digestive system?

    <p>It breaks down starchy foods.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by inflammation of a joint?

    <p>Arthritis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What describes the process of atrophy?

    <p>Wasting or reduction in size of cells or tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of anaerobic exercise?

    <p>It occurs without the presence of inspired oxygen.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'autoregulation' refer to in the context of blood flow?

    <p>An automatic adjustment of blood flow to a specific area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which term best describes abnormal adherence of collagen fibers to surrounding structures?

    <p>Adhesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by a reduction in the oxygen-carrying ability of blood?

    <p>Anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of exercise is characterized by submaximal, rhythmic movements of large muscle groups?

    <p>Aerobic exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes apnea?

    <p>Cessation of breathing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term refers to the pattern of limitation characteristic for a specific joint?

    <p>Capsular pattern</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Abdominopelvic Regions

    • Umbilical Region: Centermost area, deep to umbilicus.
    • Epigastric Region: Located above the umbilical region (epi = upon, gastri = belly).
    • Hypogastric Region: Located below the umbilical region, also known as the pubic region (hypo = below).
    • Right & Left Iliac Regions: Lateral to hypogastric region, known as inguinal region; iliac refers to superior part of the hip bone.
    • Right & Left Lumbar Regions: Lateral to the umbilical region (lumbus = loin).
    • Right & Left Hypochondriac Regions: Lateral to the epigastric region, deep to ribs (chondro = cartilage).

    Anatomical Terminology

    • Anatomical Position: Standard position for anatomical reference to describe relationships between structures.
    • Coronal Plane: Divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior), also termed frontal plane.
    • Sagittal Plane: Divides the body into left and right halves; parasagittal planes are offset from the center.
    • Median Plane: Also known as midsagittal plane, lies exactly in the midline.
    • Transverse Plane: Divides the body into upper and lower parts.

    Muscle Functions

    • Antagonist: Muscles that work against prime movers, providing resistance.
    • Synergist: Assists prime movers by adding force or reducing unnecessary movements.
    • Fixator: Stabilizes bones or muscle origins to aid prime mover efficacy.

    Movements

    • Flexion: Bending movement in the sagittal plane that decreases joint angle.
    • Extension: Straightens a flexed limb, increasing the joint angle.
    • Hyperextension: Movement beyond the anatomical position.
    • Abduction: Movement away from the midline along the frontal plane.

    Anatomy and Physiology

    • Acetabulum: Cup-shaped cavity in the hip bone that receives the femur.
    • Reactivity Issues: Refers to changes in study participants' behavior due to being observed.
    • Recall Bias: Participants’ tendency to distort historical information, leading to inaccurate data.
    • Statistical Significance: Indicates results are unlikely due to chance.

    Immune System and Cellular Biology

    • Autolysis: Self-digestion of cells, especially dead ones.
    • Hypersensitivity: Excessive immune response to harmless antigens.
    • B Lymphocytes: Cells that manage humoral immunity, differentiating into plasma cells for antibody production.

    Digestive System

    • Accessory Digestive Organs: Include tongue, teeth, salivary glands, pancreas, and liver; not part of the alimentary canal.
    • Alimentary Canal: Continuous hollow tube from mouth to anus involved in digestion.

    Hormonal and Neurological Aspects

    • Acetylcholine: Neurotransmitter released by nerve endings.
    • Acetylcholinesterase: Enzyme that degrades acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions.
    • Action Potential: Abrupt changes in membrane potential that transmit nerve signals.

    Structural Elements

    • Cervical Vertebrae: Seven vertebrae in the neck region.
    • Capillaries: Smallest blood vessels where exchanges occur between blood and tissues.
    • Cerebrospinal Fluid: Protective fluid surrounding the CNS.

    Other Key Concepts

    • Aldosterone: Hormone regulating sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion by kidneys.
    • Basal Lamina: Noncellular structure involved in skin disorders, consists of glycoproteins secreted by epithelial cells.
    • Bone Resorption: Process of removing osseous (bone) tissue.

    Abdominopelvic Regions

    • Umbilical Region: Centermost area, surrounding the navel.
    • Epigastric Region: Superior to the umbilical region; 'epi' means above.
    • Hypogastric Region: Inferior to the umbilical region; also known as the pubic region; 'hypo' means below.
    • Right & Left Iliac Regions: Lateral to the hypogastric region; also known as inguinal regions.
    • Right & Left Lumbar Regions: Lateral to the umbilical region; 'lumbus' refers to the loin.
    • Right & Left Hypochondriac Regions: Lateral to the epigastric region; deep under the ribs, 'chondro' refers to cartilage.

    Anatomical Orientation

    • Anatomical Position: Standard body position for consistent descriptions of structure.
    • Coronal Plane: Divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections; also called the frontal plane.
    • Sagittal Plane: Divides the body into left and right halves; parasagittal planes are offset from the midline.
    • Median Plane: Known as midsagittal plane; lies exactly in the midline.
    • Transverse Plane: Also called horizontal plane; divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) parts.

    Body Cavities

    • Dorsal Body Cavity: Protects the nervous system; subdivided into cranial (brain) and vertebral (spinal cord) cavities.
    • Ventral Body Cavity: Larger and anterior cavity; includes thoracic and abdominopelvic subdivisions; houses viscera.
    • Cranial Cavity: Located in the skull; encases the brain.
    • Vertebral/Spinal Cavity: Within the vertebral column; encloses the spinal cord.

    Nervous System and Cranial Nerves

    • Cranial Nerves: Twelve pairs total; first two attach to the forebrain, others associate with the brainstem; serve head and neck.
    • CN IV (Trochlear): Innervates an eye muscle; injury can cause double vision.
    • CN V (Trigeminal): Largest cranial nerve; supplies face sensation and motor functions for chewing; injury may lead to trigeminal neuralgia.
    • CN VI (Abducens): Primarily motor functions; injury results in inability to move the eye laterally.

    Joint Types and Movements

    • Condyloid Joint: Biaxial movement; allows flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction; examples include knuckle and wrist joints.
    • Gliding Movement: Occurs between flat bone surfaces; allows back-and-forth and side-to-side motion at intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

    Study and Research Concepts

    • Abstract: Summary of research highlighting objectives and findings.
    • Analytic Study: Quantitative and experimental in nature.
    • Before-After Treatment Design: Compares baseline measures before and after treatment.
    • Case-Control Study: Observational study analyzing past exposure and outcomes.
    • Clinical Trial: Experimental study with random assignment of treatments.
    • Cohort Study: Follows a defined group over time based on exposure status.
    • Control Group: Receives no treatment; serves as a comparison for the experimental group.

    Biological Concepts

    • Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP): Energy storage molecule used by bodily cells.
    • Anabolism: Building phase of metabolism requiring energy; combines simpler substances into complex ones.
    • Antigen: Foreign substance recognized by the immune system; activates immune response.
    • Apoptosis: Controlled cell death process for unneeded or damaged cells.

    Essential Terminology

    • Fascia: Dense irregular connective tissue; aids in the compartmentalization of muscle groups and connects structures.
    • Atom: Smallest unit exhibiting properties of an element; composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons.

    Research and Statistics Terminology

    • Hypothesis: A highly specific statement that can be tested for truth or falsehood through empirical data collection and analysis.
    • Intention to Treat: A statistical approach that includes all originally enrolled participants, regardless of whether they completed the study.
    • Internal Validity: Refers to a study's ability to establish causal relationships between variables.
    • Intervention Study: Also termed an experimental or treatment study, this involves testing the effects of a treatment or intervention.

    Study Methodologies

    • Iterative Process: Involves repeated development or refinement through multiple cycles.
    • Literature Review: A critical examination of existing research studies focused on a specific topic.
    • Longitudinal Study: Known as a cohort study, it examines subjects over a prolonged period.

    Statistical Concepts

    • Margin of Error: Indicates the potential error in survey results, typically presented as a range (e.g., ±4%).
    • Mean: The arithmetic average computed by dividing the sum of scores by the number of scores.

    Biological and Physiological Terms

    • Autoimmunity: The process where the immune system produces antibodies or T cells that attack the body’s own tissues.
    • Autolysis: A self-digestion process that occurs in dead or degenerate cells.
    • Axon: The part of a neuron that transmits impulses away from the nerve cell body, constituting the conducting segment of a nerve cell.

    Immune Responses and Digestive Processes

    • Hypersensitivity: An exaggerated immune response to harmless antigens.
    • Absorption: The process by which digested nutrients pass through the gastrointestinal wall into the bloodstream or lymphatic system.
    • Accessory Digestive Organs: Include the tongue, teeth, salivary glands, pancreas, and liver; they play roles in digestion but are not part of the alimentary canal.

    Chemical Transmitters and Processes

    • Acetylcholine: A neurotransmitter released by certain nerve endings.
    • Acetylcholinesterase: An enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine to terminate its action at neuromuscular junctions.
    • Acidosis: A condition characterized by elevated hydrogen ion concentrations in extracellular fluid.

    Physical Exercises and Injuries

    • Closed Chain Exercise: Involves fixed distal limbs while the trunk or proximal segment moves (e.g., squatting).
    • Concentric Exercise: Involves muscle shortening while generating tension against resistance.
    • Contracture: An abnormal shortening or hypomobility of a structure preventing normal flexibility.
    • Contusion: Results from a direct blow causing bruising without skin break, marked by swelling and pain.

    Conditions and Syntheses

    • Cystic Fibrosis: A genetic disorder affecting exocrine glands, leading to lung infections and pancreatic issues.
    • Chronic Bronchitis: Persistent bronchial inflammation with a productive cough lasting three months or more, seen in recurrent cases.
    • Emphysema: A chronic lung disease involving inflammation and destruction of air sacs, impairing airflow.

    Neurological and Cardiovascular Terms

    • Embolus: A dislodged blood clot transported through the bloodstream, potentially causing vessel occlusion.
    • Plasma Cell: A cell derived from activated B lymphocytes that produces antibodies.
    • Atlectasis: A condition marked by alveolar collapse or incomplete lung expansion.

    Other Key Terms

    • Basal Metabolic Rate: The energy expenditure rate at rest, measured after fasting for 12 hours.
    • Bolus: A rounded mass of chewed food ready for swallowing.
    • Blood Brain Barrier: A selective semi-permeable barrier preventing the passage of substances from the bloodstream to brain tissue.

    Organ Structures

    • Alimentary Canal: A continuous tube running from the mouth to the anus, comprising the digestive tract.
    • Brain Stem: Contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla, which are vital for autonomic functions and relaying signals between the brain and spinal cord.

    Muscle Actions and Types

    • Antagonist: Muscles opposing a movement, working against prime movers by providing resistance, located on opposite sides of joints.
    • Synergist: Assists prime movers by offering additional force for the same movement and reducing unwanted movements.
    • Fixator: Stabilizes the origin of prime movers, maintaining posture and providing a stable base for movement.

    Joint Movements

    • Flexion: Bending motion decreasing the angle between articulating bones along the sagittal plane.
    • Extension: Increases the angle between articulating bones, typically straightens a limb; hyperextension occurs when movements exceed anatomical position.
    • Abduction: Movement away from the midline, such as raising an arm laterally or spreading fingers/toes.

    Anatomy Terms

    • Acetabulum: Cuplike cavity in the hip bone that receives the femur, formed by three bones and positioned inferolaterally.
    • Condyloid Joint: Biaxial joints allowing flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction; examples include metacarpophalangeal joints.

    Nervous System

    • Cranial Nerves: Twelve pairs, with the first two attached to the forebrain; responsible for head and neck functions, except vagus which extends to the abdomen.
    • CN IV - Trochlear: Innervates extrinsic eye muscles; injury leads to double vision and limited eye rotation.
    • CN V - Trigeminal: Largest cranial nerve, supplies sensory fibers to the face and motor fibers to chewing muscles; inflammation causes trigeminal neuralgia.
    • CN VI - Abducens: Primarily a motor nerve; injury results in the inability to move the eye laterally.

    Muscle and Tissue Types

    • Fascia: Dense irregular connective tissue that compartmentalizes muscles and connects various body structures.
    • Flat Bone: Thin, flattened bones, such as the sternum, scapulae, ribs, and skull bones.

    Movement Types

    • Gliding Movement: Occurs when nearly flat bone surfaces slide over one another, as seen in intercarpal joints.

    Biochemistry and Physiology

    • Amino Acids: Organic compounds serving as building blocks of proteins.
    • Amylase: Enzyme aiding in the digestion of starches.
    • Anemia: Condition characterized by reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in blood due to low erythrocytes or faulty hemoglobin.
    • Autoregulation: Local adjustment of blood flow based on the needs of a specific body area.
    • Bursitis: Inflammation of a bursa, a fluid-filled sac.

    Structural Pathologies

    • Adhesions: Abnormal connections of collagen fibers caused by immobilization or trauma, restricting normal elasticity.
    • Burns: Tissue damage caused by heat, chemicals, or radiation, resulting in denaturation of cell proteins.

    Hormonal and Cellular Functions

    • Calcitonin: Hormone from the thyroid that lowers blood calcium levels by inhibiting release from bones.
    • Osteoclasts: Cells involved in bone resorption, participating in continuous bone remodeling.

    Nutritional Compounds

    • Carbohydrate: Organic compounds that include starches, sugars, and cellulose.
    • Catabolism: Breakdown of substances into simpler molecules within living cells.

    Respiratory and Blood Functions

    • Apnea: Cessation of spontaneous breathing.
    • Embolus: A clot or thrombus that travels through the bloodstream, potentially causing vessel occlusion.

    Miscellaneous

    • Plasma Cell: Activated B lymphocyte that secretes antibodies.
    • Bile: Produces in the liver; aids in digestion, stored in the gallbladder, and released into the small intestine.
    • Blood-Brain Barrier: Mechanism that restricts passage of substances from blood to brain, ensuring brain capillary impermeability.

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